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IS FREMEDIAL EXAM

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 4hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

During a biology class, Abigail learned that a hapten is

a)

Half of an immunoglobulin molecule

b)

A earner molecule for an antigen that is not antigenic alone

c)

An immunoglobulin functional only in the presence of complement

d)

A determinant capable of stimulating an immune response only when bound to a carrier

2.

A 28-year-old female named Ava complains to her family physician of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and low-grade fever. Physical examination reveals abdominal tenderness and a low-grade fever. Her physician orders a hepatitis profile and obtains the results below.

Anti-HAV: Nonreactive

Anti-HBc: Reactive

Anti-HBs: Nonreactive

HBsAg: Reactive

HBeAg: Reactive

Anti-HCV: Nonreactive

Which of the following is the most likely conclusion?

a)

Acute HAV infection

b)

Acute HBV infection

c)

Chronic HBV infection

d)

Immunity to HBV due to past infection

3.

In a chemiluminescent immunologic assay conducted by Sophia in her lab, what is the signal detected?

a)

Light

b)

An electric signal

c)

A purple-colored compound

d)

A yellow-colored compound

4.

Grace is studying the effects of vaccination against hepatitis B virus (HBV) and learns that it also prevents hepatitis D virus (HDV) infections. Why is this the case?

a)

An immunogen from HBV in the vaccine is also associated with HDV

b)

The HBV vaccine induces formation of heterophile antibodies that cross react with HDV

c)

The HBV vaccine stimulates liver cells to produce antiviral molecules active against all hepatitis viruses

d)

HDV requires the host to be concurrently infected with HBV

5.

Sophia learned in her biology class that B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes are derived from

a)

Hematopoietic stem cells

b)

Macrophages or monocytes

c)

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue

d)

The fetal liver

6.

Ava went to the doctor for an allergy test, and the doctor performed a competitive radioimmunosorbent test (RIST). What does a high signal suggest in her test results?

a)

The patient sample has a low concentration of IgE.

b)

The patient sample has a low concentration of IgM

c)

The patient sample has a high concentration of IgE.

d)

The patient sample has a high concentration of total antibody.

7.

Ava developed a rash after using a new skincare product. Her doctor explained that contact dermatitis is mediated by

a)

B lymphocytes

b)

T lymphocytes

c)

Macrophages

d)

Polymorphonuclear cells

8.

In a health clinic, Michael, who is living with human immunodeficiency virus infection, is being monitored for his immune status. The healthcare provider decides to measure the ratio of

a)

CD3+ cells to CD8+ cells

b)

CD4+ cells to CD8+ cells

c)

Lymphocytes to monocytes

d)

T cells to B cells

9.

In a biology class, Benjamin is learning about the immune system. He discovers that cells that can act as antigen-presenting cells for exogenous antigens include

a)

All nucleated cells

b)

Endothelial cells

c)

B lymphocytes

d)

T lymphocytes

10.

A living donor is being sought for a child named Ethan who requires a kidney transplant. The best odds of finding an MHC-compatible donor occur between Ethan and

a)

A sibling (brother or sister)

b)

An unrelated individual

c)

Ethan's father

d)

Ethan's mother

11.

During a routine health check-up, Mason learns that he has been exposed to the hepatitis B virus. The doctor explains that the first serologic marker to appear in patients with acute hepatitis B virus infection is

a)

Anti-HB

b)

Anti-HBc

c)

Anti-HBe

d)

HBsAg

12.

During a biology class, Abigail learned about "Superantigens" which are toxins produced by some strains of Staphylococcus aureus and group A streptococci. Her teacher explained that these toxins cause damage by

a)

Molecular mimicry

b)

Polyclonal T cell activation

c)

Lysing white blood cells and platelets

d)

Lysing red blood cells

13.

Noah recently recovered from a group A streptococcal infection. However, he later developed rheumatic fever, which caused an autoimmune response that attacked the tissue of his heart valves. This phenomenon is an example of

a)

Epitope spreading

b)

Molecular mimicry

c)

Polyclonal B cell activation

d)

Preferential activation of T helper cell

14.

During a health class, Anika learned about various autoimmune diseases. One disease that caught her attention was Hashimoto disease, which primarily involves the

a)

Kidneys

b)

Liver

c)

Lungs

d)

Thyroid gland

15.

