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Worksheets

PSPU QUIZ

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In case of overload, transformer protection usually depends on:

a)

Differential relay

b)

Buchholz relay

c)

Thermal relay

d)

Distance relay

2.

Current transformers (CTs) are used primarily for:

a)

Voltage measurement

b)

Current measurement and protection

c)

Power factor correction

d)

Improving transmission efficiency

3.

Which device is commonly used to protect power system equipment from lightning surges?

a)

Current Transformer

b)

Circuit Breaker

c)

Isolator

d)

Lightning Arrester

4.

A 220 kV substation uses lightning arresters. Their location should be:

a)

Near the generator

b)

Near the transformer terminals

c)

At load end only

d)

At mid-point of transmission line

5.

If a relay fails to operate, which system feature ensures backup protection?

a)

Primary protection

b)

Fuse protection

c)

Secondary protection

d)

Backup protection

6.

Which type of stroke occurs when lightning directly hits the conductor?

a)

Indirect stroke

b)

Shielding stroke

c)

Direct stroke

d)

Back flashover

7.

A short-circuit fault leads to which of the following?

a)

Reduction in current

b)

Excessive current flow

c)

Power factor improvement

d)

Zero sequence current removal

8.

HRC fuse is designed to operate under:

a)

Normal current

b)

High frequency currents

c)

Low power factor loads

d)

Short-circuit condition

9.

Gapless Metal Oxide Surge Arrester is preferred over expulsion type because:

a)

It is cheaper

b)

It requires no series gap and offers better protection

c)

It has longer lifespan

d)

It can handle DC fault

10.

Which fault is most common in overhead transmission lines?

a)

Single line-to-ground fault

b)

Double line-to-ground fault

c)

Three-phase fault

d)

Line-to-line fault

11.

For EHV systems, fuses are not preferred because:

a)

They are cheap

b)

They cannot interrupt very high fault currents reliably

c)

They can be reset

d)

They occupy less space

12.

Which of the following reduces voltage surges in long transmission lines?

a)

Series capacitor

b)

Shunt reactor

c)

Ground wires

d)

Isolators

13.

Which of the following is an advantage of HRC fuse compared to HV fuse?

a)

Faster operation at low currents

b)

High rupturing capacity and reliable arc quenching

c)

Lower cost

d)

No replacement needed after fault

14.

A feeder relay detects a fault current of 500 A, while its pickup setting is 300 A. What will happen?

a)

Relay remains inoperative

b)

Relay trips the circuit breaker

c)

Relay resets to normal

d)

Relay signals alarm only

15.

Overvoltage caused by switching operations is known as:

a)

Switching surge

b)

Power surge

c)

Lightning surge

d)

Surge impedance

16.

Why are overhead ground wires placed above phase conductors?

a)

To reduce corona

b)

To intercept lightning strokes

c)

To improve power factor

d)

To increase insulation level

17.

Why are Potential Transformers (PTs) used in protection schemes?

a)

To step down current

b)

To isolate faulty equipment

c)

To step down voltage for relays and meters

d)

To provide auxiliary supply

18.

What is the main arc-extinguishing material in HRC fuses?

a)

Sand or silica powder

b)

Air

c)

Oil

d)

SF6 gas

19.

Which of the following is a primary purpose of a protective scheme?

a)

Increase system efficiency

b)

Detect and isolate faults

c)

Reduce transmission losses

d)

Improve power factor

20.

Earthing screen provides protection to:

a)

Substations from direct lightning strokes

b)

Transmission lines from corona

c)

Underground cables from moisture

d)

Generators from overheating

21.

What is the preferred type of CB to be installed in extra high voltage ac system?

a)

Bulk oil type CB

b)

Air-blast CB

c)

Vacuum CB

d)

Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6) CB

22.

The main goal of arc interruption is to:

a)

Increase the arc temperature indefinitely

b)

Prevent deionization of the gap

c)

Stretch, cool and de-ionize the arc path so current is extinguished

d)

Convert AC to DC during interruption

23.

