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Recap Chapter 2: Biological Contamination

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term best describes harmful living organisms or their byproducts that contaminate food and cause illness?

a)

Biological contamination

b)

Physical contamination

c)

Chemical adulteration

d)

Thermal abuse

2.

A student lists fever, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after eating contaminated food. These are most directly classified as which of the following?

a)

Symptoms of a foodborne illness

b)

Vectors of contamination

c)

Allergen cross-contacts

d)

Post-recovery complications

3.

According to the recap, which grouping is emphasized as a core category of foodborne pathogens alongside viruses and parasites?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Prions

c)

Molds

d)

Algae

4.

In the context of bacterial hazards, which focus area is highlighted as essential for control strategies?

a)

What bacteria need to grow

b)

How to label genetically modified foods

c)

The physics of heat transfer

d)

Packaging color standards

5.

The recap references a set called “the big six.” In food safety, what is this phrase most likely pointing to?

a)

A group of major foodborne pathogens of top concern

b)

Six mandatory refrigeration settings for cold storage

c)

Six vitamins required for immune function

d)

A list of six approved sanitizers

6.

Based on the report of a dead frog discovered inside lemang, which type of contamination is MOST directly illustrated by this incident?

a)

Chemical contamination due to cleaning agents

b)

Physical contamination from a foreign object

c)

Allergenic contamination from undeclared nuts

d)

Temperature abuse leading to toxin formation

7.

A customer found mould growing on a sausage roll at a coffee outlet. Which condition below best explains how this type of spoilage most likely developed?

a)

Improper exclusion of oxygen during vacuum packaging

b)

Extended time in the temperature danger zone allowing fungal growth

c)

Use of irradiated flour that inhibited bacteria

d)

Immediate freezing after baking leading to condensation burn

8.

Lemang is described as a traditional Southeast Asian dish cooked in a bamboo tube lined with banana leaves. Which combination of ingredients listed best matches this description?

a)

Glutinous rice, coconut milk, and salt

b)

Wheat flour, palm sugar, and eggs

c)

Rice noodles, fish sauce, and chilies

d)

Millet, soy milk, and sesame oil

9.

Refer to the diagram of “Hazards in Food Safety.” Which category includes hazards such as viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites?

a)

Biological hazards

b)

Chemical hazards

c)

Physical hazards

d)

Nutritional hazards

10.

In the visual categorization of food safety hazards, which of the following best exemplifies a chemical hazard?

a)

Residues from cleaning agents left on food-contact surfaces

b)

A bolt fragment found in a packaged meal

c)

Salmonella growth on undercooked poultry

d)

Bone chips in ground meat

11.

A production line discovers small metal screws near a finished food product. Based on the diagram of hazard types, how should this risk be classified to choose an appropriate control?

a)

Biological hazard, requiring microbial testing

b)

Chemical hazard, requiring solvent-neutralizing steps

c)

Physical hazard, requiring foreign-object detection

d)

Allergen hazard, requiring label revision only

12.

After studying this chapter, which topic should you be prepared to discuss specifically regarding contaminants?

a)

The threats of physical and chemical contaminants

b)

Only the economics of food packaging

c)

How to market new menu items

d)

The history of culinary arts

13.

Which learning objective focuses on intentional harm to the food supply?

a)

How to prevent deliberate contamination of food

b)

How to decorate dishes for service

c)

How to reduce cooking times

d)

How to select seasonal ingredients

14.

According to the learning objectives, ALERT is mentioned in relation to which competency?

a)

Recognizing the importance of ALERT

b)

Calculating calorie content using ALERT

c)

Using ALERT to track inventory shrinkage

d)

Replacing sanitation with ALERT procedures

15.

Which outcome emphasizes understanding immune responses to certain ingredients and prevention strategies?

a)

Common food allergies and how to prevent reactions to them

b)

Advanced fermentation techniques for bread

c)

Designing a restaurant floor plan

d)

Maximizing profit margins in catering

16.

Which of the following pairs best represents the two types of contaminants highlighted in the objectives?

a)

Physical and chemical

b)

Biological and thermal

c)

Organic and synthetic

d)

Moisture and pH

17.

Which objective is most directly tied to defense against food tampering?

a)

Recognizing the importance of ALERT

b)

Learning advanced knife cuts

c)

Improving flavor pairing

d)

Optimizing delivery routes

18.