Evelyn, a medical student, is conducting an experiment where patient serum is mixed with a suspension of guinea pig antigen. When the sample is then mixed with horse red blood cells, agglutination occurs. This is suggestive of an infection caused by

a)

Borrelia burgdorferi

b)

Hepatitis B virus

c)

Hepatitis C virus

d)

Epstein-Barr virus

16.

Michael visited his doctor after experiencing fatigue and joint pain. A patient report states the presence of serum antibodies to OspC. What disease does Michael most likely have?

a)

Syphilis

b)

Strep throat

c)

Lyme disease

d)

Rubella

17.

During a biology class, Liam learned that the isotype of an immunoglobulin antibody

a)

Is defined by the heavy chain

b)

Is defined as different alleles of the same antibody type (e.g., IgG)

c)

Is constant for all immunoglobulins of an individual

d)

Is the variation within the variable region

18.

During a laboratory class, Daniel was learning about various diagnostic tests. He came across the complement fixation test and wondered what indicator system is used in this test.

a)

Sensitized sheep red blood cells

b)

Fluorescent-labeled antihuman globulin

c)

Enzyme-labeled antihuman globulin

d)

Guinea pig complement

19.

Hannah's serum sample is positive for HBsAg.

This result indicates that the person from whom the serum was taken

a)

Had a hepatitis B infection in the past but overcame the infection

b)

Has either active or chronic hepatitis B infection

c)

Was immunized recently against the hepatitis B virus

d)

Is not infectious for the hepatitis B virus

20.

During a health screening event at the university, William is asked to identify which of the following is an example of a treponemal antigen test used for the diagnosis of syphilis?

a)

CRP

b)

RPR

c)

VDRL

d)

FTA-ABS

21.

During a science experiment, Rohan mixed a soluble antigen with a soluble antibody, and they reacted to form an insoluble product. This process describes

a)

Agglutination reactions

b)

Heterophile reactions

c)

Labeled reactions

d)

Precipitation reactions

22.

During a blood transfusion, Samuel received blood from a donor with a different blood type, leading to a severe reaction. This incident is an example of

a)

Type I hypersensitivity reactions

b)

Type II hypersensitivity reactions

c)

Type III hypersensitivity reactions

d)

Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

23.

Abigail gets a cut on her finger while playing outside, and it becomes contaminated with the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus. The first response by the immune system consists of activity of

a)

B cells

b)

Monocytes

c)

Neutrophils

d)

T cells

24.

During a biology class, Abigail learned about the alternative complement pathway in the immune system.

a)

Can be activated by bacterial capsule polysaccharides

b)

Uses C5b as a C3 convertase

c)

Bypasses steps C3 through C5

d)

Is inactivated by properdin

25.

During a biology lab, Zoe learned about the classical pathway of complement activation,

a)

C3 is activated by binding C-reactive protein

b)

The sequence of activation is Cl, C2, C3,C4

c)

Clq is activated by the presence of a single Fab region

d)

Activation by antibody requires one IgM or two IgG molecules

26.

Aiden went to the doctor for a routine check-up. The doctor decided to test for C-reactive protein (CRP) to assess Aiden's health. Which of the following statements about the test for C-reactive protein (CRP) is true?

a)

It correlates with neutrophil phagocytic function

b)

It is an indicator of ongoing inflammation

c)

It is diagnostic for rheumatic fever

d)

Levels decrease during heart disease.

27.

During a biology class, Charlotte developed a rash after touching a plant that she was allergic to. Which of the following is characteristic of contact hypersensitivity reactions?

a)

Caused by preformed IgE antibody

b)

Characterized by infiltration of neutrophils into the area of reaction

c)

The primary symptoms often occur in the respiratory tract.

d)

Usually due to a hapten

28.

During a biology lab, Abigail and her classmates were discussing the components of the immune system. Luna asked, "Which of the following complement proteins is part of the membrane attack complex?"

a)

Cl

b)

C3

c)

C4

d)

C5

29.

James, a 10-year-old boy, was diagnosed with an autoimmune disease that is causing destruction of his pancreatic cells. His doctor explained that this condition can result in

a)

Hashimoto disease

b)

Multiple sclerosis

c)

Myasthenia gravis

d)

Type 1 diabetes

30.

During a biology lab, Isla and Noah were discussing the various complement proteins found in human serum. Noah asked, "Which complement protein is present in the greatest concentration in human serum?"

a)

Cl

b)

C2

c)

C3

d)

C4

31.

