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Foodborne Illnesses

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

 

How is “giardiasis” USUALLY transmitted to others?

a)

Person-to-person transfer of cysts from the feces of the infected individual

b)

Drinking unboiled water from streams and lakes

c)

Drinking unfiltered water from streams and lakes

d)

Drinking inadequately chlorinated water from a municipal water distribution system

2.

Swimmer’s itch is a common name for which of the following diseases?

a)

Leptospirosis

b)

Subdural dermatitis

c)

Schistosomiasis

d)

Trichinosis

3.

Which of the following factors would LEAST contribute to the emergence of new infectious disease?

a)

Human behavior

b)

Heat disinfection

c)

Antibiotic use

d)

Disinfectant use

4.

Listeriosis is COMMONLY associated with:

a)

Contaminated Water

b)

Infected mice

c)

Infected birds

d)

Contaminated food

5.

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by infection with

a)

Dracunculus medinensis

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Salmonella typhimurium

d)

Escherichia coli 015 7:H7

6.

The basic principles of disease control include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Lag phase

b)

Mode of transmission

c)

Susceptibility

d)

Control of disease source

7.

An establishment known to have imminent health hazards is not closed by the inspecting regulatory authority. This example BEST fits the definition of a

a)

Malfeasance

b)

Misfeasance

c)

Controlling factor

d)

Nonfeasance

8.

Performance of an authorized act in a unauthorized manner is called

a)

Nonfeasance

b)

Misfeasance

c)

Disfeasance

d)

Malfeasance

9.

How is the term “contamination” defined when used in connection with a communicable disease?

a)

Infection of an individual or animal with pathogenic organisms

b)

Transfer of a vector, regardless of time or the nature of the host

c)

Contact between two or more sources of infection

d)

Presence of pathogenic agents on a surface, article, or substance

10.

Hay fever is correctly referred to as:

a)

Leguminosis

b)

Asthma

c)

Sinusitis

d)

Pollenosis

11.

According to 2010 revised estimates by the CDC, the number of deaths annually related to foodborne illnesses, is estimated to be:

a)

5,000

b)

4,000

c)

2,000

d)

3,000

12.

Although the Norwalk-like virus is considered an extremely common cause of foodborne illness, it is rarely diagnosed. According to Marriott, approximately 66% of all foodborne illnesses in the US are caused by:

a)

bacteria

b)

viruses

c)

parasites

d)

toxins

13.

When discussing infective dose, exposure to 2 or more substances can cause this effect

a)

antagonistic

b)

additive

c)

all of the above

d)

synergistic

14.

According to Marriott this pathogen is estimated to cause 2500 serious illnesses and 500 deaths annually (2001):

a)

listeria monocytogenes

b)

Norovirus.

c)

Salmonella.

d)

Staphylococcus aureus (Staph)

15.

Large outbreaks of norovirus, vibrio parahaemolyticus, and vibrio vulnificus are generally associated with:

a)

Raw oysters

b)

Lobster

c)

Shellfish

d)

All of the Above

16.

Incomplete cooking and cooling of stews, meats, gravies, and large cuts of meat that have been rolled or penetrated with skewers can lead to outbreaks of:

a)

Clostridium perfringins food poisoning

b)

Norovirus

c)

Listeria monocytogenes

d)

Parahaemolyticus

17.

Goiter is a thyroid disorder usually caused by a Deficient iodine intake in the diet

a)

Deficient iodine intake in the diet

b)

Deficient calcium intake in the diet

c)

Deficient potassium intake in the diet

18.

Kwashiorkor, common among children less than 6 years of age living in under developed areas of the world, is caused by a deficiency of:

a)

Lipids

b)

Protein

c)

Vitamins

d)

Minerals

19.

Which of the foodborne disease has the most rapid time of onset following consumption of the food contamination with this particular pathogen?

a)

Staphylococcal intoxications

b)

Clostridium perfringens

c)

Salmonella

d)

All of the above

20.

A microorganism that consists only of a single molecule of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coating is a:

a)

Virus

b)

Protein

c)

Bacteria

d)

All of the above

21.

Bacterial pathogens prefer a neutral pH, but these microorganisms can withstand a wider pH range of 2.0 to 8.0:

a)

Molds

b)

Chlamydiae

c)

Spirochaetes

d)

Bacilli

22.

Which of the following have the highest water activity (Aw) requirements?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Virus

c)

Toxins

d)

All of the above

23.

Substances or agents that inhibit microbial activity are called

a)

Bacteriostat

b)

Bactericidal

c)

Fluoroquinolones

d)

All of the Above

24.

Unlike salmonella and listeria which require an infective dose of millions of bacteria, the infective dose for this pathogen is less than 100.

a)

Shigella

b)

Campylobacter

c)

Hemorrhagic E. coli

d)

Listeria

25.