A student summarizes the chapter as focusing on contaminants and allergies. Which essential prevention angle is missing from their summary?

a)

Preventing deliberate contamination of food

b)

Selecting artisanal ingredients

c)

Calculating food cost percentages

d)

Designing ergonomic kitchens

19.

Within this chapter’s goals, which competency relates to understanding hazards that could physically injure consumers?

a)

Discussing the threats of physical contaminants

b)

Mastering sous-vide temperatures

c)

Evaluating food color additives for branding

d)

Developing farm-to-table relationships

20.

Which of the following is explicitly listed as a post-class ability?

a)

Discuss threats of chemical contaminants

b)

Repair commercial refrigeration systems

c)

Write a HACCP plan for a cannery

d)

Perform sensory analysis with trained panels

21.

A student asks what ALERT stands for. According to the learning objective slide, what is the appropriate action?

a)

Recognize the importance of ALERT in food defense

b)

Ignore ALERT because it is optional

c)

Use ALERT only for allergen labeling

d)

Apply ALERT as a substitute for cleaning

22.

Which objective best addresses preventing customer adverse reactions related to immune sensitivity?

a)

Common food allergies and how to prevent reactions to them

b)

How to extend shelf life with preservatives

c)

How to speed cooling with blast chillers

d)

How to design menu pricing tiers

23.

In prioritizing study topics from this chapter, which set most closely aligns with the stated objectives?

a)

Physical contaminants, chemical contaminants, deliberate contamination prevention, ALERT, food allergies

b)

Nutrient density, menu engineering, regional cuisines, plating styles

c)

Thermal processing, emulsification, food photography, fermentation

d)

Restaurant marketing, service etiquette, budgeting, staffing

24.

Which learning target would most help a manager respond to threats like intentional adulteration?

a)

Recognizing the importance of ALERT

b)

Discussing the threats of physical contaminants

c)

Understanding Maillard browning

d)

Selecting high-yield produce

25.

Which competency centers on identifying non-microbial hazards such as metal shards or glass?

a)

Discuss the threats of physical contaminants

b)

Master advanced baking ratios

c)

Apply emulsification theory

d)

Create beverage pairings

26.

An exam blueprint asks for one goal related to chemicals. Which fits the slide?

a)

Discuss the threats of chemical contaminants

b)

Calibrate thermometers weekly

c)

Sanitize utensils with dry heat

d)

Eliminate all fats from the diet

27.

Which item is not among the listed learning objectives?

a)

Designing a marketing campaign for a new product

b)

Discussing the threats of physical and chemical contaminants

c)

Preventing deliberate contamination of food

d)

Recognizing the importance of ALERT

28.

Which outcome directly links to protecting guests with sensitivities?

a)

Common food allergies and how to prevent reactions to them

b)

Using herbs to enhance aroma

c)

Calculating plate cost

d)

Selecting sustainable seafood

29.

If you were to create a safety briefing based on the objectives, which headline would be most aligned?

a)

Understanding contaminants, food defense (ALERT), and allergen prevention

b)

Trends in culinary aesthetics and plating height

c)

Maximizing fryer throughput during rush hours

d)

Expanding dessert menus with seasonal fruit

30.

Which area of study from this chapter focuses on hazards that can be introduced on purpose?

a)

How to prevent deliberate contamination of food

b)

Maximizing nutrient retention during steaming

c)

Minimizing off-flavors in storage

d)

Designing open-kitchen layouts

31.

Which statement best reflects the scope of the chapter’s learning objectives?

a)

They address contaminants (physical and chemical), deliberate contamination prevention, ALERT, and food allergies.

b)

They address only basic cooking methods and knife skills.

c)

They focus solely on nutrition labeling without safety concerns.

d)

They emphasize restaurant branding over safety.

32.

Which statement best defines a physical contaminant in food?

a)

A foreign object that can cause illness or injury if consumed

b)

A microorganism that multiplies during temperature abuse

c)

A chemical residue left from cleaning agents

d)

A nutrient imbalance created by overcooking

33.

Based on the examples shown (plastic pieces, hardware like nuts/bolts, jewelry, wood splinters, and glass shards), which item is LEAST likely to be a physical contaminant in a commercial kitchen?

a)

Loose nuts and screws from equipment

b)

Broken glass fragments from light bulbs or containers

c)

Wood splinters from damaged pallets or boards

d)

Dissolved salt from seasoning that fully dissolves

34.

Which list contains only common physical contaminants that can get into food during handling or packaging?

a)

Metal shavings from cans, staples, bandages, and glass

b)

Sugar crystals, cooking oil, water vapor, and steam

c)

Lactic acid, vinegar, salt, and pepper

d)

Yeast cells, mold spores, and bacteria colonies

35.

