WorksheetsBB-1
Total questions: 131
Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
First recorded blood transfusion, blood was taken from three young men and given to Pope Innocent VII
a)
1492
b)
1869
c)
1901
d)
1914
2.
Braxton Hicks recommended Sodium Phosphate
a)
1492
b)
1869
c)
1901
d)
1914
3.
Karl Landsteiner discovered ABO blood groups
a)
1492
b)
1869
c)
1901
d)
1914
4.
Hustin, reported the use of Sodium Citrate
a)
1492
b)
1869
c)
1901
d)
1914
5.
Lewisohn determined the minimum amount of citrate
a)
1915
b)
1916
c)
1943
d)
1957
6.
Rous and Turned introduced a citrate-dextrose solution
a)
1915
b)
1916
c)
1943
d)
1957
7.
Loutit and Mollison introduced the preservative acid-citrate-dextrose (ACD)
a)
1915
b)
1916
c)
1943
d)
1957
8.
Gibson introduced the preservative citrate-phosphate-dextrose (CPD)
a)
1915
b)
1916
c)
1943
d)
1957
9.
First recorded blood transfusion, blood was taken from three young men and given to
a)
Pope Innocent VII
b)
Braxton Hicks
c)
Karl Landsteiner
d)
Edward Lindemann
e)
Unger
10.
Recommended Sodium Phosphate
a)
Pope Innocent VII
b)
Braxton Hicks
c)
Karl Landsteiner
d)
Edward Lindemann
e)
Unger
11.
Who discovered ABO blood groups?
a)
Pope Innocent VII
b)
Braxton Hicks
c)
Karl Landsteiner
d)
Edward Lindemann
e)
Unger
12.
first successful vein-to-vein transfusion using multiple syringes and a special cannula
a)
Pope Innocent VII
b)
Braxton Hicks
c)
Karl Landsteiner
d)
Edward Lindemann
e)
Unger
13.
Designed syringe-valve apparatus
a)
Pope Innocent VII
b)
Braxton Hicks
c)
Karl Landsteiner
d)
Edward Lindemann
e)
Unger
14.
reported the use of Sodium Citrate
a)
Hustin
b)
Lewisohn
c)
Rous and Turned
d)
Loutit and Mollison
e)
Gibson
15.
Determined the minimum amount of citrate
a)
Hustin
b)
Lewisohn
c)
Rous and Turned
d)
Loutit and Mollison
e)
Gibson
16.
introduced a citrate-dextrose solution
a)
Hustin
b)
Lewisohn
c)
Rous and Turned
d)
Loutit and Mollison
e)
Gibson
17.
Introduced the preservative citrate-phosphate-dextrose (CPD)
a)
Hustin
b)
Lewisohn
c)
Rous and Turned
d)
Loutit and Mollison
e)
Gibson
18.
– Landsteiner book “Specificity of Serologic Reaction”
a)
1901
b)
1902
c)
1903
d)
1904
19.
– Decastello and Sturli discovered blood group “AB”
a)
1901
b)
1902
c)
1903
d)
1904
20.
What is the normal total number of chromosomes in a human somatic cell?
a)
22
b)
23
c)
44
d)
46
21.
How many pairs of chromosomes are found in a normal human cell?
a)
20 pairs
b)
21 pairs
c)
22 pairs
d)
23 pairs
22.
How many chromosomes are inherited from each parent?
a)
22
b)
24
c)
23
d)
46
23.
The haploid number of human chromosomes is:
a)
22
b)
24
c)
23
d)
46
24.
The total of 46 chromosomes in humans is referred to as:
a)
Haploid number
b)
Diploid number
c)
Polyploid number
d)
Monoloid number
25.
Study of transmission of inherited characteristics
a)
Homozygous
b)
Heterozygous
c)
Gene
d)
Genetics
e)
Alleles
26.
a segment of DNA arranged along the chromosome at a specific position called locus
a)
Homozygous
b)
Heterozygous
c)
Gene
d)
Genetics
e)
Alleles
27.
Gene at a specific locus that differ in their nucleotide sequence are called
a)
Homozygous
b)
Heterozygous
c)
Gene
d)
Genetics
e)
Alleles
28.
a segment of DNA arranged along the chromosome at a specific position called?
a)
Homozygous
b)
Heterozygous
c)
Gene
d)
Locus
e)
Alleles
29.
Identical alleles
a)
Homozygous
b)
Heterozygous
c)
Gene
d)
Locus
e)
Alleles
30.