During a class discussion on autoimmune diseases, Aria asked her classmates about the primary mechanism responsible for pathology in systemic lupus erythematosus.

a)

Allergic reaction to foreign molecules

b)

Antibodies directed against self antigens

c)

Polyclonal activation of cytotoxic T cells

d)

Lack of intracellular killing after neutrophil phagocytosis of bacteria

32.

Ava is studying the immune system in her biology class. Her teacher asks the class, "Which of the following is a characteristic of T cells?"

a)

Synthesize antibody

b)

Mature in the thymus

c)

Able to bind unprocessed antigen

d)

Primarily protect against extracellular parasites

33.

In a biology class, Isla and Priya are discussing how B and T helper cells interact in the immune system. They wonder about the specific mechanisms involved in this interaction.

a)

MHC II molecule on B cell binding to MHCI molecule on the T cell

b)

MHC II molecule on B cell binding to CDS on the T cell

c)

Foreign antigen on B cell binding to T cell receptor

d)

CDS molecule on B cell binding to T cell receptor

34.

Lily learned about the activity of natural killer (NK) cells in her biology class.

a)

Does not require previous exposure to an antigen

b)

Involves phagocytosis and killing of bacteria

c)

Requires interaction with cytotoxic T cells

d)

Requires interaction with B cells

35.

During a health class, Zoe learns about various diagnostic tools used in medicine. One topic that comes up is skin testing, which is particularly useful in diagnosing disorders like tuberculosis. Which of the following statements about skin testing is true?

a)

A positive test depends on preformed antibody.

b)

Reactivity to a particular antigen may be transferred from one individual to another by sensitized lymphocytes.

c)

The intensity of the response correlates directly with the clinical activity of the disease

d)

The maximum response will occur immediately

36.

During a biology lab, Grace and Abigail were discussing antibodies. Grace mentioned that antibodies that bind to the same epitope are of the same

a)

Allotype

b)

Autotype

c)

Idiotype

d)

Isotype

37.

In a laboratory, Zoe is learning about how monoclonal antibodies are produced. She discovers that these antibodies are created by

a)

Cultured T cells

b)

Human plasma cells

c)

Mouse plasma cell

d)

Hybridomas

38.

In a biology class, Aria is explaining the structure of an immunoglobulin molecule to her classmates. She mentions, "Which of the following statements applies to the Fc fragment of an immunoglobulin molecule?"

a)

It consists of the entire heavy chain.

b)

It contains the variable region of the heavy chain

c)

It contains the antigen binding sites of the molecule

d)

It is the region of the molecule that binds to receptors on various white blood cells

39.

During a biology class, Aria learned about immunoglobulin light chains. Which of the following statements about immunoglobulin light chains is true?

a)

Each immunoglobulin monomer has either one kappa or one lambda chain.

b)

There are two types: kappa and lambda

c)

They consist of constant regions only.

d)

They form part of the Fc fragment.

40.

In a biology class, Ethan is learning about human cells and their functions. He discovers that a human cell with CDS on its surface is most likely a

a)

B cell

b)

Monocyte

c)

T helper cell

d)

Cytotoxic T cell

41.

During a biology class, Benjamin learned that loss of self-tolerance results in

a)

Autoimmune disease

b)

Graft-versus-host disease

c)

Immunodeficiency

d)

Tumors

42.

During a recent health fair, Luna learned that elevated IgE levels are typically found in certain types of allergic reactions. She was curious about which type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with high IgE levels.

a)

Type I hypersensitivity reactions

b)

Type II hypersensitivity reactions

c)

Type III hypersensitivity reactions

d)

Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

43.

During a science fair, Jackson is demonstrating the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) technique. He explains that the visible reaction in his experiment is due to a reaction between

a)

Enzyme and antibody

b)

Enzyme and substrate

c)

Fluorescent dye and antigen

d)

Latex particles and antibody

44.

During a biology class, Maya learned about antibodies and their structure. She discovered that the Fab portion of an antibody

a)

Binds T cell receptor

b)

Consists of two light chains only

c)

Consists of two heavy chains only

d)

Contains the hypervariable region

45.

Ava is feeling unwell and visits her doctor. The doctor decides to perform a serologic test to check for autoimmune disorders using an immunofluorescence method. Which of the following tests is the doctor likely to perform?

a)

Anti-HBs

b)

Antinuclear antibody (ANA)

c)

Antistreptolysin O (ASO)

d)

C-reactive protein (CRP)

46.