A prep cook finds a small hard object while pureeing canned tomatoes. Using the source list, which is the most plausible cause?

a)

Metal shavings from the can lid or seam

b)

Residual pesticides in the tomatoes

c)

Incomplete pasteurization of the product

d)

Enzymatic browning of the tomatoes

36.

Which item in a dish would be classified as a naturally occurring physical contaminant?

a)

A fruit pit left in an avocado slice

b)

A staple from a takeout container

c)

A plastic straw segment in a smoothie

d)

A ring that fell off during service

37.

Which set lists symptoms specifically associated with physical contamination in food?

a)

Mild to fatal injuries, cuts, dental damage, choking, bleeding, and pain

b)

Nausea, fever, diarrhea, and dehydration

c)

Rash, swelling of lips, and anaphylaxis

d)

Headache, dizziness, and blurred vision

38.

A chef wants to reduce the risk of hair falling into food during prep. Based on best practices, what should the chef do?

a)

Wear a hair restraint while preparing foods

b)

Shampoo more frequently but leave hair uncovered

c)

Only tie long hair when cooking at high heat

d)

Wear a hat only when serving, not preparing, food

39.

Which action is most appropriate to prevent jewelry-related physical contamination during food preparation?

a)

Avoid wearing jewelry such as rings and earrings when preparing, cooking, and holding foods

b)

Wear only small stud earrings since they are unlikely to fall off

c)

Use gloves to cover rings so they cannot contact food

d)

Limit jewelry to a wedding band and a watch during prep

40.

A foodservice manager finds metal fragments in a can of tomatoes due to a dull opener. Which prevention step directly addresses this risk?

a)

Clean can openers regularly to prevent metal shavings

b)

Remove staple wire in the receiving area

c)

Place shields on lights to prevent breakage

d)

Do not carry a pencil or pen while working

41.

You are auditing a prep station for physical contamination hazards. Which combination of corrective actions best addresses the listed risks: loose staples on delivered boxes, potential glass breakage above prep areas, and artificial nails on staff?

a)

Remove staple wire in the receiving area, place shields on lights, and prohibit artificial nails when working with foods

b)

Increase handwashing frequency, add more gloves, and keep nails painted for visibility

c)

Allow artificial nails with dark polish, store boxes away from prep, and turn off overhead lights

d)

Wear jewelry covers, use plastic utensils, and accept stapled boxes if inspected

42.

Refer to the diagram showing containers labeled with different hazard levels on a shelf. Which option best captures the core idea communicated by the visual for food safety?

a)

Chemical contaminants can vary in how harmful they are, from least harmful to really dangerous.

b)

All chemical contaminants are equally dangerous and should be treated the same.

c)

Only substances labeled as ‘really dangerous’ count as chemical contaminants.

d)

Food hazards only come from physical objects, not chemicals.

43.

Which statement best defines chemical contamination in food safety?

a)

The presence of any living microorganism in food

b)

Toxic substances and any other compounds that may render a food unsafe for consumption

c)

Any foreign object like glass or metal found in food

d)

Nutrients added to enhance flavor, aroma, and color

44.

According to the classification of chemical contamination, which group is intentionally added?

a)

Secondary direct and indirect substances such as lubricants and sanitizers

b)

Agricultural chemicals used unintentionally such as fungicides and fertilizers

c)

Intentionally added chemicals including pesticides, food additives, and food preservatives

d)

Naturally occurring compounds like polychlorinated biphenyl and phytohemagglutinin

45.

Which practice is stated as effective for reducing pesticide residues on produce?

a)

Freezing vegetables immediately after harvest

b)

Vigorous washing or peeling off the produce skin

c)

Storing fruits at room temperature for 24 hours

d)

Adding color additives before packaging

46.

Which list contains only examples of intentionally added chemicals?

a)

Lead, zinc, mercury, cyanide

b)

Lubricants, sanitizers, paint

c)

Pesticides, food additives, food preservatives

d)

Polychlorinated biphenyl, phytohemagglutinin, pyrrolizidine alkaloids

47.

For what primary purposes are food additives and preservatives used, as described in the material?

a)

To reduce the caloric content of foods

b)

To maintain freshness or enhance flavor, aroma, and color

c)

To replace agricultural chemicals in crop production

d)

To eliminate all microorganisms without processing

48.

