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10 Bio Quizziz

Total questions: 193

Worksheet time: 2hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Nucleotides

c)

Fatty acids

d)

Polysaccharides

2.

What are the 4 nitrogen bases?

a)

adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine

b)

adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine

c)

adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol

d)

adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose

3.

What are the three components of a nucleotide?

a)

sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base

b)

sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base

c)

sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base

d)

sugar, phosphate, protein

4.

If a DNA molecule is 18% Guanine which of the following is correct

a)

18% cytosine, 32% adenine, 32% thymine

b)

32% cytosine, 18% adenine, 32% thymine

c)

18% cytosine, 64% adenine, 64% thymine

d)

32% cytosine, 32% adenine, 18% thymine

5.

Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?

a)

double helix

b)

contains ribose

c)

made of amino acids

d)

contains Uracil

6.

Why is DNA important?

a)

it is very small and very complicated

b)

it's in everything

c)

it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things

d)

because we eat it every day for energy

7.

What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?

a)

the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases

b)

the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases

c)

the colour of the nitrogen bases

d)

the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases

8.

Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?

a)

polar bonds

b)

ionic bonds

c)

covalent bonds

d)

hydrogen bonds

9.

A long chain of amino acids is a/an

a)

protein

b)

nucleic acid

c)

tRNA

d)

mRNA

10.

The sugar in DNA is ?

a)

sucrose

b)

glucose

c)

deoxyribose

d)

ribose

11.

The building block of nucleic acids are nucleotides.  Nucleotides are composed of a sugar, a phosphate group, and a _________________ base.

a)

oxygen

b)

hydrogen

c)

nitrogen

d)

carbon

12.

What does DNA stand for?

a)

Deoxyribonucleic acid

b)

Denitrogenous acid

c)

Deribonucleic acid

d)

Diribonucleic acid

13.

In eukaryotes, which organelle is DNA usually found in?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

vacuole

c)

ribosome

d)

nucleus

14.

In prokaryotes, which organelle is DNA usually found in?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

vacuole

c)

chloroplast

d)

nucleus

15.

change in the DNA sequence

a)

protein

b)

error

c)

mutation

d)

mutagen

16.

one nucleotide is preplacced with a different nucleotide

a)

addition

b)

substitution(point)

c)

deletion

d)

inversion

17.

when one or more nucleotides are deleted

a)

substitution

b)

addition

c)

remake

d)

deletion

18.

when one or more nucleotides are inserted

a)

addition

b)

deletion

c)

insertion

d)

remake

19.

when a portion of the DNA is shifted in one direction due to a deleition or insertion

a)

frameshift

b)

gene

c)

deletion

d)

substitution

20.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
21.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
22.

When a nitrogen base (nucleotide) is removed from a gene, this is called a ________ mutation.

a)

removal

b)

deletion

c)

substitution

d)

insertion

23.

In nitrogen base pairs, C always pairs with...

a)

A

b)

T

c)

G

d)

C

24.

Each rung of the DNA ladder is made of

a)

a pair of nitrogen bases

b)

a single nitrogen base

c)

a pair of carbon bases

d)

a single carbon base

25.

Which of the following best describes how genes influence an organism's traits?

a)

Genes control the production of proteins, which affect the organism's traits.

b)

DNA controls the production of lipids, which determine the organism's traits.

c)

Carbohydrates control the production of genes, which affects the organism's traits.

d)

Genes control the development of sister centrioles, which determine the organism's traits.

26.

Genetic mutations can be...

a)

beneficial, harmful, or neutral

b)

beneficial only

c)

harmful only

d)

neutral only

27.

In nitrogen base pairs, A pairs with...

a)

A

b)

T

c)

G

d)

C

28.

Mutations always have a HUGE effect on our phenotype

a)

True

b)

False

29.

The two kinds of frameshift mutations are:

a)

Deletion and insertion

b)

Substitution and silent

30.

The change in strand 1 to form strand 2 is most similar to what type of mutation?

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

Substitution

d)

Silent

31.

full form of IVF

a)

In nvitro fertilisaton

b)

in vitro fretilisation

c)

In vittro fertilisation

d)

in vtro fertilisation

32.

