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Final Exam Review

Total questions: 196

Worksheet time: 7hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If the correlation coefficient for a set of data is -0.8, what kind of correlation is present?

a)

strong negative

b)

weak negative

c)

weak positive

d)

strong positive

2.

True or False: If two variables are strongly correlated, it means that a change in one variable directly causes the other to change as well (causation).

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Distance from the equator is indicated with

a)

latitude

b)

longitude

4.

Longitude lines are parallel on a sphere.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Longleaf is located at 35 degrees N, 78 degrees W. Which of these is its longitude?

a)

35 degrees N

b)

78 degrees W

c)

both

d)

neither

6.

What kind of map is this?

a)

cartogram

b)

topographic

c)

choropleth

d)

dot density

7.

What kind of map is this?

a)

cartogram

b)

topographic

c)

choropleth

d)

dot density

8.

What kind of map is this?

a)

cartogram

b)

topographic

c)

choropleth

d)

dot density

9.

What kind of map is this?

a)

cartogram

b)

topographic

c)

choropleth

d)

dot density

10.

When did the Big Bang occur?

a)

38 billion years ago

b)

13.8 billion years ago

c)

138 million years ago

d)

138 trillion years ago

11.

Why couldn't elementary particles stick together at the very beginning of the universe?

a)

too cold

b)

too far away from each other

c)

too slow moving

d)

too hot

12.

The most common element in the universe is

a)

carbon

b)

hydrogen

c)

oxygen

d)

helium

13.

The second-most-common element in the universe is

a)

carbon

b)

hydrogen

c)

oxygen

d)

helium

14.

All stars are born from

a)

barycenters

b)

nebulas

c)

coronal mass ejections

d)

black holes

15.

What shape is our galaxy?

a)

elliptical

b)

irregular

c)

parabolic

d)

spiral

16.

Our Sun is currently a what?

a)

neutron star

b)

white dwarf

c)

main-sequence star

d)

red giant

17.

Right now, our Sun is primarily made of

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon

c)

hydrogen

d)

helium

18.

What two forces are balanced in a star's middle age?

a)

fusion, EM radiation

b)

combustion, gravity

c)

combustion, EM radiation

d)

fusion, gravity

19.

An ionized gas with electrons and protons in roughly equal proportions is called what?

a)

hygroscopic

b)

plasma

c)

umbra

d)

stratus

20.

Which process occurs in the core of main-sequence stars?

a)

fusion

b)

fission

21.

In a young star, what element is being created from fusion?

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon

c)

helium

d)

iron

22.

A star's core contracts multiple times during its life.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

How long does it take for light to travel from the CORE of the Sun to the surface of the Sun?

a)

seconds

b)

minutes

c)

days

d)

years

24.

How long does it take light to travel from the SURFACE of the Sun to the surface of the Earth?

a)

seconds

b)

minutes

c)

days

d)

years

25.

Any time an electric charge moves from one place to another, what is created?

a)

barycenter

b)

precession

c)

tidal forces

d)

magnetic field

26.

Light exhibits properties of both a particle and a wave.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

The smallest possible quantity of energy that can be transported is called a/an

a)

photon

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

proton

28.

Photons have mass.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

The higher the frequency of a wave, the

a)

higher the energy

b)

lower the energy

c)

shorter the wavelength

d)

longer the wavelength

30.

What type of EM radiation has the shortest wavelength?

a)

microwaves

b)

infrared

c)

visible light

d)

gamma rays

31.

What type of EM radiation has the longest wavelength?

a)

radio waves

b)

visible light

c)

ultraviolet

d)

infrared

32.

Which types of EM radiation are emitted by the Sun? Choose all that apply.

a)

radio waves

b)

infrared

c)

microwaves

d)

gamma rays

e)

X-rays

33.

Where are the Earth's magnetic fields strongest?

a)

the Equator

b)

the Prime Meridian

c)

evenly strong everywhere

d)

the poles

34.

In thousands of years, the north star will be Vega instead of Polaris. Why is this?

a)

barycenter

b)

precession

c)

change in axis tilt

d)

change in orbit shape

35.

Which of the following causes us to experience seasons?

a)

Precession

b)

Tilt of Earth's axis

c)

Barycenter

d)

Solstices

36.

