WorksheetsCM-8
Total questions: 135
Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the principle behind the reagent strip method for specific gravity?
a)
Protein error of indicators
b)
Double indicator system
c)
Change in pKa of a polyelectrolyte
d)
Double sequential enzyme reaction
2.
The reagent strip test for specific gravity is not affected by:
a)
Glucose
b)
Glucose, protein
c)
Glucose, Protein, Radiographic dye
d)
Glucose, Protein, Radiographic dye, pH
3.
What happens when the polyelectrolyte ionizes in the specific gravity test?
a)
Releases hydrogen ions in proportion to the number of ions in urine
b)
Combines with glucose to form peroxides
c)
Accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator
d)
Changes pH of the urine sample
4.
Which indicator is used in both Multistix and Chemstrip for specific gravity?
a)
Methyl red
b)
Bromthylmol blue
c)
Crystal violet
d)
Safranin
5.
What indicator reacts at pH 4.0 to 6.0?
a)
Methyl red
b)
Bromthylmol blue
c)
Crystal violet
d)
Safranin
6.
What indicator reacts at pH 6.0 to 9.0?
a)
Methyl red
b)
Bromthylmol blue
c)
Crystal violet
d)
Safranin
7.
At pH 4.0 to 6.0, the methyl red indicator shows which of the following color change?
a)
Red to green
b)
Red to yellow
c)
Blue to yellow
d)
Yellow to blue
8.
At pH 6.0 to 9.0, the bromthymol blue indicator shows which of the following color change?
a)
Red to green
b)
Red to yellow
c)
Blue to yellow
d)
Yellow to blue
9.
What is the polyelectrolyte component of Specific gravity in Multistix?
a)
Ethylene glycol diaminoethyl ether tetraacetic acid
b)
Poly (methyl vinyl ether/maleic anhydride)
c)
odium polystyrene sulfonate
d)
Polyvinyl alcohol
10.
What adjustment is recommended when urine pH ≥ 6.5?
a)
Subtract 0.005
b)
Add 0.005
c)
Subtract 0.001
d)
Add 0.001
11.
The Harmonic Oscillation Densitometry (H.O.D.) method for specific gravity is based on which principle?
a)
A. Frequency of a sound wave entering a solution changes in proportion to the solution’s density
b)
B. Refraction of light through the sample determines solute concentration
c)
C. Ionization of polyelectrolytes releases hydrogen ions proportional to ionic concentration
d)
D. Buoyancy principle where urinometer displacement reflects density
12.
The Harmonic Oscillation Densitometry (H.O.D.) method is currently considered:
a)
Gold standard for specific gravity
b)
Obsolete
c)
Preferred over reagent strips
d)
Used only for protein determination
13.
Which automated urinalysis system used the H.O.D. principle for determining specific gravity?
a)
A. IRIS Diagnostics Workstation
b)
B. Miles “Clinitest” Analyzer
c)
C. Beckman Coulter AU Series
d)
D. Siemens Clinitek Advantus
14.
The IRIS Diagnostics System (Models 300 and 500) requires how much urine sample volume for testing?
a)
3 mL
b)
4 mL
c)
6 mL
d)
10 mL
15.
In the IRIS Diagnostics system, how is the 6 mL urine sample allocated?
a)
A. 4 mL for slideless microscopy and 2 mL for H.O.D. (specific gravity)
b)
B. 3 mL for chemical analysis and 3 mL for microscopy
c)
C. 5 mL for reagent strips and 1 mL for confirmatory tests
d)
D. 2 mL for microscopy and 4 mL for chemical reactions
16.
The IRIS system uses Harmonic Oscillation Densitometry for which test parameter?
a)
Protein concentration
b)
Specific gravity determination
c)
pH measurement
d)
Bilirubin estimation
17.
Acidity refers to the ________ of a solution, while alkalinity refers to its ________.
a)
A. Bitterness; sourness
b)
B. Sweetness; saltiness
c)
C. Sourness; bitterness
d)
D. Sourness; sweetness
18.
Why is urine pH determination important in routine urinalysis?
a)
A. It helps identify abnormal casts
b)
B. It helps identify crystals and detect unsatisfactory specimens
c)
C. It determines the amount of glucose in urine
d)
D. It screens for ketones
19.