IVF is a compound sequence of procedures used to help with fertility or avert genetic problems and assist with the conception of a child.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Name the first ever test tube Baby

(a)  

34.

World IVF Day is celebrated on ________

a)

July 25th

b)

June 25th

c)

August 25th

d)

January 25th

35.

Success rates for IVF vary widely depending on age and medical condition. Overall, just over _________ of IVF cycles that are begun result in a live birth.

a)

20%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

85%

36.

'Accidents incidents' which of the options are causing this??

a)

(A) Mix-ups

b)

(B) Preimplantation genetic diagnosis

c)

(C) screening

d)

Only a and c

e)

All of these

37.

Which of the parents could have fertility problems?

a)

It has to be both of them

b)

It could be either of them

c)

It must be the mother

d)

It must be the father

38.

How is a fertilised egg produced?

a)

By putting it into a petri dish

b)

By inserting it into the uterus

c)

By surrounding it with sperm

d)

By joining it with a sperm cell

39.
what is infertility?
a)
not being able to get pregnant
b)
being able to get pregnant
c)
barren land
40.
fertilisation is
a)
spreading fertiliser on your vegetable patch
b)
When a sperm breaks into the egg
c)
When a sperm swims up the uterus
d)
When the lining of the womb is shed
41.

Traits that help an organism survive in a specific environment.

a)

Variation

b)

Adaptation

c)

Behavior

d)

Environment

42.
Where the better adapted organisms survive to pass traits along to offspring.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artifical Selection
43.

What is the advantage of having different shaped beaks?

a)

To be cool and look different from other species.

b)

To be able to eat the specific

food that is available in the environment.

c)

To protect itself against predators.

d)

To protect itself against prey.

44.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
45.
All mutations and adaptations usually lead to what process?
a)
selective breeding
b)
behavioral
c)
natural selection
d)
genetic engineering
46.

A theory that explains how life has changed over time.

a)

natural selection

b)

evolution

47.
Do organisms "decide" to evolve and change?
a)
Yes, they know they need to change to survive 
b)
No, they change because of natural selection
48.

The trees these moths used to live on were white, but have been covered in soot(pollution) from coal factories. Which moth will be more successful in this environment?

a)

Dark moth

b)

Light moth

c)

Both will be equally successful

d)

Neither will be successful

49.

Why is the mouse population changing over time?

a)

The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice

b)

The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better

c)

The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily

d)

The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily

50.
A German Shepard would probably not survive in the wild because...
a)
the dog is mixed.
b)
the dog is a product of artificial selection and not adapted for the wild.
c)
the dog is dumb.
d)
the dog is a product of natural selection and can survive in the wild.
51.

Scientist have created larger and sweeter strawberries for humans to consume (eat). What process was used?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Artificial Selection

52.
If a mouse population changes color from white to black over many generations due to their environment, what selection is taking place?
a)
Natural Selection 
b)
Selective Breeding
c)
Artificial Selection 
d)
Hydrogen and Helium 
53.
Natural Selection = Nature made
Artificial Selection = Man made 
a)
True
b)
False
54.
A change in the inherited characteristics of an organism over time is ________
a)
evolution.
b)
development.
c)
growth.
d)
ancestry.
55.
The most recent ancestral form or species from which two different species evolved is known as ________________________.
a)
a common ancestor.
b)
an embryonic stage.
c)
development.
d)
evolution.
56.
Common ancestry relates to evolution because
a)
evolution only happens when there are common ancestors.
b)
Common ancestors make evolution happen more quickly.
c)
evolution can never take place with common ancestors.
d)
the more two organisms have in common, the more recent is their common ancestor during their evolution.
57.
Which of the following pieces of evolution evidence deals with comparing similar structures in various species?
a)
fossil record
b)
comparing embryology
c)
comparing biochemistry
d)
comparing anatomy
58.
Humans, birds, whales, and lizards all have similar arm bones. What is the reason for this?
a)
The function of these bones is the same in all animals
b)
They live in similar environments
c)
They have a common ancestor
d)
All organisms resemble humans
59.

Does the presence of homologous structures in genetically different animals suggest common ancestry?

a)

Yes

b)

No

60.

