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manprozi

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix is a technique in which process?

a)

Plan Stakeholder Management

b)

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

c)

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

d)

Identify Stakeholders

2.

Which of the following is not a best practice that can help in avoiding scope problems on IT projects?

a)

Follow good project management processes.

b)

Use off-the-shelf hardware and software whenever possible.

c)

Keep the scope realistic.

d)

Don’t involve too many users in scope management.

3.

You were asked by your project manager to help in monitoring and controlling the project work process. You need information about corrective action recommendations. What is the source you should refer to?

a)

Quality reports

b)

Risk reports

c)

Risk Corrective Log

d)

Risk register

4.

Historical information and lessons learned are part of:

a)

Project management information system (PMIS)

b)

Enterprise environmental factors

c)

Organizational process assets

d)

Work performance information

5.

Contingency reserves allow for future situations that may be:

a)

Fully planned (sometimes called known unknowns) and excluded from the project cost baseline

b)

Partially planned (sometimes called known unknowns) and excluded from the project cost baseline

c)

Fully planned (sometimes called known unknowns) and included in the project cost baseline

d)

Partially planned (sometimes called known unknowns) and included in the project cost baseline

6.

Select one. A network diagram is a preferred technique to show

a)

Activity objective

b)

Type of activities

c)

Sequence of activities

d)

Activity time

7.

Select one. The project manager has scheduled a meeting to review all prior information from previous phase closures and ensure that all project work is completed. Which of the following is not a valid input to this activity?

a)

Organizational process assets

b)

Expert judgment

c)

Project management plan

d)

Accepted deliverables

8.

Select one. Which of the following is an input in the Validate Scope process?

a)

Deliverable

b)

Accepted deliverable

c)

Final product/services

d)

Verified deliverable

9.

Select one. Project Charter is an input in the following process, EXCEPT

a)

Define Scope

b)

Collect Requirements

c)

Create WBS

d)

Scope Plan Management

10.

Select one. Yoga is a preassigned project manager at a construction company; he has already finished writing a project charter for a bridge construction project. What should he do next?

a)

Select the team members who will join the project

b)

Hold a kickoff meeting to get the project charter approved by all key stakeholders

c)

Work together with the team to develop the Project Management Plan

d)

Identify the key stakeholders

11.

Select one. Your project manager asks you to estimate the duration for all activities in your project. He gives you historical data from a previous project as a reference to calculate the duration of each activity in the current project. Which estimating technique does your project manager suggest?

a)

Historical estimating

b)

Reference estimating

c)

Parametric estimating

d)

Analogous estimating

12.

Which process group is the bulk of the project's budget typically spent?

a)

Planning

b)

Closing

c)

Executing

d)

Monitoring and Controlling

13.

Given AC=100AC=100 , PV=200PV=200 , and EV=150EV=150 , what is CVCV ?

a)

-50

b)

0.75

c)

1.5

d)

50

14.

As a project management consultant, you are asked to tailor the schedule management processes for your client. In this situation, which of the following factors would you consider, except?

a)

Project dimension

b)

Project life cycle

c)

Resource availability

d)

Technology support

15.

Which statement below is correct?

a)

Free slack (free float) is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the start of the next activity.

b)

Free slack (free float) is the amount of time an activity cannot be delayed without delaying the start of the next activity.

c)

Total slack (total float) is the amount of delay of an activity from its start by delaying the planned project finish date.

d)

Total slack (total float) is the amount of delay of an activity from its start without delaying the planned project finish date.

16.

Which of the following are requirement gathering methods in project scope management? Select the most appropriate set.

a)

Focus groups and facilitated workshops; group creativity techniques and decision-making techniques; using AI assistance

b)

Interviews; observations; group creativity techniques and definition-reduction techniques; quantitative analysis

c)

Interviews; focus groups and facilitated workshops; group creativity techniques and decision-making techniques; quantitative analysis

d)

Focus groups and facilitated workshops; group creativity techniques and decision-making techniques; questionnaires and surveys

17.

Direct cost is

a)

A cost that is directly related to the product or service of the project but not directly related to project execution

b)

A cost that is not directly related to the product or service of the project but is related to project execution

c)

A cost that can be directly associated with producing the project's products and services

d)

A cost that cannot be directly associated with producing the project's products and services

18.