During a recent biology lab, Hannah learned that IgM antibodies react well in complement fixation (CF) tests. Because of this, CF tests for antibodies should

a)

Be positive early in the course of the disease

b)

Be useful in identifying antibodies responsible for a delayed hypersensitivity reaction

c)

Be useful in identifying antibodies responsible for anaphylactic reactions

d)

Detect transplacental antibodies

47.

During a science fair, Anika presented her project on antibodies. She explained that identical antibodies produced from a single clone of plasma cells describes a specific type of antibody. What type of antibody is she referring to?

a)

Reagin

b)

Cold agglutinins

c)

Heterophile antibodies

d)

Monoclonal antibodies

48.

During a biology class, Benjamin learned that the portion of an antigen that binds to an antibody or T cell receptor is called a(n)

a)

Allergin

b)

Avidin

c)

Epitope

d)

Valence

49.

During a routine health check, Scarlett received a false-positive result on her VDRL test. One possible cause of this false-positive result is

a)

Brucellosis

b)

Treponema pallidum infection

c)

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

d)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

50.

During a health class, Henry learned about various tests for sexually transmitted infections. He discovered that the Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test for syphilis is classified as a(n)

a)

Agglutination reaction

b)

Flocculation reaction

c)

Hemagglutination reaction

d)

Precipitation reaction

51.

The rapid plasma reagin assay for syphilis does not need to be read microscopically because the antigen is

a)

Cardiolipin

b)

Complexed with latex

c)

Complexed with charcoal

d)

Inactivated bacterial cells

52.

The antibody most frequently present in systemic lupus erythematosus is directed against

a)

Surface antigens of bone marrow stem cells

b)

Surface antigens of renal cells

c)

Nuclear antigen

d)

Myelin

53.

Innate immunity includes

a)

Anamnestic response

b)

Antibody production

c)

Cytotoxic T cell activity

d)

Phagocytosis by polymorphonuclear cells

54.

The type of immunity that follows the injection of antibodies synthesized by another individual or animal is termed

a)

Artificial active

b)

Natural adaptive

c)

Artificial passive

d)

Natural passive

55.

The type of immunity that follows the injection of an immunogen is termed

a)

Artificial active

b)

Natural active

c)

Artificial passive

d)

Natural Passive

56.

After activation of the complement system, leukocytes and macrophages are attracted to the site of complement activation by

a)

C1

b)

C5a

c)

C8

d)

IgM

57.

How does the secondary humoral immune response differ from the primary response?

a)

The lag phase (the time between exposure to immunogen and production of antibody) is longer in the secondary immune response.

b)

IgM is the predominant antibody class produced in the secondary immune response

c)

The antibody levels produced are higher in the secondary immune response

d)

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes play an important role in the secondary response

58.

The strength with which a multivalent antibody binds a multivalent antigen is termed the

a)

Affinity

b)

Avidity

c)

Reactivity

d)

Valence

59.

A major advantage of passive immunization compared to active immunization is that

a)

Antibody is available more quickly

b)

Antibody persists for the life of the recipient

c)

IgM is the predominant antibody class provided

d)

Oral administration can be used

60.

Diagnostic reagents useful for detecting antigen by the coagglutination reaction may be prepared by binding antibody to killed staphylococcal cells via the Fc receptor of staphylococcal protein A. The class of antibody bound by this protein is

a)

IgA

b)

IgD

c)

IgG

d)

IgM

61.

Which cell is the principal source of interleukin 2?

a)

B cell

b)

T cell

c)

Monocyte

d)

Plasma cell

62.

A molecule found in human serum sometimes used as a tumor marker is

a)

a-Fetoprotein

b)

HBsAg

c)

Biotin

d)

CD1

63.

Diagnosis of group A streptococci (Streptococcus pyogenes) infection is indicated by the presence of

a)

Anti-protein A

b)

Anti-DNase B

c)

Anti-beta-toxin

d)

C-reactive protein

64.

In Bruton disease, measurement of serum immunoglobulins would show

a)

Elevated levels of IgE

b)

Elevated levels of IgG

c)

Normal levels of IgG and IgM but reduced levels of IgA

d)

The absence of all immunoglobulins

65.

A kidney transplant from one identical twin to another is an example of a(n)

a)

Allograft

b)

Autograft

c)

Isograft

d)

Xenograft

66.