Which quantity directly causes an overcurrent relay to operate?

a)

Excessive voltage

b)

Reactive power

c)

Current above the relay pickup setting

d)

Frequency deviation

24.

The fluids used in circuit breakers should be of:

a)

high dielectric strength and thermal stability

b)

non-inflammability

c)

arc extinguishing ability

d)

all of the above

25.

Recovery voltage refers to:

a)

Voltage across the breaker after the arc is extinguished when the system restrikes conditions are applied

b)

Voltage inside the trip coil only

c)

Voltage used to recharge the closing spring

d)

Voltage across the motor starter

26.

Which statement correctly explains why HVDC breakers often combine mechanical switches and power electronics?

a)

Mechanical switches alone are sufficient for DC interruption

b)

Power electronics are never used in HVDC breakers

c)

Mechanical switches are only for cosmetics

d)

Semiconductors can control and rapidly commutate the DC current into a path where mechanical interruption can take place at (near) zero current, combining speed and low loss

27.

What is the primary function of a protective relay?

a)

Store energy for system start-up

b)

Measure system frequency only

c)

Detect abnormal conditions and initiate isolation of faulty equipment

d)

Convert AC to DC

28.

SF6 gas is used in circuit breakers because it:

a)

Has poor dielectric properties but low cost

b)

Has excellent dielectric strength and arc-quenching capability

c)

Is magnetic and helps extinguish arcs through attraction

29.

Arc in a circuit breaker is primarily sustained by:

a)

Continuous mechanical contact between contacts

b)

Ionized gas (plasma) providing a conductive path between separating contacts

c)

Chemical conduction through insulation

d)

Magnetic fields alone

30.

For proper coordination between a primary and its backup relay, which is desirable?

a)

Backup relay should be faster than the primary

b)

Backup relay should have a longer time delay than primary to allow primary to clear the fault first

c)

Both should operate simultaneously always

d)

Primary should never operate

31.

In a minimum oil circuit breaker the oil is used:

a)

To act as circuit breaking medium only

b)

For circuit breaking and providing insulation

c)

For providing insulation only

d)

For none of the above purposes

32.

In an oil circuit breaker the arc is interrupted mainly by:

a)

Solid insulator placed between contacts

b)

Evaporation and decomposition of oil producing hydrogen which blows and cools the arc and provides insulation

c)

Evacuating the contact region to vacuum

d)

Using a cathode ray tube

33.

When a CT saturates during an external fault, a differential relay may:

a)

Always operate correctly because CT saturation has no effect

b)

Maloperate (false trip) or fail to operate depending on polarity and saturation behaviour

c)

Convert the differential relay into a distance relay

d)

Become an instantaneous overcurrent relay

34.

A definite-time relay is characterized by which of the following?

a)

Operating time decreases with increasing fault current

b)

Operating time is fixed irrespective of fault magnitude

c)

No intentional time delay

d)

It measures impedance to operate

35.

The re-striking voltage (VR) is best described as:

a)

The supply voltage measured at the neutral only

b)

The transient voltage that can cause the arc to re-ignite during the interruption process

c)

The mechanical force on contacts

d)

The capacitor charging voltage in the control circuit

36.

Which of the following is NOT typically a basic signal-processing block inside a static relay?

a)

Rectifier / signal conditioner

b)

Comparator / decision logic

c)

Mechanical cam and lever assembly for time settings

d)

Electronic timer and trip driver

37.

An induction-type overcurrent relay principally uses which physical phenomenon for operation?

a)

Electrostatic attraction

b)

Electromagnetic induction producing torque on a moving element

c)

Chemical reaction

d)

Piezoelectric effect

38.

Air used in air blast circuit breaker must:

a)

Be ionized

b)

Be free from moisture

c)

Have least CO2

d)

Have oil mist

39.