The requirements management plan explains how the project’s requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed. Select one.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Which of the following processes helps implement approved process improvement activities? Select one.

a)

Perform Integrated Change Control

b)

Direct and Manage Project Work

c)

Close Project or Phase

d)

Monitor and Control Project Work

20.

Which of the following is the best source of expert judgment in developing the project charter? Select one.

a)

Focus groups

b)

Stakeholders

c)

Benchmark data

d)

Expert systems

21.

Which of the following is TRUE about a work breakdown structure? Select one.

a)

It contains work packages that are described in a linear, unstructured list.

b)

The WBS is created by the product sponsor and stakeholders.

c)

Each item in the WBS represents a feature in the product scope.

d)

The WBS represents all of the work that must be done on the project.

22.

Many organizations use IT to increase operational costs. Select one.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

CPM is a network diagram technique used to predict project benefits. Select one.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

CPI and SPI less than 100% indicate a problem. Select one.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Select one. Which of the following are Project Schedule Management processes, except:

a)

Plan Schedule Management

b)

Estimate Activity Resources

c)

Define Activities

d)

Eliminate the Schedule

26.

Select one. Which of the following are included in SMART criteria?

a)

Same, Measurable, Assignable, Realistic, Time-framed

b)

Specific, Measurable, Assignable, Realistic, Time-framed

c)

Specific, Measurable, Assignable, Recent, Time-framed

d)

Same, Measurable, Assignable, Recent, Time-framed

27.

Select one. What is the level of authority of a project manager in a functional organization?

a)

Moderate

b)

Low

c)

High to Almost Total

d)

Little or None

28.

Select one. What is the synonym for discretionary dependencies?

a)

Internal dependency

b)

Dependent dependency

c)

Soft logic

d)

Mandatory dependency

29.

Select one. A technique for determining cause and degree of difference between the baseline and the actual performance

a)

Delphi Techniques

b)

Inspection

c)

Observation

d)

Variance Analysis

30.

Select one. Which of the following is NOT a content of a project charter?

a)

Project Cost Baseline

b)

Overall Project Risk

c)

High Level Requirements

d)

Project Purpose

31.

Which of the following is NOT TRUE about a work breakdown structure? Select one.

a)

It contains a graphical, hierarchical list of all work to be performed.

b)

It is an important element of the baseline.

c)

It can be broken down by project phase or deliverable.

d)

It describes procedures to define the scope, verify work, and manage scope changes.

32.

Given AC=1000AC=1000 , SPI=1.6SPI=1.6 , and CPI=0.8CPI=0.8 , what is PVPV ? Select one.

a)

1280

b)

800

c)

2000

d)

500

33.

The critical path is the longest path through the network diagram and has the least slack or float. Select one.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Which of the following is not an output of the project cost management process called Estimate Cost? Select one.

a)

basis of estimates

b)

project documents updates

c)

activity cost estimates

d)

a cost baseline

35.

Which statement below is false? Select one.

a)

The two main formats are the Cartesian diagram method and the precedence diagram.

b)

A network diagram is a schematic display of the logical relationships among, or sequencing of, project activities.

c)

The two main formats are the arrow diagram method and the precedence diagram.

d)

A network diagram is a preferred technique to show activity sequencing.

36.

Which of the following statements is false about the Perform Integrated Change Control process? Select one.

a)

Perform Integrated Change Control includes some of the configuration management activities.

b)

The Perform Integrated Change Control process allows all changes to be considered in an integrated fashion.

c)

Performing integrated change control is the ultimate responsibility of the project team.

d)

The Perform Integrated Change Control process is conducted from project inception through completion.

37.

Which of the following is not input for plan schedule management? Select one.

a)

Scope baseline

b)

Scope management plan

c)

Development approach

d)

Historical information

38.

Select one. Over time, the scope of a project must become more structured.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Select one. Life-cycle costing considers

a)

Total annual cost plus monthly cost

b)

Total cost of ownership, or development cost plus support

c)

Total annual cost plus support

d)

Total cost of ownership, or development cost plus annual cost

40.

Select one. One approach to developing a WBS is the top-down approach. This approach starts with the smallest items in the project and breaks them down.

a)

False

b)

True