What is the normal urine pH range for a random sample?
a)
A. 5.0 – 6.0
b)
B. 4.5 – 8.0
c)
C. 6.0 – 9.0
d)
D. 5.0 – 7.0
20.
The normal urine pH for a first morning specimen is:
a)
A. 4.0 – 5.0
b)
B. 5.0 – 6.0
c)
C. 6.0 – 7.5
d)
D. 7.0 – 8.0
21.
A urine specimen with a pH of ≥9.0 most likely indicates:
a)
A. A patient with metabolic acidosis
b)
B. A properly preserved specimen
c)
C. An unpreserved or old specimen
d)
D. A patient on a high-protein diet
22.
A blood pH below 6.8 or above 7.8 is:
a)
A. Indicative of compensated acidosis
b)
B. Not clinically significant
c)
C. Incompatible with life
d)
D. Caused by alkaline medication
23.
The principle behind the reagent strip method for urine pH is based on a:
a)
A. Polyelectrolyte ion exchange reaction
b)
B. Protein error of indicators
c)
C. Double indicator system
d)
D. Redox reaction
24.
Which indicators are used for pH determination in reagent strips?
a)
Bromthymol blue and methyl red
b)
Bromthymol blue and phenolphthalein
c)
Bromcresol green and tetramethylbenzidine
d)
Bromthymol blue and tetrabromphenol blue
25.
The reagents used for urine pH testing in reagent strips are:
a)
A. Methyl red and bromthymol blue
b)
B. Phenolphthalein and methyl orange
c)
C. Bromcresol green and methyl orange
d)
D. Tetramethylbenzidine and glucose oxidase
26.
The reaction time for the pH reagent strip test is approximately:
a)
A. 30 seconds
b)
B. 45 seconds
c)
C. 60 seconds
d)
D. 90 seconds
27.
What are possible interferences in urine pH reagent strip readings?
a)
A. Old specimens and runover from adjacent pads
b)
B. Glucose and protein concentration
c)
C. Detergent residues and high temperature
d)
D. High specific gravity and bilirubin
28.
The pH reagent pad correlates with which of the following tests?
a)
A. Glucose, ketone, bilirubin
b)
B. Nitrite, leukocyte esterase, and microscopic examination
c)
C. Protein and specific gravity
d)
D. Urobilinogen and bilirubin
29.
The alkaline tide occurs:
a)
A. During fasting, due to increased ketone production
b)
B. After meals, due to withdrawal of H⁺ ions for HCl secretion
c)
C. During exercise, due to lactic acid accumulation
d)
D. After prolonged vomiting, due to bicarbonate loss
30.
The term alkaline tide refers to:
a)
A. Temporary rise in urine acidity after eating
b)
B. Temporary rise in urine alkalinity after eating
c)
C. Constant alkaline urine pH during fasting
d)
D. Acidic urine following carbohydrate ingestion
31.
Cranberry juice contains which acid that promotes the urinary excretion of hippuric acid?
a)
Citric acid
b)
Quinic acid
c)
Lactic acid
d)
Uric acid
32.
The production of hippuric acid in urine after ingestion of cranberry juice is beneficial because it:
a)
A. Neutralizes ketones
b)
B. Inhibits uric acid crystallization
c)
C. Exerts an antibacterial effect in the urinary tract
d)
D. Increases glucose excretion
33.
The most indicative test for renal disease in routine urinalysis is the detection of:
a)
Glucose
b)
Protein
c)
Ketones
d)
Bilirubin
34.
The presence of white foam when urine is shaken indicates:
a)
Glucosuria
b)
Proteinuria
c)
Bilirubinuria
d)
Hematuria
35.
The normal reference range for urinary protein is approximately:
a)
A. <10 mg/dL or <100–150 mg/day
b)
B. <50 mg/dL or <500 mg/day
c)
C. <1 g/day
d)
D. <10 g/day
36.
According to Strasinger, the normal daily urinary protein excretion should be:
a)
A. <150 mg/day
b)
B. <100 mg/day
c)
C. <10 mg/day
d)
D. <50 mg/day
37.
According to Henry, the normal daily urinary protein excretion should be:
a)
A. <150 mg/day
b)
B. <100 mg/day
c)
C. <10 mg/day
d)
D. <50 mg/day
38.
Mild or minimal proteinuria corresponds to urinary protein excretion of:
a)
<1 g/day
b)
1–3 g/day
c)
>3–4 g/day
d)
1–3 or 4 g/day
39.