Which option correctly matches type of additive with an example given?

a)

Direct preservative — sodium benzoate; Nutritional additive — niacin; Color additive — dyes

b)

Indirect additive — nitrate; Direct preservative — lubricants; Nutritional additive — polymers

c)

Direct preservative — adhesives; Indirect additive — retinol; Color additive — fungicides

d)

Nutritional additive — mercury; Direct preservative — cyanide; Indirect additive — sodium benzoate

49.

Which substances are identified as indirect food additives in the instructional material?

a)

Adhesives and polymers

b)

Nitrate and sulfiting agents

c)

Niacin and retinol

d)

Lead and mercury

50.

Which statement best describes the hazard from agricultural chemicals when they are improperly applied to food crops?

a)

They only alter the flavor profile but are otherwise harmless

b)

They can be acutely toxic or cause long-term health effects

c)

They exclusively increase microbial growth in produce

d)

They mainly reduce the vitamin content of foods

51.

According to the table on unintentionally added sources, what is the primary hazard if cleaning chemicals are present in food at a high level?

a)

Chemical burns to consumers

b)

Elevated risk of food spoilage

c)

Increase in allergen cross-contact

d)

Excessive dehydration of the product

52.

Acidic foods can cause which equipment-related hazard?

a)

Neutralization of pesticide residues

b)

Leaching of heavy metals such as copper and lead from pipes and joints

c)

Hardening of rubber gaskets to prevent contamination

d)

Rapid cooling that preserves micronutrients

53.

What is the risk associated with using maintenance chemicals that are not approved for food use?

a)

They may be toxic

b)

They always evaporate before contact

c)

They only cause cosmetic discoloration

d)

They solely create off-odors without health effects

54.

High nitrate levels in food can lead to which packaging-related issue?

a)

Excessive corrosion of glass containers releasing silica

b)

Excessive detinning of uncoated cans, causing high tin levels in food

c)

Polymerization of plastic liners into insoluble flakes

d)

Migration of aluminum oxide from foil into beverages

55.

Which of the following is listed as a source category of chemical contaminants?

a)

Agricultural chemicals

b)

Ambient carbon dioxide

c)

Ultraviolet radiation

d)

Natural food pigments

56.

Based on the bulleted list of sources, which item of kitchenware or equipment composition is specifically implicated as a chemical contaminant source?

a)

Stainless steel with chromium-nickel alloy

b)

Items made from pewter, copper, zinc, or certain painted pottery

c)

Tempered glass without coatings

d)

Food-grade silicone utensils only

57.

Which symptom pattern most commonly indicates a chemical contamination illness in foodservice?

a)

Gradual onset over several days with mild fever

b)

Most illnesses occur within minutes with vomiting and diarrhea

c)

Intermittent cramps with rash after 24 hours

d)

High fever with sore throat developing after a week

58.

When a chemical illness is suspected in a food operation, what is the correct immediate sequence of actions?

a)

Call Poison Control, consult the chemical’s MSDS, then notify local emergency services

b)

Consult the chemical’s MSDS, call the emergency number, then call Poison Control

c)

Call the emergency number in your area, call Poison Control, then consult the chemical’s MSDS

d)

Isolate the area, discard food, then document the incident before calling for help

59.

Which practice best prevents chemical contamination during storage in a restaurant?

a)

Store chemicals directly above prep tables to keep them visible

b)

Keep chemicals in prep areas for quick access during service

c)

Store chemicals away from prep, food-storage, and service areas, separated from food and food-contact surfaces by spacing and partitioning

d)

Place chemicals beside unopened dry goods to track inventory

60.

Which purchasing guideline aligns with safe chemical control in foodservice?

a)

Buy the least expensive chemicals regardless of supplier approval

b)

Purchase chemicals only from approved, reputable suppliers

c)

Accept any donated chemicals if they are sealed

d)

Purchase consumer-grade products intended for home use to reduce cost

61.

A supervisor finds sanitizer bottles stored on a shelf above clean plates. What is the correct corrective action?

a)

Leave them there as long as the caps are tight

b)

Move them to a location where chemicals are NEVER stored above food or food-contact surfaces

c)

Dilute the sanitizer more to reduce risk

d)

Place warning labels on the plates

62.

Which statement reflects proper selection and use of chemicals in a commercial kitchen?

a)

Use any available cleaner; intended use is optional if rinsed thoroughly

b)

Only use chemicals approved for foodservice and follow the manufacturer’s directions for intended use

c)

Use concentrated products at higher strength to ensure sanitation

d)

Mix different cleaners to improve effectiveness when needed

63.