There are 4 equinoxes every year.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

The longest day of the year is the

a)

vernal equinox

b)

summer solstice

c)

autumnal equinox

d)

winter solstice

38.

What is the shape of the pathway that planets orbit the Sun in?

a)

quadratic

b)

elliptical

c)

parabolic

d)

eccentric

39.

Orbital periods are proportional to the planet's distance from the Sun.

a)

Law of Equal Areas

b)

Law of Harmonies

c)

Law of Ellipses

40.

The amount of time it takes for a planet to complete a single cycle around the Sun is called

a)

orbital period

b)

foci

c)

ellipse

d)

eccentricity

41.

When one celestial body orbits another, they are actually both orbiting around the middle point of their combined mass, which is called the

a)

precession

b)

equinox

c)

barycenter

d)

tidal force

42.

The point in a planet's orbit closest to the Sun is called aphelion.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

At what point in its orbit is a planet moving the fastest?

a)

aphelion

b)

perihelion

44.

After the new moon, which of the following moon phases will occur first?

a)

waning gibbous

b)

waning crescent

c)

first quarter

d)

waxing gibbous

45.

The Earth comes directly between the Moon and the Sun during a

a)

lunar eclipse

b)

solar eclipse

c)

new moon

d)

full moon

46.

What color does the moon appear to be when there's a total lunar eclipse?

a)

blue

b)

green

c)

yellow

d)

red

47.

In order to see a total eclipse, where must you be located?

a)

Prime Meridian

b)

Equator

c)

umbra

d)

penumbra

48.

How many HIGH tides are there in any given 24 hour period?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

49.

Tides occur at the same times in a given place every day.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

What percentage of the Earth's atmosphere is nitrogen?

a)

1%

b)

5%

c)

21%

d)

78%

51.

What percentage of the Earth's atmosphere is oxygen?

a)

1%

b)

5%

c)

21%

d)

78%

52.

What layer of the atmosphere do we occupy?

a)

thermosphere

b)

mesosphere

c)

exosphere

d)

troposphere

53.

Which of the following types of EM radiation do not make it through the Earth's atmosphere? Choose all that apply.

a)

radio waves

b)

visible light

c)

gamma rays

d)

X-rays

54.

When wind blows perpendicular to a stationary front, what TWO things might happen to the front?

a)

it breaks up

b)

it becomes a cold or a warm front

c)

it stays in place

d)

it becomes an occluded front

55.

What country in the world has the most frequent and intense tornadoes? (overall, not by area)

a)

Australia

b)

Eqypt

c)

United States

d)

New Zealand

56.

In order for water vapor to condense into liquid, what is necessary?

a)

downdraft

b)

stratus clouds

c)

condensation nuclei

d)

warm front

57.

Which types of clouds are at the highest altitudes?

a)

stratus

b)

cirrus

c)

cumulus

58.

Thunderstorms dissipate from the top downwards. (Meaning, the top disappears first.)

a)

True

b)

False

59.

When water soaks into the most shallow layer of soil

a)

seepage

b)

infiltration

c)

percolation

d)

runoff

60.

What is the highest number on the pH scale?

a)

5

b)

7

c)

14

d)

20

61.

What is the pH of acid rain?

a)

3

b)

4.2-4.4

c)

5.6

d)

7

62.

What TWO gases are the primary causes of acid rain?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

sulfur dioxide

c)

calcium oxides

d)

nitrogen oxides

63.

The largest source of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides is . . .

a)

using fossil fuels

b)

extracting metal from ores

c)

volcanoes

d)

landfills

64.

What toxic metal does acid rain leach from the clay in soils?

a)

aluminum

b)

lead

c)

mercury

d)

cadmium

65.

Emissions of the gases that cause acid rain have decreased since the Clean Air Act was passed in 1990.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

The shape of a coastline can influence the tides in that area.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

When heat is transferred via warm matter rising and cold matter sinking in a continuous cycle, this is called

a)

conduction

b)

insolation

c)

convection

d)

radiation

68.

If an air mass is sinking, it must be

a)

cold and less dense

b)

cold and more dense

c)

warm and more dense

d)

warm and less dense

69.

Air masses are different in many ways. Which of these is NOT different?

a)

moisture contents

b)

ratio of oxygen/nitrogen

c)

density

d)

temperature

70.