Different alleles
a)
Homozygous
b)
Heterozygous
c)
Gene
d)
Locus
e)
Alleles
31.
opposite antigens encoded at the same locus
a)
Antithetical
b)
Genotype
c)
Phenotype
32.
total genetic composition of an individual, representing maternally and paternally derived genes. It is the complement of DNA that is inherited
a)
Antithetical
b)
Genotype
c)
Phenotype
33.
- detectable or expressed characteristics of genes
a)
Antithetical
b)
Genotype
c)
Phenotype
34.
Most of the antigens in the various blood group system generally follow straightforward inheritance patterns, usually __________ nature
a)
Codominant
b)
Dominant
c)
Recessive
d)
Amorph
35.
genes that are always expressed
a)
Codominant
b)
Dominant
c)
Recessive
d)
Amorph
36.
genes that in the presence of a dominant gene does not express itself
a)
Codominant
b)
Dominant
c)
Recessive
d)
Amorph
37.
- genes that does not produce any detectable trait
a)
Codominant
b)
Dominant
c)
Recessive
d)
Amorph
38.
What is the phenotype of A1A1 , A1O , A1A2 genotype?
a)
A1
b)
A2
c)
A1, B
d)
A2, B
e)
B
39.
What is the phenotype of A2O, A2A2 genotype?
a)
A1
b)
A2
c)
A1, B
d)
A2, B
e)
B
40.
What is the phenotype of A1B genotype?
a)
A1
b)
A2
c)
A1, B
d)
A2, B
e)
B
41.
What is the phenotype of A2B genotype?
a)
A1
b)
A2
c)
A1, B
d)
A2, B
e)
B
42.
What is the phenotype of BB, BO genotype?
a)
A1
b)
A2
c)
O
d)
A2, B
e)
B
43.
What is the phenotype of OO genotype?
a)
A1
b)
A2
c)
O
d)
A2, B
e)
B
44.
Father of genetics who postulated the law of inheritance
a)
Louis Pasteur
b)
Karry Mullis
c)
Gregor Mendel
d)
Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
45.
states that in a parent with two copies of each gene, either one has an equal chance of being selected at random to be passed on to the child
a)
Law of independent or random segregation
b)
Law of independent assortment
46.
states that genes for different traits are inherited separately from each other. This allows for all possible combinations of genes to occur in the offspring
a)
Law of independent or random segregation
b)
Law of independent assortment
47.
What is the primary function of an enhancement medium?
a)
To destroy IgG antibodies
b)
To enhance detection of IgG antibodies by increasing their reactivity
c)
To prevent agglutination of red blood cells
d)
To separate plasma from red blood cells
48.
Enhancement media aid in antibody detection by:
a)
Increasing Zeta potential
b)
Reducing Zeta potential
c)
Destroying red cell antigens
d)
Inhibiting antibody binding
49.
What type of antibody reactivity is primarily enhanced by enhancement media?
a)
IgA
b)
IgD
c)
IgE
d)
IgG
50.
Cross-links sensitized cells, resulting in visible agglutination
a)
AHG
b)
22% Albumin
c)
LISS
d)
PEG
e)
Enzymes
51.
Causes agglutination by adjusting zeta potential between RBCs
a)
AHG
b)
22% Albumin
c)
LISS
d)
PEG
e)
Enzymes
52.
Low ionic strength environment causes RBCs to take up antibody more rapidly
a)
AHG
b)
22% Albumin
c)
LISS
d)
PEG
e)
Enzymes
53.
Increase test sensitivity; aggregates RBCs causing closer proximity of RBCs to one another, assisting in antibody cross-linking
a)
AHG
b)
22% Albumin
c)
LISS
d)
PEG
e)
Enzymes
54.
Note: Considered to be more effective than albumin, LISS, or polybrene for detection of weak antibodies
a)
AHG
b)
22% Albumin
c)
LISS
d)
PEG
e)
Enzymes
55.
Which of the following potentiators is prone to false positive?
a)
AHG
b)
22% Albumin
c)
LISS
d)
PEG
e)
Enzymes
56.
Which of the following potentiators contain 0.2% NaCl?
a)
AHG
b)
22% Albumin
c)
LISS
d)
PEG
e)
Enzymes
57.
The test mixture cannot be centrifuged and examined reliably for direct agglutination after 37°C incubation
a)
AHG
b)
22% Albumin
c)
LISS
d)
PEG
e)
Enzymes
58.
Reduces RBC surface charge; destroys or depresses some RBC antigens; enhances other RBC antigens
a)
AHG
b)
22% Albumin
c)
LISS
d)
PEG
e)
Enzymes
59.
enzymes added directly to serum/RBC mixture
a)
One step
b)
Two-step
60.