Moderate proteinuria corresponds to urinary protein excretion of:
a)
<1 g/day
b)
1–3 g/day
c)
>3–4 g/day
d)
1–3 or 4 g/day
40.
Heavy or large proteinuria is defined as protein excretion of:
a)
<1 g/day
b)
1–3 g/day
c)
>3–4 g/day
d)
1–3 or 4 g/day
41.
The major serum protein found in urine is:
a)
Fibrinogen
b)
Albumin
c)
Globulin
d)
Myoglobin
42.
What percentage of plasma albumin normally enters the glomerular ultrafiltrate?
a)
A. <0.1%
b)
B. 1–2%
c)
C. 10%
d)
D. 50%
43.
How much of the filtered protein is normally reabsorbed in the renal tubules?
a)
A. 50–60%
b)
B. 70–80%
c)
C. 95–99%
d)
D. 100%
44.
The most abundant protein in normal urine is:
a)
A. Albumin
b)
B. Tamm-Horsfall protein (uromodulin)
c)
C. Serum microglobulin
d)
D. Immunoglobulin A
45.
The Tamm-Horsfall protein is produced by which part of the nephron?
a)
A. Glomerulus
b)
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
c)
C. Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle and distal convoluted tubule
d)
D. Collecting duct
46.
Other normal urinary proteins include all except:
a)
A. Serum and tubular microglobulins
b)
B. Proteins from prostatic and vaginal secretions
c)
C. Hemoglobin
d)
D. Tamm-Horsfall protein
47.
Which of the following best explains why proteinuria is considered the most indicative of renal disease?
a)
A. It directly reflects glomerular or tubular dysfunction
b)
B. It only occurs in dehydration
c)
C. It correlates with bilirubin levels
d)
D. It is influenced by dietary protein intake
48.
Diabetes mellitus
a)
Causes of acid urine
b)
Causes of alkaline urine
49.
medications
a)
Causes of acid urine
b)
Causes of alkaline urine
50.
Acid-producing bacteria (E. coli)
a)
Causes of acid urine
b)
Causes of alkaline urine
51.
Diarrhea
a)
Causes of acid urine
b)
Causes of alkaline urine
52.
Dehydration
a)
Causes of acid urine
b)
Causes of alkaline urine
53.
Emphysema
a)
Causes of acid urine
b)
Causes of alkaline urine
54.
Cranberry juice
a)
Causes of acid urine
b)
Causes of alkaline urine
55.
High protein diet
a)
Causes of acid urine
b)
Causes of alkaline urine
56.
Starvation
a)
Causes of acid urine
b)
Causes of alkaline urine
57.
Renal tubular acidosis
a)
Causes of acid urine
b)
Causes of alkaline urine
58.
Vegetarian diet
a)
Causes of acid urine
b)
Causes of alkaline urine
59.
Presence of urease-producing bacteria
a)
Causes of acid urine
b)
Causes of alkaline urine
60.
Hyperventilation
a)
Causes of acid urine
b)
Causes of alkaline urine
61.
Old specimens
a)
Causes of acid urine
b)
Causes of alkaline urine
62.
Vomiting
a)
Causes of acid urine
b)
Causes of alkaline urine
63.
After meal
a)
Causes of acid urine
b)
Causes of alkaline urine
64.
What is the main protein detected by reagent strip methods?
a)
Albumin
b)
Globulin
c)
Bence Jones protein
d)
Microalbumin
65.
Which is the indicator and buffer system in Multistix for protein?
a)
Tetrachlorophenol tetrabromosulfonphthalein, citrate buffer pH 3.0
b)
Tetrabromphenol blue, citrate buffer pH 3.0
c)
Bromthymol blue, phosphate buffer pH 6.5
d)
Methyl red, borate buffer pH 5.0
66.
What color change indicates a positive protein result?
a)
Yellow → Blue-green
b)
Blue → Yellow
c)
Green → Orange
d)
Red → Purple
67.
Pre-renal or “overflow” proteinuria occurs when:
a)
Glomeruli become more permeable to albumin
b)
Excess plasma proteins enter the filtrate due to increased serum levels
c)
Tubular reabsorption of proteins is increased
d)
There is obstruction to urine flow
68.
Which of the following is not a cause of pre-renal proteinuria?
a)
Intravascular hemolysis
b)
Severe infection or inflammation
c)
Diabetic nephropathy
d)
Muscle injury
69.