Salmonella is an example of a(n):

a)

Bacterial infection

b)

Viral infection

c)

Fungal

d)

Toxin

26.

A pathogen that is commonly found in rice, pasta, and dried milk is:

a)

Bacillus cereus

b)

Hepatitis A

c)

Cyclospora

d)

Escherichia coli

27.

A foodborne illness whose symptoms mimics appendicitis and which leads to hundreds of unnecessary operations annually is:

a)

Yersiniosis

b)

Listeria

c)

Campylobacter

d)

Shigella

28.

A foodborne pathogen that may also cause stomach ulcers is:

a)

Campylobacter jujuni

b)

Helicobacter pylori

c)

Enterobacterales

d)

Yersinia enterocolitica

29.

Uremic syndrome

a)

E coli

b)

Dysgeusia

c)

Escherichia

d)

Shiga toxin

30.

The bacteria responsible for producing the most deadly toxin known to humans are:

a)

Clostridium botulinum

b)

Bacillus cereus

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Campylobacter

31.

Outbreaks of ciguatera fish poisoning are most frequently associated with eating which of the following?

a)

Barracuda

b)

Moray eel

c)

Red snapper

d)

Grouper

32.

Scrombroid poisoning is generally associated with:

a)

Shellfish

b)

Oysters

c)

Mollusks

d)

Crustaceans

33.

Forty five people at a wedding reception become ill with predominant symptoms of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and low grade fever within 24-48 hours of eating the meal. The most likely foodborne illness of the following is:

a)

Norovirus

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Salmonella

d)

Listeria

34.

5-10% of all raw bovine milk is contaminated with this microorganism:

a)

Listeria monocytogens

b)

Cryptosporidiosis

c)

Giardiasis

d)

Campylobacteriosis

35.

Undercooked hamburgers can cause serious illness in young children due to this pathogen:

a)

Escherichia coli

b)

Salmonella

c)

Listeria

d)

Norovirus

36.

Which of the following muscle food is a more viable source of clostridium botulinum bacteria?

a)

Seafood

b)

Crustaceans

c)

Shellfish

d)

Mollusks

37.

Salmonella DT 104 is a foodborne pathogen that is:

a)

Resistant to ampicillin

b)

Resistant to streptomycin

c)

Resistant to tetracycline

d)

Resistant to antibiotics

38.

What percentage of food contamination is attributed to improper hand washing

a)

38%

b)

62%

c)

55%

d)

20%

39.

A chemical compound being used in recent years to control cockroaches that have become resistant to previously used insecticides is:

a)

Diazinon

b)

Boric acid

c)

Permethrin

d)

Bromethalin

40.

The powder form insecticide is not toxic to humans and pets, but causes insects to dehydrate and die:

a)

Boric acid

b)

Cyfluthrin

c)

Diazinon

d)

Bromethalin

41.

Evisceration and cold storage of chickens at 3 degrees Celsius (37.4 degrees Fahrenheit) may cause an increase in numbers of these bacteria

a)

Aeromonas hydrophila

b)

Salmonella

c)

Listeria

d)

Escherichia coli

42.

An observational epidemiologic study in which a group of persons with disease and a group of persons without disease are identified with knowledge of prior exposure history and compared with respect to exposure history is called a:

a)

Retrospective Study

b)

Prospective Study

c)

Case Studies

d)

Qualitative studies

43.

In epidemiologic terms, the number of new cases per unit of person-time risk is known as:

a)

Incidence rate

b)

Prevalence Risk

c)

Prevalence Rate

d)

Cumulative Incidence

44.

In epidemiologic terms, the number of actual cases of disease cases in a community at a point in time is known as a:

a)

Incidence rate

b)

Prevalence Risk

c)

Prevalence Rate

d)

Cumulative Incidence

45.

Reducing microorganisms to a safe and acceptable level by the application of heat or chemicals for a prescribed amount of time defines:

a)

Sanitation

b)

Cleanliness

c)

Disinfection

d)

Asepsis

46.

Commercial mayonnaise is not a potentially hazardous food because:

a)

The product has a low pH level

b)

The product has a high pH level

c)

None of the above

d)

The product has a neutral pH level

47.

An explosive outbreak off illness with a short incubation period of a few minutes to less than an hour might suggest:

a)

Cadmium or zinc poisoning

b)

Lead poisoning

c)

Legionnaires

d)

Coronavirus

48.

A local health dept releases info to a population of people that a wastewater cross connection had, at some point, contaminated the water distribution system in their area. The proper epidemiological study to compare this population to another population in an unaffected part of town would be a:

a)

Case-control study

b)

Prospective study

c)

Observational Study

d)

Retrospective study

49.

Which of the following etiologic agents has been identified in imported raspberries and lettuce from south American countries?

a)

Cyclospora cayetanensis

b)

Schistosomiasis

c)

Oropouche

d)

Cholera

50.