After exposure to antigen, the first antibodies that can be detected belong to the class

a)

IgA

b)

IgE

c)

IgG

d)

IgM

67.

Corneal tissue may be transplanted successfully from one patient to another because

a)

The cornea is nonantigenic

b)

Corneal antigens do not activate T cells

c)

Anticorneal antibodies are easily suppressed

d)

The cornea occupies a privileged site not usually seen by the immune system

68.

Which one of the following describes a direct immunofluorescence assay?

a)

Conjugated reagent antigen reacts with antibodies to form antigen-antibody complexes

b)

Antigens react with unlabeled antibody forming antigen-antibody complexes that attach to labeled antibodies

c)

A dye is attached to a molecule and it reacts with an immune complex to produce a color

d)

Conjugated reagent antibody reacts with antigen to form antigen-antibody complexes

69.

In individuals allergic to pollen, hyposensitization protocols may be initiated. These individuals receive injections of

a)

Allergen

b)

Pooled human antisera

c)

Monoclonal antibody directed against human T cells

d)

Monoclonal antibody directed against human B cells

70.

Multiple myeloma is a

a)

Lymphoproliferative disease of T cells

b)

Cancer of plasma cells characterized by increased antibody concentration

c)

Lymphoproliferative disease resulting in a decrease in antibody production

d)

Cancer of monocytes characterized by increased kappa and lambda chain synthesis

71.

In bone marrow transplantation, immunocompetent cells in the donor marrow may recognize antigens in the recipient and respond to those antigens. This phenomenon is an example of

a)

Acute rejection

b)

Chronic rejection

c)

Graft versus host disease

d)

Hyperacute rejection

72.

The serologically detectable antibody produced in rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is primarily of the class

a)

IgA

b)

IgE

c)

IgG

d)

IgM

73.

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is an

a)

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is an

b)

Immunodeficiency with lymphocytopenia and eosinophil

c)

Immunodeficiency with decreased or dysfunctional T and B cells

d)

Immunodeficiency with decreased lymphocytes and decreased complement concentration

74.

An example of immune injury due to the deposition of antigen-antibody complexes is

a)

Acute glomerulonephritis

b)

Bee-sting allergy

c)

Contact dermatitis

d)

Penicillin allergy

75.

Which class of immunoglobulin binds to basophils and mast cells to mediate immediate hypersensitivity reactions?

a)

IgA

b)

IgD

c)

IgE

d)

IgG

76.

Type I hypersensitivity is

a)

Associated with complement-mediated cell lysis

b)

Due to immune complex deposition

c)

Mediated by activated macrophages

d)

An immediate allergic reaction

77.

The HLA complex is located primarily on

a)

Chromosomes 3

b)

Chromosome 6

c)

Chromosome 9

d)

Chromosome 17

78.

In primary biliary cirrhosis, which of the following antibodies is seen in high titers?

a)

antimitochondrial

b)

anti-smooth muscle

c)

anti-DNA

d)

anti-parietal cell

79.

The simplest test to evaluate the cellular immune system in a patient is a(n):

a)

skin test for commonly encountered antigens

b)

protein electrophoresis of serum

c)

immunoelectrophoresis of serum

d)

measurement of anti-HBsAg after immunization

80.

In assessing the usefulness of a new laboratory test, sensitivity is defined as the percentage of:

a)

positive specimens correctly identified

b)

falsely positive specimens

c)

negative specimens correctly identified

d)

falsely negative specimens

81.

The specificity of an immunoassay is determined by the:

a)

label used on the antigen

b)

method used to separate the bound from free antigen

c)

antibody used in the assay

d)

concentration of unlabeled antigen

82.

Which test has the greatest sensitivity for antigen detection?

a)

precipitin

b)

agglutination

c)

ELISA

d)

complement fixation

83.

A monoclonal spike of IgG, Bence Jones proteinuria, and bone pain are usually associated with:

a)

Burkitt's lymphoma

b)

Burton's disease

c)

severe combined immunodeficiency disease

d)

multiple myeloma

84.

Which of the following fungal agents is a frequent complication of AIDS?

a)

Sporothrix species

b)

Blastomyces species

c)

Histoplasma species

d)

Pneumocystis species

85.

The most sensitive procedure for detection of hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is:

a)

hemagglutination

b)

counterimmunoelectrophoresis

c)

radial immunodiffusion

d)

ELISA

86.