If I blew up a balloon in a 72°F classroom and then took it outside where it is 100°F, what would happen to the volume of air in the balloon?

a)

It would shrink.

b)

It wouldn't change size.

c)

It would expand.

71.

A front is

a)

where warm air is cooling at earth's surface

b)

a line where hot and cold air are separating

c)

a line where two different air masses meet

d)

where cold air is rising and forming rain clouds

72.
Which type of front is pictured?
a)
Cold front
b)
Warm front
c)
Occluded front
d)
Stationary front
73.

Winds are caused by differences in

a)

precipitation

b)

humidity

c)

air pressure

d)

turbulance

74.

What is this called?

a)

barometer

b)

thermometer

c)

anemometer

d)

hygrometer

75.

What is a barometer used to measure?

a)

Wind Direction

b)

Temperature

c)

Wind Speed

d)

Air Pressure

76.

High pressure areas tend to have what kind of weather? Select two answers.

a)

rain

b)

overcast

c)

clear skies

d)

windy

e)

no wind

77.

Low pressure areas TEND to have what kind of weather? Select two answers.

a)

rain

b)

overcast

c)

clear skies

d)

windy

e)

no wind

78.

Cyclonic winds in the Northern Hemisphere blow

a)

clockwise

b)

counterclockwise

c)

north to south

d)

west to east

79.

Which of the following symbols represents an occluded front?

a)
b)
c)
d)
80.

Warm fronts TEND to bring what kind of precipitation?

a)

prolonged, light rain

b)

short bursts of hard rain

81.

What would be the effect on the particles in the animation if more heat is supplied to the system?

a)

They would slow down.

b)

They would stop moving completely.

c)

They would speed up.

d)

There would be no effect.

82.
How does heat flow?
a)
Always from cold to warm
b)
Always from warm to cold
c)
Both warm to cold & cold to warm
d)
It depends on the temperature
83.

Which of the following best explains why the sand at the beach is hotter than the water?

a)

Sand has a higher specific heat than water.

b)

Sand has a lower specific heat than water.

c)

There is more water than sand at the beach.

d)

There is more sand than water at the beach.

84.

The amount of energy required to raise the temperature 1ºC for every gram is called____?

a)

Thermal Energy

b)

Specific Heat

c)

Temperature

d)

Vibration

85.

Water has a relatively _____ specific heat.

a)

high

b)

medium

c)

low

d)

nonexistent

86.
Warm ocean currents generally come from
a)

the North Pole

b)

the South Pole

c)

the Equator

d)

upwelling

87.

Decreasing water temperature causes the density of the water to ______.

a)

increase

b)

stay the same

c)

decrease

88.

Increasing water salinity causes the density of the water to ______.

a)

increase

b)

stay the same

c)

decrease

89.
If the Earth did not rotate on its axis, there would be no
a)

Great Ocean Conveyor Belt

b)
Coriolis effect
c)

upwelling

d)
Convection
90.
What happens to a current when it comes in contact with a continent or landmass?
a)

It continues over the continent.

b)

It stops.

c)

It changes direction.

d)

It is absorbed by the land.

91.

Nutrients are brought to the surface for phytoplankton to use at _______.

a)

gyres

b)

eddies

c)

upwellings

d)

the equator

92.

________ and _______ affect the ocean's density and cause the Great Ocean Conveyor Belt to travel.

a)

gravity and the Coriolis Effect

b)

temperature and salinity

c)

wind and climate

d)

temperature and the Coriolis Effect

93.

The more scientific name of the Great Ocean Conveyor Belt is _____.

a)

halinethermal circulation

b)

thermohaline circulation

c)

thermodensity circulation

d)

upwelling

94.

What percentage of the Earth's water is freshwater?

a)

1%

b)

2.5%

c)

12%

d)

25%

95.

Most of the Earth's freshwater can be found . . .

a)

in lakes and rivers

b)

in groundwater

c)

in glaciers and permanent snow cover

96.

A kitchen sponge is . . .

a)

porous, but not permeable

b)

both porous and permeable

c)

not porous, but permeable

97.

Clay is . . .

a)

porous, but not very permeable

b)

both porous and permeable

c)

not very porous, but very permeable

98.

Freezing ocean water would cause the remaining liquid water's salinity to . . .

a)

increase

b)

stay the same

c)

decrease

99.

Tributaries tend to be found in what river zone?

a)

Source zone

b)

Transition Zone

c)

Floodplain Zone

100.