What type of evidence are shown in the picture above?

a)

Fossils

b)

Embryology

c)

Homologous Structures

d)

Vestigial Structures

61.

_________________ show clear changes in an organism over time, the environment organisms lived in, the time period the organism lived in, and where the organism lived.

a)

DNA

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Fossils

d)

Homologous structures

62.
The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of these fossils is most likely correct?
a)
Fossil A and C are the same age
b)
Fossil B is older than fossil C
c)
Fossils A is older than fossil B
d)
Fossil D is older than fossil C
63.
A fossil of an extinct dinosaur is found and the anatomy of the fossil shows similarities to that of a bird. What could this mean?
a)
This is purely by chance and isn't significant
b)
The extinct dinosaur and modern bird share a common ancestor
c)
All dinosaurs evolved into birds and that's why there aren't any dinosaurs alive today
d)
Dinosaurs choose to fly, and evolved into birds to escape predation and capture food
64.

Recently, scientists have been able to use ___________to find common proteins and amino acids to determine how closely related species are.

a)

DNA

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Fossils

d)

Homologous structures

65.

What type of evidence is shown in the image above?

a)

Fossils

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Homologous Structures

d)

DNA

66.
According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to: 
a)
Species I
b)
Species II
c)
Species III
d)
Species IV
67.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
68.

Which IS NOT used as evidence for evolution?

a)

Fossils

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Early Development/Embryos

d)

Body Structure/Anatomy

e)

DNA/Proteins

69.

Because whales have a pelvis and femurs, it shows whales are descended from an ancestor that was able to _____________________.

a)

walk

b)

sing

c)

swim

d)

polka

70.

A category of body structures that are formed in similar ways during embryonic development and share similar patterns of bone structure.

a)

Homologous structures

b)

Analogous structures

c)

Vestigial structures

d)

Bone structures

71.

Select all that apply to the image displayed.

a)

Has wings

b)

Has feathers

c)

Has bones

d)

Can fly

e)

An example of analogous structures

72.

A type of structure that is physically present, but does not seem to serve a significant function for an organism.

a)

Homologous structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Vestigial structure

d)

Standard structure

73.

The appendix, tailbone, and wisdom teeth are all examples of what type of structure in humans?

a)

Homologous

b)

Analogous

c)

Vestigial

d)

Modern

74.

A characteristic that a living thing gets from its parents

a)

inherited trait

b)

learned behavior

c)

physical behavior

d)

acquired trait

75.

What is an acquired trait?

a)

a characteristic that a living thing is born with

b)

a characteristic that a living thing gets during its lifetime

c)

physical appearance

d)

heredity

76.

Are acquired physical traits passed down from parents to offspring?

a)

yes

b)

no

77.

earlobe attachment

a)

Inherited trait

b)

Acquired trait

78.

Gold contact lenses

a)

Inherited Traits

b)

Acquired Traits

79.

Eye Color

a)

Inherited trait

b)

Acquired trait

80.

Blood type

a)

Inherited

b)

Acquired

81.
Speaking
a)
inherited
b)
acquired
82.

The passing on of genetic traits from parents to children or offspring.

a)

Nurture

b)

Heredity

c)

Environment

83.

To receive a characteristic or trait genetically form one's parent or grandparent.

a)

Inherit

b)

Nurture

c)

Acquire

84.

Brown eyes and black hair are what kind of traits?

a)

Environment

b)

Heredity

c)

Nurture

85.

What is the same thing as obtain?

a)

Acquire

b)

Characteristic

c)

Environment

86.

If the dominant trait is having freckles (F) and the recessive trait is no freckles (f), which allele combination(s) below would represent a person who has freckles? (select all that apply)

a)

FF

b)

Ff

c)

ff

87.
What is the phenotype of the offspring? (A-Brown hair; a-blond hair) 
a)
50 % Brown Hair and 50% Blond Hair 
b)
25 % Brown Hair and 75% Blond Hair 
c)
75 % Brown Hair and 25% Blond Hair 
d)
0% Brown Hair and 100% Blond Hair 
88.

The combination of genes a person has, represented by letters, is their...

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

c)

Chromosome

d)

Punnett Square

89.

What belongs in the last box?

a)

RR

b)

Rr

c)

rr

d)

ff

90.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
91.