The serologic test that can be modified to selectively detect only specific IgM antibody in untreated serum is:

a)

complement fixation

b)

immunofluorescence

c)

hemagglutination inhibition

d)

passive hemagglutination

87.

HLA-B8 antigen has been associated with which of the following pairs of diseases?

a)

ankylosing spondylitis and myasthenia gravis

b)

celiac disease and ankylosing spondylitis

c)

myasthenia gravis and celiac disease

d)

Reiter's disease and multiple sclerosis

88.

Which of the following is considered to be a non-suppurative complication of streptococcal infection

a)

Acute rheumatic fever

b)

Scarlet fever

c)

Impetigo

d)

Pharyngitis

89.

M. pneumoniae infections are associated with which antibodies?

a)

Cold agglutinins

b)

Antibodies to ATPase

c)

Antibodies to DNase

d)

Antibodies to Proteus bacteria

90.

Which of the following best describes the principle of the IFA test for detection of antibodies produced in Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

a)

Proteus antigens are used to determine cross-reactivity

b)

A light microscope is used to detect antigen– antibody combination

c)

Whole bacteria are used to detect antibodies

d)

Antibodies are detected by direct fluorescence.

91.

An individual with hepatomegaly, jaundice, and elevated liver enzymes has the following laboratory results: IgM anti-HAV (negative), HBsAg (positive), IgM anti-HBc (positive), and anti-HCV (negative). These findings support a diagnosis of

a)

Hepa A

b)

Acute Hepa B

c)

Chronic Hepa B

d)

Hepa C

92.

Which of the following hepatitis viruses is transmitted by the fecal-oral route?

a)

Hepa B

b)

Hepa C

c)

Hepa D

d)

Hepa E

93.

Quantitative tests for HCV RNA are used to

a)

screen for hepatitis C.

b)

determine the HCV genotype

c)

differentiate acute HCV infection from chronic HCV infection

d)

monitor hepatitis C patients on antiviral therapy

94.

The serum of an individual who received all doses of the hepatitis B vaccine should contain

a)

anti-HBs

b)

anti-HBe

c)

anti-HBc

d)

all of the above

95.

The most common cause of congenital infections is

a)

CMV

b)

Rubella

c)

VZV

d)

HTLV-I

96.

In the laboratory, heterophile antibodies are routinely detected by their reaction with

a)

B lymphocytes.

b)

bovine erythrocyte antigens

c)

sheep erythrocyte antigens

d)

Epstein-Barr virus antigens.

97.

All of the following apply to HIV except

a)

it possesses an outer envelope

b)

it contains an inner core with p24 antigen

c)

it contains DNA as its nucleic acid

d)

it is a member of the retrovirus family

98.

Antibodies to which of the following viral antigens are usually the first to be detected in HIV infection?

a)

gp120

b)

gp160

c)

gp41

d)

p24

99.

Which of the following genes is responsible for the coding of reverse transcriptase

a)

Env

b)

Pol

c)

Gag

d)

Tat

100.

Which of the following is typical of the latent stage of HIV infection?

a)

Proviral DNA is attached to cellular DNA

b)

Large numbers of viral particles are synthesized

c)

A large amount of viral RNA is synthesized.

d)

Viral particles with no envelope are produced.

101.

The decrease in T-cell numbers in HIV-infected individuals is due to

a)

lysis of host T cells by replicating virus

b)

fusion of the T cells to form syncytia

c)

killing of the T cells by HIV-specific cytotoxic T cells

d)

all of the above.

102.

Which of the following combinations of bands would represent a positive Western blot for HIV antibody?

a)

p24 and p55

b)

p24 and p31

c)

gp41 and gp120

d)

p31 and p55

103.

All of the following are likely immunologic manifestations of HIV infection except

a)

decreased CD4 T-cell count.

b)

increased CD8 T-cell count.

c)

increased response to vaccine antigens.

d)

increased serum immunoglobulins

104.

The RT-PCR is a highly sensitive method that involves

a)

direct amplification of HIV RNA

b)

amplification of a label attached to HIV RNA.

c)

amplification of a complementary DNA sequence to a portion of the HIV RNA

d)

DNA sequencing of a portion of HIV RNA.

105.

The most common means of HIV transmission worldwide is through

a)

blood transfusions

b)

intimate sexual contact

c)

sharing of needles in intravenous drug use

d)

transplacental passage of the virus