You are standing in the transition zone of a river. If you walk towards the headwaters, you are headed

a)

upstream

b)

downstream

101.

Pesticides that wind up in bodies of water fall under what category of pollution?

a)

toxic

b)

bacterial

c)

sediment

d)

nutrient

102.

If excess fertilizer runs off from agricultural fields into a river, what type of pollution would that cause?

a)

toxic

b)

bacterial

c)

sediment

d)

nutrient

103.

During an El Nino, trade winds are typically...

a)

about average

b)

stronger

c)

weaker

104.

What are the best approaches for handling stormwater? (select TWO)

a)

slow it down

b)

speed it up

c)

absorb/capture it

d)

add more water to it

105.

Stormwater is treated at wastewater treatment plants before it reaches bodies of water.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

What are the benefits of managing stormwater appropriately? (choose TWO answers)

a)

minimizes pollutants

b)

slows down climate change

c)

recharges groundwater

d)

produces electricity

107.

What does "impervious" mean?

a)

penetrable

b)

open

c)

exposed

d)

impermeable

108.

Saltwater intrusion occurs when . . . (pick TWO)

a)

salt water comes up onto low elevation land

b)

salt water makes its way into precipitation

c)

salt water seeps into fresh water aquifers

d)

salt water gets into your tap water

109.

Saltwater intrusion is occurring faster now than it has in past decades.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

What is land subsidence?

a)

When the land erodes dramatically because of water's movement.

b)

When the ground sinks because of groundwater depletion.

c)

When an area is being irrigated by groundwater.

d)

When an area is being subjected to saltwater intrusion.

111.

Which of the following industries increases arsenic in groundwater?

a)

logging (harvesting timber)

b)

fisheries

c)

textiles (fabric and clothing production)

d)

mining

112.

Water moving from wastewater pretreatment to primary treatment would be most appropriately referred to as . . .

a)

sewage

b)

aerated

c)

infrastructure

d)

effluent

113.

Wastewater treatment plants fall under the scope of _____ engineering.

a)

aerospace

b)

civil

c)

agricultural

114.

What does EPA stand for?

a)

Ecosystem Pollution Administration

b)

Eutrophication Prevention Administration

c)

Environmental Protection Agency

d)

Enhanced Pollution Alerts

115.

Which of the following is typically measured for water quality testing?

a)

temperature

b)

UV light

c)

pressure

116.

The benefits of dams include . . .

a)

cleaner water

b)

increased fish populations

c)

flood management

d)

increased D.O.

117.

ENSO stands for . . .

a)

Extreme Nautical Surface Oscillations

b)

El Niño Southern Oscillation Cycle

c)

Equatorial Nuisance Sea Observations

d)

El Niño Surface Observations

118.

The ENSO cycle is irregular, but it tends to reset every ________ years.

a)

10-17

b)

100-150

c)

3-12

d)

2-7

119.

An El Niño or La Niña event usually lasts for _________ months.

a)

1-2

b)

3-7

c)

9-12

d)

24-36

120.

El Niño MOST DIRECTLY effects what?

a)

precipitation

b)

sea surface temperature

c)

evaporation

d)

cloud formation

121.

Wetlands are categorized based on . . . (choose TWO answers)

a)

type of vegetation

b)

latitude

c)

location relative to coast

d)

rate of aquifer recharge

122.

A inland wetland with acidic, sandy soil that is nutrient-deficient and poorly-drained is called a . . .

a)

marsh

b)

swamp

c)

estuary

d)

pocosin

123.

The water in estuaries is best described as . . .

a)

fresh

b)

brackish

c)

saline

124.

When one lithospheric plate moves down into the asthenosphere under another plate at a convergent boundary, this is called . . .

a)

convection

b)

mantle

c)

strike-slip

d)

subduction

125.

What clue did humans have to indicate seafloor spreading was happening?

a)

different patterns of animal and plant life on the seafloor

b)

magnetic stripes in ocean rocks

c)

unique type of crust formed in oceans only

d)

heat signatures in ocean rock

126.

The Earth's magnetic field sometimes reverses itself

(north turns into south and south turns into north).

a)

True

b)

False

127.

When was the theory of plate tectonics developed?

a)

1760s

b)

1790s

c)

1850s

d)

1960s

128.