Look at the punnett square shown. What allele pair would replace the "?"

a)

WW

b)

Ww

c)

ww

92.

What belongs in Box 4?

a)

Y

b)

YY

c)

Yy

d)

yy

93.

Look at the punnett square. What is the probability that the offspring would have homozygous alleles for the trait?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

e)

0%

94.
Both parents in this Punnet square
a)
are homozygous dominant
b)
are homozygous recessive
c)
are heterozygous
d)
have blue eyes
95.

What is the probability & phenotype of the offspring? (A-Brown hair; a-blond hair)

a)

50% Brown Hair and 50% Blond Hair

b)

25 % Brown Hair and 75% Blond Hair

c)

75 % Brown Hair and 25% Blond Hair

d)

0% Brown Hair and 100% Blond Hair

96.

Fill in the Yellow Box

a)

Bb

b)

BB

c)

bb

97.

Which of the following allele pairs is heterozygous?

a)

RR

b)

Qq

c)

ss

98.
What allele combination should go in the missing box?
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
none of these
99.
B = brown fur  b = white fur
In the punnett square, what is the probability for white fur? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
100.
A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a White flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance.  What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
101.

In a pedigree, which shape represents a male?

a)

circle

b)

square

102.

On a pedigree, this symbol represents a ---

a)

not affected female.

b)

not affected male.

c)

affected male.

d)

affected female.

103.

On a pedigree, this symbol represents a ----

a)

not affected male.

b)

not affected female.

c)

affected male.

d)

affected female.

104.

How many individuals are there in the 3rd generation?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

105.

How are individuals III-2 and II-4 related?

a)

Brother and sister

b)

Dad and daughter

c)

Uncle and niece

d)

Grandfather and granddaughter

106.

In a pedigree, a person AFFECTED by a trait is

a)

shaded

b)

unshaded

107.

A coupling line is represented by a ______

a)

horizontal line

b)

vertical line

c)

square

d)

circle

108.

A siblings are represented by a _______.

a)

horizontal line

b)

vertical line

c)

square

d)

circle

109.

Lines of descendants are represented by ____.

a)

horizontal lines

b)

vertical lines

c)

squares

d)

circles

110.

A pedigree shows patterns of inherited traits from one generation to the next.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

When BOTH parents have a specific variation of a trait, the offspring will always show the same variation of the trait.

a)

True

b)

False

112.

An offspring can show a trait variation even if neither parent shows it.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

According to the data in Activity 2.1, the non- tongue rolling variation is more common than the tongue rolling variation.

a)

True

b)

False

114.

How many generations were shown in each case study pedigree in Activity 2.1?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

115.

How many alleles for a trait did we receive from our parents?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

116.

What are the "X" shaped objects in the drawing?

a)

PMATs

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Telophase

117.

During what phase of Mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the Middle

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Telophase

d)

Anaphase

118.

In which phase of Mitosis do the Chromosomes pull Apart

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

119.

What is the purpose of Mitosis?

a)

Growth of an organism and Repair of damaged tissue

b)

To help the body get rid of extra cells

c)

To increase the amount of classwork you have to do

d)

To get rid of the nucleus

120.
Before cells can divide, what must be copied?
a)
mitochondria
b)
cytoplasm
c)
DNA
d)
Cell Wall
121.

Which of these are part of the CELL CYCLE?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Interphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Metaphase

e)

Cytokinesis

122.

What is the correct order of the CELL CYCLE?

a)

Interphase, Cytokinesis, Mitosis

b)

Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis

c)

Cytokinesis, Mitosis, Interphase

d)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis

123.

Which of these are part of Mitosis?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Cytokines

124.
Identify the stage of mitosis. 
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
anaphase
d)

cytokinesis

125.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

126.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

127.

Nuclear membrane breaks down, spindle fibers form describes:

a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Telophase

128.

In which phase does a cell spend most of its life?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

129.

The following cell underwent mitosis, which of the following indicates the end product?

a)
b)
c)
d)
130.

What acronym can you use to remeber the order of ALL OF THE PHASES of the Cell Cycle/Mitosis?

(a)  

131.

What happens when there is uncontrolled cell growth/replication?

4 lines
132.