RBC pretreated with enzymes before addition of serum
a)
One step
b)
Two-step
61.
What is the main additive in LISS that prevents RBC lysis?
a)
Albumin
b)
Glycine
c)
Glucose
d)
Glycerol
62.
What is one disadvantage of LISS?
a)
Prone to false positive reaction
b)
Prone to false negative reaction
c)
Long incubation time
d)
Limited IgG detection
63.
anti-IgG + anti-complement
a)
Polyspecific
b)
Monospecific
64.
anti-IgG only
a)
Polyspecific
b)
Monospecific
65.
AHG added directly to washed RBCs
a)
DAT
b)
IAT
66.
serum + screen cells; incubation at 37°C for time determined by additive used; cell washing before addition of AHG
a)
DAT
b)
IAT
67.
What is the usual incubation time for LISS?
a)
5 to 15 minutes
b)
15 to 60 minutes
c)
10 to 30 minutes
d)
60 to 120 minutes
68.
What is the usual incubation time for PEG?
a)
5 to 15 minutes
b)
15 to 60 minutes
c)
10 to 30 minutes
d)
60 to 120 minutes
69.
What is the usual incubation time for 22% albumin?
a)
5 to 15 minutes
b)
15 to 60 minutes
c)
10 to 30 minutes
d)
60 to 120 minutes
70.
From fig plants
a)
Ficin
b)
Papain
c)
Trypsin
d)
Bromelin
71.
From papaya
a)
Ficin
b)
Papain
c)
Trypsin
d)
Bromelin
72.
From pig stomach
a)
Ficin
b)
Papain
c)
Trypsin
d)
Bromelin
73.
From pineapple
a)
Ficin
b)
Papain
c)
Trypsin
d)
Bromelin
74.
Duffy
a)
Destroyed by enzymes
b)
Enhanced by enzymes
75.
MNSs
a)
Destroyed by enzymes
b)
Enhanced by enzymes
76.
Xga
a)
Destroyed by enzymes
b)
Enhanced by enzymes
77.
Rh
a)
Destroyed by enzymes
b)
Enhanced by enzymes
78.
Lewis
a)
Destroyed by enzymes
b)
Enhanced by enzymes
79.
Kidd
a)
Destroyed by enzymes
b)
Enhanced by enzymes
80.
P1
a)
Destroyed by enzymes
b)
Enhanced by enzymes
81.
ABO
a)
Destroyed by enzymes
b)
Enhanced by enzymes
82.
I
a)
Destroyed by enzymes
b)
Enhanced by enzymes
83.
Penicillin
a)
Drug absorption
b)
Membrane modification
c)
Immune complex
d)
Autoantibody
84.
Cephalosporin
a)
Drug absorption
b)
Membrane modification
c)
Immune complex
d)
Autoantibody
85.
Rifampin, Stibophen, Phenacetin
a)
Drug absorption
b)
Membrane modification
c)
Immune complex
d)
Autoantibody
86.
Methyldopa, Mefenamic acid
a)
Drug absorption
b)
Membrane modification
c)
Immune complex
d)
Autoantibody
87.
Also referred as Coomb's test
a)
Antiglobulin test
b)
Direct Antiglobulin test
c)
Indirect Antiglobulin test
88.
It is based on the principle that antihuman globulins obtained from immunized nonhuman species bind to human globulins such as IgG or complement, either free in serum or attached to antigens on red cells
a)
Antiglobulin test
b)
Direct Antiglobulin test
c)
Indirect Antiglobulin test
89.
Which of the following is required in post-transfusion only if there is a transfusion reaction?
a)
Antiglobulin test
b)
Direct Antiglobulin test
c)
Indirect Antiglobulin test
90.
Detects a level of 100 to 500 IgG molecules per RBC and 400 to 1,100 molecules of C3d per RBC
a)
Antiglobulin test
b)
Direct Antiglobulin test
c)
Indirect Antiglobulin test
91.
There must be between 100 and 200 IgG or C3 molecules on the cell to obtain a positive reaction
a)
Antiglobulin test
b)
Direct Antiglobulin test
c)
Indirect Antiglobulin test
92.
It detects IN-VIVO sensitization of RBCs with IgG or complement components
a)
Antiglobulin test
b)
Direct Antiglobulin test
c)
Indirect Antiglobulin test
93.
