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E1 FINALS GROUP - RLE QUIZ

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which laboratory result is commonly decreased in a patient with cirrhosis?

a)

Serum albumin

b)

Serum bilirubin

c)

Prothrombin time

d)

AST and ALT

2.

The definitive diagnostic method for cirrhosis is:

a)

CT scan

b)

MRI

c)

Liver biopsy

d)

Ultrasound

3.

The yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes due to elevated bilirubin levels is called (a)   .

4.

A patient with MI develops shortness of breath, crackles in the lungs, and frothy sputum. This indicates:

a)

Cardiac tamponade

b)

Left-sided heart failure

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Right-sided heart failure

5.

Which medication helps prevent further clot formation after an MI?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Morphine

d)

Furosemide

6.

What is the primary goal of treatment during an acute MI?

a)

Reduce fever

b)

Lower blood pressure

c)

Restore perfusion to the heart muscle as quickly as possible

d)

Promote fluid balance

7.

Which of the following is most characteristic of myocardial infarction?

a)

Sharp, stabbing pain relieved by rest

b)

Crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm or jaw

c)

Pain that worsens with inspiration

d)

Mild chest discomfort during exercise only

8.

The most common cause of myocardial infarction is:

a)

Coronary artery spasm

b)

Viral infection

c)

Atherosclerotic plaque rupture with thrombus formation

d)

Hypotension

9.

What are the three major components of the Glasgow Coma Scale?

a)

Motor response, Reflexes, and Verbal response

b)

Eye opening, Verbal response, and Motor response

c)

Eye opening, Reflexes, and Pupillary response

d)

Motor strength, Orientation, and Reflexes

10.

What is the highest possible total score in the Glasgow Coma Scale?

a)

10

b)

12

c)

15

d)

20

11.

A patient opens eyes only to pain, makes incomprehensible sounds, and flexes abnormally to pain. What is the GCS score?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

12.

Normal value for PaCO₂ (partial pressure of carbon dioxide) is:

a)

35-45 mmHg

b)

20-30 mmHg

c)

50-60 mmHg

d)

70-80 mmHg

13.

What is the normal value for pH?

a)

7.20–7.30 mmHg

b)

7.35–7.45 mmHg

c)

6.50–6.60 mmHg

d)

735–7.45 mmHg

14.

Normal value for HCO₃⁻ (bicarbonate):

a)

15–20 mEq/L

b)

25–35 mEq/L

c)

22–26 mEq/L

d)

28–32 mEq/L

15.

A patient's ABG shows: pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 55 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L. What is the interpretation?

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

16.

ABG: pH 7.50, PaCO₂ 30 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L. Interpretation?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

17.

ABG: pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 38 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 18 mEq/L. Interpretation?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

18.

ABG: pH 7.47, PaCO₂ 40 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 29 mEq/L. Interpretation?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

19.

Which of the following ABG results indicates compensated metabolic acidosis?

a)

pH 7.10, PaCO2 38, HCO3− 15

b)

pH 7.40, PaCO2 30, HCO3− 18

c)

pH 7.35, PaCO2 30, HCO3− 18

d)

pH 7.50, PaCO2 40, HCO3− 29

20.

Which condition most commonly causes respiratory alkalosis?

a)

COPD

b)

Hyperventilation (anxiety, pain, or fever)

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Kidney failure

21.

The doctor orders 500 mg of a medication. The available stock is 250 mg per tablet. How many tablets should be given?

(a)  

22.

The order is for 1 g of acetaminophen. The drug on hand is 500 mg per tablet. How many tablets will you administer?

(a)  

23.

The physician orders 250 mg of a drug. The available solution is 125 mg/5 mL. How many mL will you administer?

(a)  

24.

Which of the following best describes the acid-base disorder: pH ↑ and ↑ HCO3−?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Respiratory acidosis

25.

The order is 600 mg of a drug. Stock solution: 300 mg/2 mL. How many mL are required?