How many chromosomes does a human have?

a)

10

b)

23

c)

46

d)

92

133.

the results of mitosis is

a)

2 identical daughter cells

b)

2 different daughter cells

c)

4 identical daughter cells

d)

4 different daughter cells

134.

The result of meiosis is

a)

2 identical daughter cells

b)

2 different daughter cells

c)

4 identical daughter cells

d)

4 different daughter cells

135.

the 4 phases of mitosis in order are

a)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

b)

telophase, metphase, metaphase, anaphase

c)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

d)

telophase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase

136.

The process that produces sex cells is called

a)

photosynthesis

b)

meiosis

c)

mitosis

d)

respiration

137.

What is the life cycle of the cell called

a)

the cell cycle

b)

photosynthesis

c)

mitosis

d)

chromatid

138.

The process by which the number of chromosomes is reduced by half to form sperm and eggs is called

a)

mitosis

b)

cells

c)

meiosis

d)

photosynthesis

139.

The male and female sex cells are also called

a)

body cells

b)

skin cells

c)

somatic cells

d)

gametes

140.

The 3 stages of the cell cycle are

a)

mitosis, meiosis, cytokinesis

b)

interphase, mitosis, cytokinesis

c)

interphase, meiosis, cytokinesis

d)

prophase, mitosis, cytokinesis

141.

The 2 halves of a chromosome are

a)

chromosomes

b)

brother chromatids

c)

sister chromatids

d)

chromatids

142.

what is the correct order of the phases of mitosis?

a)

A, C, B, F ,E, D

b)

E, F, C, D, B, A

c)

A, B, C,D, E, F

d)

A, F, C, E, B, D

143.

how many chromosomes do we get from each parent?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

92

d)

20

144.

Chromosomes move to the middle of the spindle during what phase?

a)

anaphase

b)

telophase

c)

metaphase

d)

prophase

145.

What is a gene?

a)

segments of code that appear on chromosomes

b)

segments of code that appear on pistils

c)

segments of code that are found in the brain

d)

segments of code that are found in the heart

146.

How many chromosomes does every cell in the body have? (except for sex cells)

a)

23

b)

46

c)

48

d)

50

147.

Fill in the blank.

All sexually-reproducing organisms form sex cells, which have ______the number of chromosomes that body cells have. 

a)

the same

b)

half

c)

less

d)

more

148.

When are chromosomes made?

a)

at the end of the cell cycle

b)

in the middle of the cell cycle

c)

at the beginning of the cell cycle

d)

throughout the cell cycle

149.

When does a chromosome get its X shape?

a)

during the cell cycle

b)

Never, it is Y shaped

c)

during photosynthesis

d)

during cellular respiration

150.

Approximately how many genes are found on 46 chromosomes?

a)

between 9-29

b)

between 1 miliion - 2 milliom

c)

between 20,000 - 25,000

d)

between 50 - 100

151.

During fertilization, how many chromosomes do you get from your father?

a)

20

b)

23

c)

46

d)

100

152.

True or False.

Mitosis forms new body cells.

a)

True

b)

False

153.

True or False.

Meiosis forms sex cells.

a)

False

b)

True

154.

Which process results in the formation of four daughter cells?

a)

Meiosis

b)

Mitosis

155.

a photograph or picture of chromosomes grouped in ordered pairs is a ______________

a)

pedigree

b)

Punnett Square

c)

Venn Diagram

d)

Karyotype

156.
Which sex chromosomes would indicate a typical human male?
a)
XX
b)
X
c)
XY
d)
XXY
157.

A normal human zygote should have _____ chromosomes inside.

a)

46

b)

23

c)

92

d)

64

158.

You are viewing a patients karyotype. You see 23 chromosomes total. There are no homologous chromosomes. Which type of cell are you viewing?

a)

Egg cell

b)

Zygote

c)

Skin cell

d)

White blood cell

159.
What is the gender of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?
a)
Male
b)
Female
160.
The results of the karyotype indicate that an individual has 3 chromosome #21. Which of the following genetic disorders do they have?
a)
Edwards Syndrome
b)
Patau's Syndrome
c)
Down's Syndrome
d)
Klinefelter's Syndrome
161.