Intravascular hemolysis causes pre-renal proteinuria due to increased plasma levels of:
a)
Myoglobin
b)
Hemoglobin
c)
Albumin
d)
Fibrinogen
70.
Muscle injury results in pre-renal proteinuria due to release of:
a)
Albumin
b)
Myoglobin
c)
Hemoglobin
d)
Immunoglobulins
71.
Severe infection and inflammation can cause overflow proteinuria due to increased:
a)
Acute-phase reactants (APRs)
b)
Antidiuretic hormone
c)
Hemoglobin degradation products
d)
Glomerular permeability
72.
Multiple myeloma causes pre-renal proteinuria due to excessive production of:
a)
Immunoglobulin heavy chains
b)
Immunoglobulin light chains
c)
Albumin
d)
β2-microglobulin
73.
The Bence-Jones protein (BJP) is composed of:
a)
Identical immunoglobulin heavy chains
b)
Identical immunoglobulin light chains
c)
Identical immunoglobulin constant chains
d)
Alpha and beta globulins
74.
Diagnostic confirmation of Bence-Jones proteinuria can be done by:
a)
Micral test
b)
Serum electrophoresis and immunofixation electrophoresis
c)
Reagent strip for albumin
d)
Clinitest
75.
What is the reading time in micral test?
a)
30 seconds
b)
40 seconds
c)
45 seconds
d)
60 seconds
76.
When heating a urine specimen containing Bence-Jones protein:
a)
A. It precipitates at 100°C
b)
B. It remains clear at 40°C
c)
C. It precipitates between 40°C and 60°C and dissolves at 100°C
d)
D. It dissolves between 40°C and 60°C and precipitates at 100°C
77.
To eliminate interference from other precipitated proteins in the Bence-Jones test, the specimen should be:
a)
A. Centrifuged at 60°C
b)
B. Filtered at 100°C and observed for turbidity as it cools to 40–60°C
c)
C. Filtered at 40–60°C and observed for turbidity as it cools to 100°C
d)
D. Treated with sulfosalicylic acid
78.
A classic example of glomerular proteinuria is:
a)
Myoglobinuria
b)
Diabetic nephropathy
c)
Pyelonephritis
d)
Hematuria
79.
Persistent microalbuminuria is an early indicator of:
a)
Myoglobinuria
b)
Diabetic nephropathy
c)
Pyelonephritis
d)
Hematuria
80.
The albumin excretion rate (AER) is expressed in:
a)
mg/dL
b)
mmol
c)
µg/min
d)
mg/min/kg
81.
The albumin excretion rate (AER) can also be expressed using:
a)
mg/dL
b)
mmol
c)
mg/min/kg
d)
mg/24 hours
82.
Normal AER value:
a)
0–10 µg/min
b)
0–20 µg/min
c)
20–200 µg/min
d)
>200 µg/min
83.
Microalbuminuria corresponds to an albumin excretion rate of:
a)
0–10 µg/min
b)
0–20 µg/min
c)
20–200 µg/min
d)
>200 µg/min
84.
Clinical albuminuria corresponds to an albumin excretion rate of:
a)
0–10 µg/min
b)
0–20 µg/min
c)
20–200 µg/min
d)
>200 µg/min
85.
Microalbuminuria corresponds to an albumin excretion rate of:
a)
20–100 mg/24 hours
b)
10–200 mg/24 hours
c)
30–400 mg/24 hours
d)
30–300 mg/24 hours
86.
The Micral test for microalbuminuria is based on which principle?
a)
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
b)
Enzyme immunoassay
c)
Immunochromatography
d)
Dye-binding method
87.
The Micral test employs an antibody-enzyme conjugate that binds to albumin. Which enzyme is used?
a)
Peroxidase
b)
β-galactosidase
c)
Glucose oxidase
d)
Alkaline phosphatase
88.
In the Micral test, which chromogen produces the visible color change?
a)
Tetramethylbenzidine
b)
Chlorophenol red galactoside
c)
Bromthymol blue
d)
Phenol red
89.
Positive reaction in Micral test
a)
White
b)
Purple
c)
Yellow
d)
Red
e)
Blue
90.
Negative reaction in Micral test
a)
White
b)
Purple
c)
Yellow
d)
Red
e)
Blue
91.