In relay coordination studies, the grading margin is:

a)

The physical gap between relay contacts

b)

The minimum time difference provided between primary relay operation and backup relay operation to ensure selectivity

c)

The current rating of the CT

d)

The maximum allowable voltage

40.

The main advantage of vacuum circuit breakers is:

a)

They require frequent gas refilling

b)

They extinguish arcs in a vacuum and have very long contact life with low maintenance

c)

They use oil to quench the arc

d)

They are suitable only for DC circuits

41.

In Kando system of track electrification, ________ is converted into ________.

a)

1‑phase AC to DC

b)

3‑phase AC to 1‑phase AC

c)

1‑phase AC to 3‑phase AC

d)

3‑phase AC to DC

42.

Pantograph is used to:

a)

Supply DC power

b)

Collect current from overhead wire

c)

Reduce sparking

d)

Control braking

43.

Speed–time curve is used for:

a)

Energy consumption calculation

b)

Efficiency improvement

c)

Torque control

d)

Brake testing

44.

Why are DC series motors preferred for traction?

a)

High efficiency at constant speed

b)

Good torque at zero speed

c)

Simple construction

d)

No maintenance

45.

The direct current system used for tramways has a voltage of about ________ volt.

a)

750

b)

1500

c)

3000

d)

2400

46.

If a train consumes 500 kWh over 200 ton‑km, its specific energy consumption is:

a)

2.5 kWh/ton‑km

b)

0.25 kWh/ton‑km

c)

25 kWh/ton‑km

d)

5 kWh/ton‑km

47.

Which factor is NOT considered in the selection of an electric motor?

a)

Starting torque

b)

Running cost

c)

Ambient temperature

d)

Motor color

48.

Comparing pantograph and bow collector, pantograph is preferred because:

a)

Lighter

b)

Provides better contact at high speed

c)

Uses less current

d)

Cheaper

49.

Multiple unit control in trains allows:

a)

Driving multiple motors independently

b)

Operating many locomotives from one point

c)

Preventing braking

d)

Reducing voltage

50.

A pantograph collects current at 1500 V and 200 A. Power drawn is:

a)

300 kW

b)

200 kW

c)

150 kW

d)

30 kW

51.

The speed/time curve for city service has no ________ period.

a)

free‑running

b)

coasting

c)

acceleration

d)

braking

52.

Which system of electrification is best for long‑distance trains?

a)

AC single phase 25 kV

b)

DC 600 V

c)

Composite 11 kV

d)

Diesel‑electric

53.

Which type of motor is most commonly used in electric traction?

a)

DC series motor

b)

Induction motor

c)

Synchronous motor

d)

Universal motor

54.

Main traction system used in India are, those using

a)

electric locomotives

b)

diesel engine locomotives

c)

steam engine locomotives

d)

all of the above

55.

The speed of a superfast train is

a)

60 kmph

b)

75 kmph

c)

100 kmph

d)

more than 100 kmph

56.

In speed-time curve, coasting period is when

a)

Power is supplied continuously

b)

Speed is constant

c)

Brakes are applied

d)

Train moves without power

57.

Why are catenary-contact systems preferred?

a)

Simple and robust

b)

Easy maintenance

c)

Cost effective

d)

All of the above

58.

The return circuit for tram cars is through ......

a)

neutral wire

b)

rails

c)

cables

d)

common earthing

59.

Which lamp works on the principle of incandescence?

a)

Sodium vapour lamp

b)

Mercury vapour lamp

c)

Incandescent lamp

d)

Fluorescent lamp

60.

Which sensor is widely used in lighting control?

a)

Pressure sensor

b)

Motion sensor

c)

Temperature sensor

d)

Gas sensor

61.

Which lamp gives bluish-white light?

a)

Incandescent lamp

b)

Mercury vapour lamp

c)

Sodium vapour lamp

d)

CFL

62.

LED stands for?

a)

Light Emission Device

b)

Low Energy Device

c)

Light Emitting Diode

d)

Lighting Electronic Device

63.