A single tectonic plate can have multiple types of boundaries (convergent, divergent, transform) along its borders.

a)

True

b)

False

129.

What is the MAIN force that moves lithospheric plates?

a)

ridge push

b)

slab pull

c)

mantle convection

d)

gravity

130.

Tectonic plates move at an average of a few ____ a year.

a)

millimeters (mm)

b)

centimeters (cm)

c)

meters (m)

d)

kilometers (km)

131.

Which type of plate boundary is NOT prone to producing volcanoes?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

132.

What is molten rock called when it is BELOW the Earth's surface?

a)

lava

b)

magma

c)

lahar

133.

High viscosity ("gummy") lava tends to create

a)

steep slopes

b)

gradual, gentle slopes

134.

Volcanic ash creates very fertile soil.

a)

True

b)

False

135.

Sandstone is a type of ________ rock.

a)

extrusive igneous

b)

intrusive igneous

c)

sedimentary

d)

metamorphic

136.

What are the most common two elements that make up the Earth's crust?

a)

Iron and Silicon

b)

Oxygen and Silicon

c)

Iron and Magnesium

d)

Oxygen and Aluminum

137.

Marble is a type of _________ rock.

a)

extrusive igneous

b)

intrusive igneous

c)

sedimentary

d)

metamorphic

138.

Granite is a type of ________ rock.

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

139.

What is the difference between extrusive and intrusive igneous rocks?

a)

Extrusive rocks have points sticking out, intrusive rocks are smooth.

b)

Extrusive rocks are mainly one type of mineral with a 2nd type on the surface, intrusive have different minerals all mixed together.

c)

Extrusive rocks can be found anywhere on the Earth's surface, intrusive rocks can only be found inside volcanoes.

d)

Extrusive rocks cool above the Earth's surface, intrusive rocks cool beneath the Earth's surface.

140.

What are the FIVE defining characteristics of a mineral?

4 lines
141.

What type of rock can be formed from melting and crystallization?

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

142.

What type of rock can be formed from erosion and weathering followed by compaction and cementation?

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

143.

What type of rock can be formed from heat and pressure?

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

144.

This rock is . . .

a)

transparent

b)

translucent

c)

opaque

145.

What kind of luster does this rock have?

a)

dull/earthy

b)

greasy, waxy, or pearly

c)

vitreous

d)

metallic

146.

What are the two categories of seismic waves?

a)

P waves and S waves

b)

P waves and surface waves

c)

S waves and surface waves

d)

body waves and surface waves

147.

What are the two types of seismic body waves?

a)

P waves and S waves

b)

P waves and Surface waves

c)

S waves and Surface waves

d)

S waves and R waves

148.

Which type of seismic wave is pictured?

a)

P wave

b)

S wave

c)

Surface wave

149.

Which type of seismic waves are felt FIRST?

a)

P waves

b)

S waves

c)

Surface waves

150.

What is the name of the scale currently used to measure earthquake size?

a)

RIchter Scale

b)

Earthquake Logarithmic Scale

c)

eQ Scale

d)

Moment Magnitude Scale

151.

A magnitude 8 earthquake is ten times larger than a magnitude 7 earthquake.

a)

True

b)

False

152.

All faults are visible on the Earth's surface.

a)

True

b)

False

153.

All earthquakes occur along plate boundaries.

a)

True

b)

False

154.

Which type of fault is often found along transform plate boundaries?

a)

Normal fault

b)

Reverse fault

c)

Strike-slip fault

155.

Which type of fault is often found along divergent plate boundaries?

a)

Normal fault

b)

Reverse fault

c)

Strike-slip fault

156.

Which type of fault is pictured?

a)

Normal fault

b)

Thrust fault

c)

Lateral fault

157.

Most earthquakes cause a lot of damage.

a)

True

b)

False

158.

The location within the lithosphere where a quake originates is called the

a)

epicenter

b)

focus

159.

Landslides are particularly common in what TWO areas?

a)

coasts

b)

tundra

c)

grasslands

d)

mountains

160.

Some types of rock can be dissolved by water.

a)

True

b)

False

161.

All sinkholes are the result of human activity.

a)

True

b)

False

162.

Locations with either of these two types of rock may be more susceptible to sinkholes.

a)

chalk and marble

b)

granite and limestone

c)

chalk and limestone

d)

marble and granite

163.