(a)  

26.

A patient is prescribed 1.5 g of cefazolin. The vial contains 500 mg per 1 mL after reconstitution. How many mL are needed?

(a)  

27.

The doctor orders 500 mL of IV fluid to infuse over 4 hours. The drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. How many drops per minute (gtt/min)?

(a)  

28.

An IV infusion of 1000 mL must run over 8 hours using a 20 gtt/mL set. Find the flow rate in gtt/min.

(a)  

29.

A child weighs 15 kg. The prescribed dose is 10 mg/kg/day divided into two doses. How much will the nurse give per dose?

(a)  

30.

You have an IV of D5LR 1000 mL to run for 10 hours. What is the infusion rate in mL/hr?

(a)  

31.

The doctor orders 25 mg of a medication. On hand: 100 mg/4 mL. How many mL will you administer?

(a)  

32.

The physician orders 60 mg of furosemide IV. The vial contains 20 mg/mL. How many mL will you give?

(a)  

33.

A patient weighs 70 kg. The order is 5 mg/kg/day of amoxicillin divided into 3 doses. How much per dose?

(a)  

34.

An IV of 500 mL NS is to infuse over 3 hours with a drop factor of 20 gtt/mL. Find the drip rate.

(a)  

35.

What to monitor before giving Diuretics?

a)

BLOOD PRESSURE

b)

HEART RATE

c)

RESPIRATORY RATE

d)

BODY TEMPERATURE

36.

What to monitor before giving Beta blockers?

a)

HEART RATE

b)

BLOOD SUGAR

c)

BODY TEMPERATURE

d)

RESPIRATORY RATE

37.

Salbutamol is given to promote?

a)

BRONCHODILATION

b)

VASOCONSTRICTION

c)

BRADYCARDIA

d)

DIURESIS

38.

Provide the meaning of DAT

a)

DIET AS TOLERATED

b)

DAILY ACTIVITY TIME

c)

DOSE ADJUSTMENT THERAPY

d)

DIAGNOSTIC ASSESSMENT TEST

39.

Best time to administer Diuretics?

a)

Morning

b)

Lunch

c)

Dinner

40.

What important electrolyte imbalance to monitor after giving a Spironolactone?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Hypomagnesemia

41.

What important electrolyte imbalance to monitor after giving a Furosemide?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Hypomagnesemia

42.

What is vaginal carcinoma?

a)

An infection in the vagina

b)

A cancer that starts in the tissues of the vagina

c)

A cyst filled with fluid

d)

A type of sexually transmitted disease

43.

Which virus increases the risk of developing vaginal cancer?

a)

HIV

b)

HPV (Human Papillomavirus)

c)

Influenza virus

d)

Hepatitis B virus

44.

What is a common sign or symptom of vaginal carcinoma?

a)

Unusual vaginal bleeding or discharge

b)

Chest pain

c)

Headache

d)

Hair loss

45.

A Medical procedure to remove ascites from the peritoneal cavity?

a)

Thoracentesis

b)

Paracentesis

46.

Medical procedure to remove excess fluid from the pleural cavity?

a)

Thoracentesis

b)

Paracentesis

47.

What does the letter T in the TNM staging system stand for?

a)

Tumor size or extent

b)

Type of cancer

c)

Tissue affected

d)

Treatment plan

48.

What does N in the TNM system represent?

a)

Lymph Node involvement

b)

Number of tumors

c)

New growth

d)

Necrosis

49.

In the TNM system, what does M indicate?

a)

Mutation

b)

Metastasis

c)

Malignant cells

d)

Myocardial spread

50.

A patient's cancer is staged as T2 N1 M0. What does this mean?

a)

The tumor is very large and has spread to distant organs.

b)

The tumor is moderate in size, has spread to nearby lymph nodes, but not to distant sites.

c)

The tumor is small and has not spread anywhere.

d)

The cancer is in remission.