The Micral test for microalbuminuria uses a gold-labeled antibody and detects albumin concentrations in what range?
a)
0–5 mg/dL
b)
0–10 mg/dL
c)
10–50 mg/dL
d)
50–100 mg/dL
92.
What condition may cause a false-negative Micral test result?
a)
Proteinuria
b)
Dilute urine
c)
Alkaline urine
d)
Acidic urine
e)
Hemoglobinuria
93.
The Immunodip test for microalbuminuria is based on what principle?
a)
Immunofluorescence
b)
Immunochromatography
c)
Immunoturbidimetry
d)
Enzyme immunoassay
94.
The reagent used in the Immunodip test includes:
a)
Antibody-coated blue latex particles
b)
Gold-labeled antibody and β-galactosidase
c)
Copper sulfate and tetramethylbenzidine
d)
Bromcresol green dye
95.
The sensitivity range of the Immunodip test is:
a)
0–10 mg/dL
b)
1.2–8.0 mg/dL
c)
10–150 mg/L
d)
10–300 mg/dL
96.
The sensitivity range of the Albumin:Creatinine ratio test for albumin is:
a)
0–10 mg/dL
b)
1.2–8.0 mg/dL
c)
10–150 mg/L
d)
10–300 mg/dL
97.
The sensitivity range of the Albumin:Creatinine ratio test for creatinine is:
a)
0–10 mg/dL
b)
1.2–8.0 mg/dL
c)
10–150 mg/L
d)
10–300 mg/dL
98.
Which medication may cause a false-positive creatinine result in the Albumin:Creatinine ratio test?
a)
Cimetidine
b)
Furosemide
c)
Chlorampenicol
d)
Bacitracin
99.
Which condition may cause invalid results in the Albumin:Creatinine ratio test?
a)
A. Visibly bloody or abnormally colored urine
b)
B. High urine glucose
c)
C. Acidic urine
d)
D. Prolonged storage at 4°C
100.
false-negative Immunodip test result for microalbuminuria can occur when:
a)
A. The specimen is dilute
b)
B. The urine has Bence Jones Protein
c)
C. The strip is expired
d)
D. The urine contains radiographic dye
101.
The Albumin:Creatinine ratio (Clinitest microalbumin / Multistix-Pro) test corrects for what patient variable?
a)
Blood pH
b)
Hydration status
c)
Sodium excretion
d)
Glucose concentration
102.
The principle of the Albumin:Creatinine ratio test is:
a)
Immunoturbidimetry
b)
Immunochromotography
c)
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
d)
Enzyme immunoassay
e)
Sensitive albumin test related to creatinine concentration
103.
The reagent for albumin detection in the Albumin:Creatinine ratio test is:
a)
Diiodo-dihydroxydinitrophenyl tetrabromosulfonphthalein
b)
2,4-dichloroaniline diazonium salt
c)
p-arsanilic acid, tetrahydrobenzo(h)-quinolin-3-ol
d)
Diisopropylbenzene dihydroperoxide tetramethylbenzidine
104.
The reagent for creatinine detection in the Albumin:Creatinine ratio test includes:
a)
A. Copper sulfate, tetramethylbenzidine, and diisopropylbenzenedihydroperoxide
b)
B. Gold-labeled antibody and β-galactosidase
c)
C. Antibody-coated latex particles
d)
D. Alkaline picrate
105.
BJP precipitates at
a)
40 to 60 degree Celsius
b)
20 degree Celsius
c)
100 degree Celsius
d)
40 degree Celsius
106.
BJP dissolves at
a)
40 to 60 degree Celsius
b)
20 degree Celsius
c)
100 degree Celsius
d)
40 degree Celsius
107.
Interference due to other precipitated proteins can be removed by filtering the specimen at
a)
40 to 60 degree Celsius
b)
20 degree Celsius
c)
100 degree Celsius
d)
40 degree Celsius
108.
Interference due to other precipitated proteins can be removed by observing the specimen for turbidity as it cools between
a)
40 to 60 degree Celsius
b)
20 degree Celsius
c)
100 degree Celsius
d)
40 degree Celsius
109.
A strip emplying antibody-enzyme conjugate that binds albumin
a)
Micral test
b)
Immunodip test
c)
Clinitest microalbumin strips
110.
Sensitive albumin test related to creatinine ratio
a)
Micral test
b)
Immunodip test
c)
Clinitest microalbumin strips
111.