What is the difference between erosion and weathering?

a)

Particles are not transported in erosion.

b)

Particles are not transported in weathering.

c)

Erosion takes place very quickly, weathering happens gradually.

d)

Weathering takes place very quickly, erosion happens gradually.

164.

Glaciers cause what kind of weathering?

a)

biological

b)

mechanical

c)

chemical

165.

Wind causes what kind of weathering?

a)

biological

b)

mechanical

c)

chemical

166.

Which of the following is an example of potential parent material? Select all that apply.

a)

a glacier

b)

bedrock

c)

a decaying forest

d)

a river

167.

What does the O in CLORPT stand for?

a)

Oil

b)

Oceans

c)

Organisms

d)

Opacity

168.

Soil can vary significantly, but generally speaking, what percentage of soil is minerals?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

25%

d)

50%

e)

75%

169.

Soil can vary significantly, but generally speaking, what percentage of soil is organic material?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

25%

d)

50%

e)

75%

170.

Which soil particle is the largest?

a)

Clay

b)

Sand

c)

Silt

171.

Pesticides usually move through soil quickly and do not linger after they are applied.

a)

True

b)

False

172.

Mountaintop Removal (MTR) is an environmentally harmful method of extracting what resource?

a)

oil

b)

natural gas

c)

coal

d)

precious metals

173.

What is the first step in MTR?

a)

digging

b)

reclamation

c)

blasting

d)

clearing

174.

True or false: Mining companies can legally dump toxic debris into valleys as "fill material".

a)

True

b)

False

175.

True or False: Coal must be chemically treated before it is shipped to power plants for burning.

a)

True

b)

False

176.

True or False: Sea ice always melts in the summer, no matter where it is.

a)

True

b)

False

177.

Name a toxic heavy metal released into the environment by MTR.

(a)  

178.

Sea ice _________ a lot of solar energy.

a)

reflects

b)

absorbs

179.

What is an ice core? Give a brief description.

4 lines
180.

Roughly what percentage of the Earth's glaciers are shrinking?

a)

10%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

90%

181.

Which of the following is a Criteria Air Pollutant?

a)

Carbon monoxide

b)

asbestos

c)

photochemical smog

d)

VOCs

182.

The Clean Air Act regulates motor vehicle emissions.

a)

true

b)

false

183.

Which of the following government agencies is responsible for the Clean Air Act?

a)

the USGS

(Geological Survey)

b)

the USDA

(Dept of Agriculture)

c)

the EPA

d)

the CDC

184.

Emissions of the gases that cause acid rain have decreased since the passing of the Clean Air Act.

a)

True

b)

False

185.

The human body confuses lead for what other substance?

a)

water

b)

carbon

c)

calcium

d)

iron

e)

Vitamin C

186.

VOCs . . .

a)

solidify at room temp

b)

evaporate at room temp

c)

melt at room temp

d)

condense into liquid at room temp

187.

A protective gas in the stratosphere, but a pollutant in the troposphere.

a)

Ozone

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Radon

d)

Methane

188.

Composed of fibers known to cause lung disease

a)

asbestos

b)

radon

c)

lead

d)

carbon monoxide

e)

formaldehyde

189.

Emitted from most manufactured building materials and furniture

a)

asbestos

b)

radon

c)

lead

d)

carbon monoxide

e)

formaldehyde

190.

Catalytic converters are primarily found

a)

in nuclear power plants

b)

adjacent to wet scrubbers on factory vents

c)

in motor vehicles

d)

on specialized industrial equipment

191.

Warm water holds _____ oxygen as compared to cold water.

a)

more

b)

the same amount of

c)

less

192.

Heat islands can exacerbate what meteorological event?

a)

tornadoes

b)

high wind gusts

c)

flooding due to heavy rain

d)

blizzards

193.

Which of the following is an appropriate way to mitigate heat islands?

a)

Make buildings taller.

b)

Minimize green spaces.

c)

Increase space between buildings.

d)

Use darker building materials.

194.

The ocean is becoming more

a)

alkaline/basic

b)

acidic

195.

What gas is primarily responsible for ocean acidification?

a)

Sulfur dioxide

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Nitrogen oxide

d)

Ozone

196.

True or False: Ocean acidification causes clams and other bivalves to overproduce calcium carbonate, which makes their shells too large to function correctly.

a)

True

b)

False