Based on the karyotype, what is the sex of this baby?

a)

Male

b)

Female

162.
Is this Karyotype human?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
Impossible to Determine
163.
Which structure is labeled as A in the diagram?
a)
Centromere
b)
Chromosome
c)
Sister chromatids
164.
Which structure is labeled as B in the diagram?
a)
Centromere
b)
Chromosome
c)
Sister chromatids
165.
Which structure is labeled as C in the diagram?
a)
Centromere
b)
Chromosome
c)
Sister chromatids
166.
A pair of identical chromosomes shown in a karyotype, one inherited from mom, and one inherited from dad are called
a)
sister chromotids
b)
centromeres
c)
homologous chromosomes
d)
autosomes
167.
Which would be considered a somatic cell?
a)
Sperm cell
b)
Egg Cell
c)
Skin Cell
d)
All of these
168.
What is the haploid number for this Karyotype?
a)
26
b)
27
c)
52
d)
54
169.
Which of the following would be considered a Gamete cell?
a)
Egg Cell
b)
Sperm Cell
c)
Both of these
d)
None of these
170.

If the Diploid number for carrots is 18, the haploid number is

a)

18

b)

9

c)

27

d)

36

171.
The haploid number of human chromosomes is
a)
11
b)
12
c)
23
d)
46
172.
The union of egg and sperm to form a new offspring is
a)
zygote
b)
fertilization
c)
homologous pairing
d)
meiosis
173.

What is the diploid number of chromosomes for a bat if the sperm cell has 22 chromosomes?

a)

22

b)

11

c)

44

d)

21

174.

How many pairs of autosomes are shown?

a)

22

b)

23

c)

44

d)

46

175.

How many sex chromosomes are shown?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

23

d)

44

176.

Does the karyotype show a male or female?

a)

Male

b)

Female

177.

Does the following karyotype show a nerve cell or a sperm cell? Why?

a)

Nerve cell- the karyotype shows a diploid cell

b)

Nerve cell- the karyotype shows a haploid cell

c)

Sperm cell- the karyotype shows a diploid cell

d)

Sperm cell- the karyotype shows a haploid cell

178.

Does the following karyotype show a nerve cell or a sperm cell? Why?

a)

Nerve cell- the karyotype shows a diploid cell

b)

Nerve cell- the karyotype shows a haploid cell

c)

Sperm cell- the karyotype shows a diploid cell

d)

Sperm cell- the karyotype shows a haploid cell

179.

What genetic disorder is show?

a)

Klinefelter's

b)

Down's

c)

Edward's

d)

Turner's

180.

What genetic disorder is shown?

a)

Klinefelter's

b)

Edward's

c)

Turner's

d)

Patau

181.

What genetic disorder is shown?

a)

Down's

b)

Patau

c)

Edward's

d)

Turner's

182.

What genetic disorder is shown?

a)

Klinefelter's

b)

Turner's

c)

Edward's

d)

Down's

183.

What genetic disorder is shown?

a)

Klinefelter's

b)

Down's

c)

Patau

d)

Turner's

184.

What is the diploid number of chromosomes for this organism?

a)

20

b)

21

c)

40

d)

42

185.

What is the haploid number of chromosomes for this organism?

a)

20

b)

21

c)

40

d)

42

186.

How many chromosomes would be in a muscle cell of this organism?

a)

20

b)

21

c)

40

d)

42

187.

How many chromosomes would be in a sperm cell of this organism?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

27

d)

54

188.

All human have _________ chromosomes

a)

23

b)

46

c)

Diploid

d)

Haploid

189.

What is the pair of sex chromosomes in Males?

a)

Y

b)

X

c)

XY

d)

XX

190.

What is the pair of sex chromosomes in females?

a)

Y

b)

X

c)

XY

d)

XX

191.

A 2n cell of a bat has 44 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will you find in one of his gametes

a)

23

b)

22

c)

44

d)

88

192.

Squirrels have 40 chromosomes in its diploid cells. How many chromosomes will you find in their egg cells

a)

40

b)

23

c)

20

d)

Not enough information to answer the question

193.

A haploid cell from a male camel has 35 chromosomes. What type of cell is this? Choose all that apply

a)

Sperm

b)

Egg

c)

Heart Cell

d)

Muscle Cell

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