Principle: enzyme immunoassay
a)
Micral test
b)
Immunodip test
c)
Clinitest microalbumin strips
112.
Principle: immunochromographics
a)
Micral test
b)
Immunodip test
c)
Clinitest microalbumin strips
113.
Orthostatic (postural or cyclic) proteinuria is characterized by the presence of protein in the urine:
a)
A. Only when lying down
b)
B. Only when standing
c)
C. Both when standing and lying down
d)
D. Only after meals
114.
Orthostatic proteinuria occurs due to:
a)
Increased glomerular permeability from infection
b)
Increased pressure on the renal veins while standing
c)
Increased renal tubular secretion of proteins
d)
Decreased renal blood flow when lying down
115.
In orthostatic proteinuria, increased venous pressure leads to:
a)
Decreased renal blood flow and protein retention
b)
Renal congestion and glomerular changes
c)
Tubular necrosis
d)
Protein denaturation
116.
To confirm orthostatic proteinuria, urine must be collected:
a)
A. Randomly at any time of day
b)
B. Before bed and immediately after lying down
c)
C. Immediately upon arising and again 2 hours after standing
d)
D. After fasting for 12 hours
117.
The first morning urine in orthostatic proteinuria typically shows:
a)
Heavy proteinuria
b)
Trace proteinuria
c)
No proteinuria
d)
Increased specific gravity
118.
The second urine specimen (2 hours after standing) in orthostatic proteinuria typically shows:
a)
Absence of protein
b)
Presence of protein
c)
Glucosuria
d)
Increased urea
119.
Which of the following is not a cause of persistent proteinuria?
a)
Nephrotic syndrome
b)
Pre-eclampsia
c)
Strenuous exercise
d)
Orthostatic posture
120.
The condition characterized by generalized edema, heavy proteinuria, and lipiduria is:
a)
Pyelonephritis
b)
Nephrotic syndrome
c)
Fanconi’s syndrome
d)
Post-renal proteinuria
121.
Tubular proteinuria was originally discovered among workers exposed to:
a)
Mercury
b)
Cadmium dust
c)
Lead
d)
Arsenic
122.
The key mechanism in tubular proteinuria is:
a)
A. Increased glomerular permeability
b)
B. Decreased reabsorption of filtered proteins by renal tubules
c)
C. Overproduction of abnormal plasma proteins
d)
D. Decreased glomerular filtration rate
123.
In tubular proteinuria, which protein is normally filtered but no longer reabsorbed?
a)
Globulin
b)
Albumin
c)
Bence Jones protein
d)
Tamm-Horsfall protein
124.
Fanconi’s syndrome is an example of which category of proteinuria?
a)
Pre-renal
b)
Glomerular
c)
Tubular
d)
Post-renal
125.
Causes of tubular proteinuria include all except:
a)
Viral infections
b)
Heavy metal exposure
c)
Severe dehydration
d)
Fanconi’s syndrome
126.
Post-renal proteinuria originates from:
a)
Glomerular inflammation
b)
Tubular dysfunction
c)
Lower urinary tract inflammation or injury
d)
Systemic overproduction of proteins
127.
Which of the following may cause post-renal proteinuria?
a)
Nephrotic syndrome
b)
Multiple myeloma
c)
Menstrual contamination
d)
Fanconi’s syndrome
128.
Proteinuria resulting from urinary tract infection or trauma is classified as:
a)
Pre-renal proteinuria
b)
Glomerular proteinuria
c)
Tubular proteinuria
d)
Post-renal proteinuria
129.
First morning urine protein in Orthostatic proteinuria
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
130.
First morning urine protein in Clinical proteinuria
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
131.
2 hours after standing protein in Clinical proteinuria
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
132.
2 hours after standing protein in Orthostatic proteinuria
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
133.
Which of the following may cause Orthostatic proteinuria?
a)
Infectious mononucleosis
b)
Pre-eclampsia
c)
Lower UTI
d)
Fanconi syndrome
134.
Cadet proteinuria
a)
Orthostatic Proteinuria
b)
Tubular proteinuria
c)
Post-renal proteinuria
d)
Pre-renal proteinuria
135.
Postural proteinuria
a)
Orthostatic Proteinuria
b)
Tubular proteinuria
c)
Post-renal proteinuria
d)
Pre-renal proteinuria
100 %