The most common waterborne disease in the world, with an estimated 600 million people at risk and 300 million affected is:

a)

Cyclospora cayetanensis

b)

Schistosomiasis

c)

Oropouche

d)

Cholera

51.

Sampling for this waterborne disease pathogen involves the filtration of about 500 gallons through a one micrometer pore size filter at a rate of 1 gal/minute.

a)

Giardia lamblia

b)

Cryptosporidium

c)

Schistosoma

d)

Shigella

52.

Methemoglobinemia, also known as blue baby syndrome, is caused by high levels of this inorganic substances in the water supply?

a)

Nitrates

b)

Nitrites

c)

Amoebiasis

d)

Cholera

53.

When water cannot be used to extinguish a chemical fire, industrial sites provide large quantities of a dry extinguisher commonly known as "Purple K" which is:

a)

Potassium bicarbonate

b)

Potassium hydrogen

c)

Potassium oxide

d)

Potassium chloride

54.

EPA identifies four levels of PPE to be worn when responding to chemical spills. Providing protection against normal workplace hazards including; safety glasses, hard hats, and leather work gloves is considered:

a)

Level D

b)

Level C

c)

Level A

d)

Level B

55.

Indoor relative humidity of _______ % promotes germination and growth of fungal spores, mold, and mildew.

a)

60

b)

50

c)

70

d)

80

56.

Which of the following has a great potential for the reduction of microbial flora in the air, where the patent may be especially vulnerable?

a)

UV Radiation

b)

Lead Dust

c)

Mold

d)

Radon

57.

Which of the following organisms are most resistant to unfavorable environmental conditions and indicate past or possibly intermittent pollution?

a)

Fecal streptococci

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Clostridium sporulates

d)

Aerobacter aerogenes

58.

The final product in biochemical oxidation of ammonia yields:

a)

Nitride

b)

Nitrate

c)

Nitrite

d)

nitrogen

59.

Which contaminant in water is associated with methemoglobinemia?

a)

Zinc

b)

Lead

c)

Copper

d)

Nitrate

60.

Which organisms are most resistant to unfavorable environmental conditions and indicate past or possibly intermittent pollution?

a)

Fecal streptococci

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Aerobacter aerogenes

d)

Clostridium sporidium

61.

Historically in the US, most of the impetus for adequate water treatment came from the need to control:

a)

Infectious hepatitis

b)

TB

c)

Malaria

d)

typhoid

62.

What is the MOST common cause of bacteria meningitis in children under five years of age?

a)

Neisseria meningitides

b)

Group B Streptococci

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Haemophilus influenzae

63.

How is "giardiasis" USUALLY transmitted to others?

a)

Person-to-person transfer of cysts from the feces of the infected individual

b)

Drinking unfiltered water from streams and lakes

c)

Drinking inadequately chlorinated water from a municipal water distribution system

d)

Drinking unboiled water from streams and lakes

64.

Listeriosis is commonly associated with

a)

contaminated water

b)

contaminated food

c)

infected birds

d)

infected mice

65.

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by infection with

a)

dracunculus medinensis

b)

staphylococcus aureus

c)

salmonella typhimurium

d)

escherichia coli O157;H7

66.

An environmental health specialist receives a cash payment from a restaurant operator in order to receive a passing restaurant inspection score. This event is known as

a)

Malfeasance

b)

Misfeasance

c)

Nonfeasance

d)

Exclusionary Rule

67.

An environmental health manager trains environmental health specialists on the operation of environmental probe thermometers. in the interest of time, the manager omits a training section on safe sheathing of the thermometer, and subsequently an environmental health specialist punctures their finger and injures themselves. This is an example of

a)

Malfeasance

b)

Misfeasance

c)

Exclusionary Rule

d)

Nonfeasance

68.

An environmental health specialist informs vector control staff to perform "landing counts" on their skin in a known mosquito breeding ground which is confirmed to be positive with West Nile virus. This is an example of

a)

Malfeasance

b)

Misfeasance

c)

Exclusionary Rule

d)

Nonfeasance

69.

Performance of an authorized act in an unauthorized manner is called

a)

disfeasance

b)

Nonfeasance

c)

Misfeasance

d)

Malfeasance

70.

How is the term "contamination" defined when used in connection with a communicable disease?

a)

Infection of an individual or animal with pathogenic organisms

b)

Transfer of a vector, regardless of time or the nature of the host

c)

Contact between two or more sources of infection

d)

presence of pathogenic agents on a surface, article, or substance

71.

Which organism would probably survive in a hot tub?

a)

E. coli

b)

vibrio cholera

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d)

Entamoeba histolytica

72.

A seechi disk is used to determine

a)

pH

b)

coliform contamination

c)

heavy metals

d)

clarify in recreational waters

73.