Clinical conditions that can result in in vivo coating of RBCs with antibody or complement are:
✓ Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn
✓ Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction
✓ Autoimmune and Drug-induced Hemolytic Anemia
a)
Antiglobulin test
b)
Direct Antiglobulin test
c)
Indirect Antiglobulin test
94.
It detects IN-VITRO sensitization of RBCs
a)
Antiglobulin test
b)
Direct Antiglobulin test
c)
Indirect Antiglobulin test
95.
▪ It used in the following situations:
✓ Antibody Screening and Identification
✓ Antibody Titration
✓ RBC Phenotyping
✓ Weak D Testing
a)
Antiglobulin test
b)
Direct Antiglobulin test
c)
Indirect Antiglobulin test
96.
Can be used to detect RBCs sensitized with IgG alloantibodies, IgG autoantibodies, and complement components
a)
Antiglobulin test
b)
Direct Antiglobulin test
c)
Indirect Antiglobulin test
97.
Contain only one antibody specificity: either anti-IgG or antibody to specific components of complement, such as C3b or C3d
a)
Monospecific
b)
Polyspecific
c)
Monoclonal
d)
Polyclonal
98.
Contain antibody to human IgG and to the C3d component of human complement
a)
Monospecific
b)
Polyspecific
c)
Monoclonal
d)
Polyclonal
99.
Derived from one clone of plasma cells and recognize a single epitope
a)
Monospecific
b)
Polyspecific
c)
Monoclonal
d)
Polyclonal
100.
Mixture of antibodies from different plasma cell clones Recognize different antigenic determinants (epitope), or the same portion of the antigen but with different affinities
a)
Monospecific
b)
Polyspecific
c)
Monoclonal
d)
Polyclonal
101.
Is DAT required in pre-transfusion testing?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
Maybe
d)
I don't know
102.
Is IAT required in pre-transfusion testing?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
Maybe
d)
I don't know
103.
Improper specimen (refrigerated, clotted)
a)
False-positive AHG
b)
False-negative AHG
104.
Dirty glassware
a)
False-positive AHG
b)
False-negative AHG
105.
Bacterial contamination of cells or saline used in washing
a)
False-positive AHG
b)
False-negative AHG
106.
Over centrifugation and over reading
a)
False-positive AHG
b)
False-negative AHG
107.
Inadequate or improper washing of cells
a)
False-positive AHG
b)
False-negative AHG
108.
Under centrifugation
a)
False-positive AHG
b)
False-negative AHG
109.
Serum:Cell ratios are not ideal
a)
False-positive AHG
b)
False-negative AHG
110.
Low pH of saline
a)
False-positive AHG
b)
False-negative AHG
111.
Ideal ratio of serum:RBC suspension on AHG
a)
1 drop of serum to 2 drops of the RBC suspensions
b)
2 drops of serum to 1 drop of the RBC suspensions
c)
2 drops of serum to 2 drops of the RBC suspensions
d)
1 drop of serum to 1 drop of the RBC suspensions
112.
Antibody-mediated clumping of particles that express antigen on the surface
a)
Agglutination
b)
Hemolysis
c)
Precipitation
113.
Rupture of red cells with release of intracellular hemoglobin
a)
Agglutination
b)
Hemolysis
c)
Precipitation
114.
Formation of an insoluble complex when soluble reacts with soluble antibody
a)
Agglutination
b)
Hemolysis
c)
Precipitation
115.
Many tiny agglutinates
a)
W+
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
116.
Many free cells
a)
W+
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
117.
May not be visible without microscope
a)
W+
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
118.
Many small agglutinates
a)
W+
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
119.
Many medium-sized agglutinates
a)
W+
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
120.
Moderate number of free cells
a)
W+
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
121.
Several large agglutinates
a)
W+
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
122.
Few free cells
a)
W+
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
123.
One large, solid agglutinate
a)
W+
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
124.
No free cells
a)
W+
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
125.
Dark, turbid supernatant
a)
W+
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
126.
Turbid supernatant
a)
W+
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
127.
No agglutinates
a)
0
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
128.
Dark, turbid, homogenous supernatant
a)
0
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
129.
Clear supernatant
a)
W+
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
130.
Which blood group systems commonly exhibit the dosage effect?
a)
ABO and Kell
b)
Rh, Kidd, Duffy, MNSs, and Lutheran
c)
Rh, Kidd, Kell, Duffy, Lutheran, I
d)
ABO, Rh, KIdd, MNSs, Lutheran
131.
What is the optimal pH range for most antigen-antibody reactions in blood banking?
a)
5.0–6.0
b)
6.5–7.5
c)
7.5–8.5
d)
8.5–9.5
100 %