Which of the following is an energy-saving lamp?

a)

Incandescent lamp

b)

Sodium vapour lamp

c)

CFL

d)

Mercury vapour lamp

64.

Which lamp has the shortest life span?

a)

Incandescent lamp

b)

Fluorescent lamp

c)

CFL

d)

LED

65.

Which lamp gives yellowish light?

a)

Sodium vapour lamp

b)

Mercury vapour lamp

c)

LED lamp

d)

Fluorescent lamp

66.

IoT in lighting systems helps in

a)

Manual control

b)

Automatic control

c)

Increases heat

d)

Reduces efficiency

67.

Which lamp requires ballast for operation?

a)

Incandescent lamp

b)

Fluorescent lamp

c)

LED lamp

d)

Halogen lamp

68.

Which lamp has highest luminous efficiency?

a)

Incandescent

b)

Fluorescent

c)

Sodium vapour

d)

LED

69.

Which lamp emits UV radiation inside tube?

a)

Fluorescent lamp

b)

Incandescent lamp

c)

LED lamp

d)

Sodium vapour lamp

70.

Illumination engineering deals with the study of?

a)

Heating systems

b)

Lighting systems

c)

Cooling systems

d)

Mechanical systems

71.

The filament of incandescent lamp is made of?

a)

Copper

b)

Aluminium

c)

Tungsten

d)

Iron

72.

The unit of luminous intensity is?

a)

Watt

b)

Lux

c)

Candela

d)

Lumen

73.

Which lamp has electrodes coated with emissive material?

a)

Fluorescent lamp

b)

Incandescent lamp

c)

LED

d)

CFL

74.

The unit of illumination is?

a)

Lumen

b)

Lux

c)

Candela

d)

Watt

75.

Factory lighting is designed for?

a)

Beauty

b)

Safety and productivity

c)

Decoration

d)

Saving electricity only

76.

The unit of luminous flux is?

a)

Candela

b)

Lux

c)

Lumen

d)

Watt

77.

Fluorescent lamps use which type of coating inside the tube?

a)

Phosphor

b)

Glass

c)

Copper

d)

Aluminium

78.

CFLs are replaced by which modern source?

a)

LED

b)

Sodium vapour lamp

c)

Mercury vapour lamp

d)

Incandescent lamp

79.

Why is dielectric heating not preferred for metals?

a)

Metals are good conductors

b)

Metals are insulators

c)

Metals do not reflect waves

d)

Metals have high resistance

80.

Resistance heating works on which principle?

a)

Ohm's law

b)

Faraday's law

c)

Lenz's law

d)

Coulomb's law

81.

Compare induction heating with resistance heating. Which is more efficient for uniform bulk heating? (Variant)

a)

Resistance heating

b)

Induction heating

c)

Both equally

d)

Depends on material

82.

For surface hardening of steel, the heating method applied is: (Variant)

a)

Resistance heating

b)

Induction heating

c)

Dielectric heating

d)

Infrared heating

83.

Arc heating utilizes the principle of:

a)

Induction

b)

Electric arc discharge

c)

Conduction

d)

Radiation

84.

Laser beam welding is suitable for:

a)

Thick plates

b)

Precise and micro welding

c)

Low-cost mass welding

d)

Large structural fabrication

85.

Which welding method is best suited for joining dissimilar metals?

a)

Resistance welding

b)

Arc welding

c)

Ultrasonic welding

d)

Laser beam welding

86.

Why is electric heating considered more efficient than conventional heating? (Variant)

a)

Less heat loss and precise control

b)

More heat loss and less control

c)

It requires no insulation

d)

It works at low temperatures

87.

Eddy current heating is practically used in:

a)

Cooking

b)

Metal hardening

c)

Plastic welding

d)

Dielectric drying

88.

Arc heating utilizes the principle of

a)

Induction

b)

Electric arc discharge

c)

Conduction

d)

Radiation

89.

Coreless induction furnace is widely used because: (Variant)

a)

It is cheap

b)

It is suitable for large-scale melting

c)

It has simple construction and uniform heating

d)

It consumes less power

90.