A biological form of indirect disease transmission in which the infectious agent may be passed vertically to succeeding generations, such as Rickettsia ricketsii in ticks, is known as:

a)

transovarian transmission

b)

adjuvant transmission

c)

asexual transmission 

d)

bimodal transmission

74.

This type of investigation has a rigorous design and is thus strongest for making causal inferences:

a)

a randomized clinical trial

b)

a case series

c)

an ecological study  

d)

a cross-sectional study

75.

A type of research study design, often used in community interventions intended to produce population-level behavioral change, where the investigator manipulates the study factor but does not assign subjects randomly to exposed and non-exposed groups is a  

a)

quasi-experiment

b)

qualitative analysis

c)

normative study 

d)

double blind study

76.

A case-control study is associated with EACH of following EXCEPT: 

a)

relative risk

b)

odds ratio

c)

outcome of interest

d)

retrospective exposure 

77.

A small P value (i.e., a highly significant result) is generally an indication that: 

a)

the experimental results were not obtained simply by chance

b)

there is unlikely to be bias or systematic errors

c)

there is likely to be generalizability of results

d)

confounding variables have been accounted for

78.

This type of study assembles a group of individuals without the disease of interest, classifies them on the basis of exposure and non-exposure and then monitors the subsequent development of disease frequency in each group: 

a)

cohort

b)

case series

c)

ecological 

d)

case-control

79.

A disease transmitted by water, food, fomites, or flies that has feces as its portal of exit is:

a)

typhoid

b)

typhus

c)

measles

d)

trachoma

80.

In a 2x2 table, the exposure-odds ratio (OR), which is the ratio of odds in favor of exposure among the cases compared to the odds in favor of exposure of the non-cases, is best represented by: 

a)

AD/BC

b)

BC/AD

c)

AC/BD

d)

BD/AC

81.

Failure by a public official in an administrative agency to use the police power delegated by the legislature may result in a charge of:

a)

nonfeasance

b)

malfeasance

c)

profeasance

d)

misfeasance

82.

Toxic agents classified according to their chemical stability or reactivity may be identified EACH of the following EXCEPT:

a)

aromatic

b)

explosive

c)

oxidizer

d)

flammable

83.

This term is used specifically to denote a toxic substance that results from anthropogenic activity: 

a)

toxicant

b)

poison

c)

exposure

d)

toxic agent

84.

The term that refers to the impact that a toxic agent may have on the human body is:

a)

toxicodynamics

b)

toxicokinetics

c)

metabolic processing

d)

transpiration

85.

The term that refers to the aggregate processes of absorption, distribution, biotransformation, and elimination of a toxic agent or metabolite is:

a)

toxicokinetics

b)

toxicodynamics

c)

metabolic processing

d)

transpiration

86.

EACH of the following is considered to be an irreversible toxic effect EXCEPT:

a)

liver tissue damage

b)

carcinogenic effects

c)

teratogenic effects

d)

CNS damage

87.

Flaviviridae are a family of gram positive, arthropod-borne viral pathogens responsible for EACH of the following diseases EXCEPT: 

a)

scrub typhus

b)

yellow fever

c)

Zika

d)

tick-borne encephalitis

88.

A primary arthropod vector of disease caused by Yersinia pestis is: 

a)

Xenopsylla cheopis

b)

Allocosa dufouri

c)

Rickettsia rickettsia

d)

Simulium colombaschense

89.

The causative agent for the deadliest form of malaria is:

a)

Plasmodium falciparum

b)

Plasmodium vivax

c)

Plasmodium malariae

d)

Plasmodium ovale

90.

EACH of the following is a type of pathogenic disease agent for zoonotic and vector-borne diseases EXCEPT:

a)

fungi

b)

protozoa

c)

prions

d)

helminths

91.

______________ is an example of a zoonosis or vector-borne infection:

a)

influenza

b)

measles

c)

varicella

d)

COPD

92.

The accumulation of dust in the lungs and the tissue reactions to its presence is defined as: 

a)

pneumoconiosis

b)

asthma

c)

Caisson disease

d)

emphysema

93.

Otoxic refers to agents:

a)

that can produce hearing loss

b)

that are extremely toxic

c)

that are caused by exposure to vibrations

d)

that are only mildly toxic

94.

An injury or disorder of the muscles, nerves, tendons, joints, cartilage, or spinal discs is known as a:

a)

musculoskeletal disorder (MSD)

b)

repetitive motion injury (RMI)

c)

stenosing tenosynovitis

d)

epicodylitis

95.

The disease caused by the accumulation of cotton dust in the lungs is called: 

a)

byssinosis

b)

silicosis

c)

berylliosis

d)

siderosis

96.

Skin infections or rashes may be caused by water in whirlpools, hot tubs, or spas resulting from:

a)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b)

M.ycoplasma pneumoniae

c)

Moraxella catarrhalis

d)

Coxiella burnetti