Which electric furnace is best suited for steel melting? (Variant)

a)

Resistance furnace

b)

Direct arc furnace

c)

Indirect arc furnace

d)

Dielectric furnace

91.

Why is ultrasonic welding more advantageous than arc welding for thin metals? (Variant)

a)

Less heat affected zone

b)

Cheaper electrodes

c)

Easier operation

d)

No power required

92.

In high-frequency heating, the main effect used is: (Variant)

a)

Eddy current loss

b)

Hysteresis loss

c)

Skin effect

d)

Dielectric loss

93.

In resistance welding, what is the main factor influencing weld quality?

a)

Electrode pressure and current

b)

Arc length

c)

Gas shielding

d)

Laser beam focus

94.

In electric arc furnace, excessive electrode consumption indicates:

a)

Correct operation

b)

Improper arc length and power factor

c)

High efficiency

d)

Low temperature

95.

Indirect arc furnace differs from direct arc furnace in that:

a)

Electrode touches the charge

b)

Arc is struck between electrodes

c)

Arc does not directly touch the charge

d)

No electrode is used

96.

Which of the following is an advantage of electric heating?

a)

Low efficiency

b)

High initial cost

c)

Clean and pollution free

d)

Slow response

97.

In dielectric heating, heat is produced due to:

a)

Joule effect

b)

Dielectric losses

c)

Eddy currents

d)

Arc formation

98.

Which of the following are main causes of overvoltages in power systems? Select all that apply.

a)

Lightning strikes

b)

Switching surges

c)

Arcing grounds

d)

Resonance conditions in transmission lines

e)

Steady-state load current

99.

Which of the following are common causes of faults in power systems? Select all that apply.

a)

Insulation breakdown

b)

Mechanical failures

c)

Lightning

d)

Contamination

e)

Overloading of equipment

100.

What is the primary purpose of protective schemes in a power system?

a)

To detect abnormal conditions and isolate faulty sections to ensure continuity of supply

b)

To increase generation capacity during peak demand

c)

To reduce power factor penalties

d)

To enhance billing and metering accuracy

101.

Overhead ground wires are used to:

a)

Intercept lightning strokes and divert them safely to ground

b)

Carry communication signals above the conductors

c)

Support the mechanical weight of phase conductors

d)

Reduce corona loss by smoothing conductor surface

102.

Select the causes of faults in power systems. Choose all that apply.

a)

Lightning

b)

Insulation breakdown

c)

Mechanical damage

d)

Short circuits

e)

Improved grounding practices

103.

The operating principle of a lightning arrester is to:

a)

Provide a low-resistance path for surge currents to ground, thereby limiting overvoltage

b)

Store excess energy in capacitors until the surge passes

c)

Open the circuit breaker immediately on any overcurrent

d)

Divert normal load current through a reactor to reduce spikes

104.

The function of an earthing screen installed over a substation is to:

a)

Shield equipment from lightning strokes by means of a grounded metallic mesh

b)

Improve the power factor by providing reactive compensation

c)

Reduce conductor sag during high temperatures

d)

Serve as a communication antenna

105.

Which statement best defines overvoltage?

a)

Any system voltage higher than the rated value that persists for a short duration

b)

Any drop in voltage below the rated value for a brief period

c)

A permanent increase in rated system voltage for efficiency

d)

Voltage variations due to load changes during normal operation

106.

Which statements correctly describe direct and indirect lightning strokes? Select all that apply.

a)

A direct stroke strikes the line directly

b)

An indirect stroke induces voltages due to electromagnetic effects

c)

A direct stroke only affects nearby lines via induction

d)

An indirect stroke requires physical contact with the conductor

107.

Which of the following are common types of faults in a power system? Select all that apply.

a)

Single line-to-ground fault

b)

Line-to-line fault

c)

Double line-to-ground fault

d)

Three-phase fault

e)

Open-circuit fault between source and load