Which set of procedures demonstrates correct control of chemical information and equipment in foodservice?

a)

Use any household utensil if it works; labels on chemical containers are optional; discard MSDS if space is limited

b)

Only handle food with equipment and utensils approved for foodservice; ensure original chemical container labels are readable; keep MSDS current and accessible to staff at all times

c)

Allow handwritten labels on unmarked spray bottles; keep MSDS in a locked office accessible only to managers

d)

Prioritize speed by removing long manufacturer directions and relying on staff experience

64.

What is the correct approach to disposing of chemicals in a food operation?

a)

Pour leftover chemicals down the drain at the end of the shift

b)

Follow the manufacturer’s directions and local regulatory requirements when throwing out chemicals

c)

Mix old chemicals together to reduce volume before disposal

d)

Evaporate liquids by leaving containers open in a secure room

65.

Refer to the diagram summarizing contamination types. Which item is an example of physical contamination?

a)

Pesticides used on produce

b)

Plastic fragments from packaging

c)

Viruses on unwashed hands

d)

Sanitizer residue on cutting boards

66.

Using the contamination summary diagram, which situation best illustrates chemical contamination rather than physical or biological?

a)

A bandage falls into a salad during prep

b)

A worker spreads bacteria while handling food

c)

Lubricants from equipment drip onto dough

d)

A piece of glass chips off into a beverage

67.

A kitchen manager must match hazards to their contamination type based on the diagram. Which pairing is correct?

a)

Parasites — Chemical contamination

b)

Allergens — Biological contamination

c)

Metal shavings — Physical contamination

d)

Sanitizers — Biological contamination

68.

Which group is identified as a potential source of deliberate food contamination?

a)

Terrorists or activists

b)

Public health inspectors

c)

Customer focus groups

d)

Local farmers’ markets

69.

According to the A.L.E.R.T. food defense tool, what does Assure primarily emphasize?

a)

Make sure products received are from safe sources

b)

Know who is in your facility at all times

c)

Develop a plan for responding to suspicious activity

d)

Keep information related to food defense accessible

70.

A manager installs cameras to watch storage rooms and routinely checks seals on bulk ingredients. Which A.L.E.R.T. element does this action best represent?

a)

Look

b)

Employees

c)

Reports

d)

Threat

71.

Which stakeholder listed on the slide could deliberately contaminate food due to grievances with the operation?

a)

Disgruntled current or former staff

b)

Emergency medical technicians

c)

Regulatory auditors

d)

Community volunteers

72.

When a supervisor creates a written protocol for responding to suspicious activity or a threat, which A.L.E.R.T. component is being addressed?

a)

Threat

b)

Assure

c)

Employees

d)

Look

73.

Refer to the diagram showing a child with a flushed face surrounded by icons of milk, eggs, peanuts, wheat, and chopsticks. Which statement best defines a food allergen as implied by the visual?

a)

Any nutrient that provides energy for growth and repair

b)

A harmless food component that can trigger an immune reaction in sensitive individuals

c)

A contaminant introduced during food processing that causes spoilage

d)

A cooking ingredient that enhances flavor without biological effects

74.

Which statement best defines a food allergy?

a)

A digestive intolerance to certain carbohydrates that occurs hours after eating

b)

An immune system reaction that occurs soon after eating a certain food

c)

A temporary sensitivity caused by spoiled food that resolves without treatment

d)

A metabolic deficiency that prevents absorption of vitamins

75.

According to the material, which approach is the primary treatment for food allergy?

a)

Long-term antibiotic therapy to remove trigger bacteria

b)

Immunization with generalized anti-allergy vaccines

c)

Dietary avoidance of the offending food or ingredient

d)

Routine use of antacids to reduce gastric acid

76.

Which statement about prevalence is consistent with the description provided?

a)

Food allergy affects 6 to 8 percent of adults and up to 3 percent of children under age 3

b)

Food allergy affects an estimated 6 to 8 percent of children under age 3 and up to 3 percent of adults

c)

Food allergy affects 10 percent of all age groups equally

d)

Food allergy affects fewer than 1 percent of both children and adults

77.

Which set lists symptoms that are all typical of an allergic reaction to food?

a)

Nausea, wheezing or shortness of breath, and hives or itchy rashes

b)

Fever, joint stiffness, and night sweats

c)

Blurred vision, hair loss, and excessive thirst

d)

Constipation, dry skin, and slow heart rate

78.

Which development signals a medical emergency known as anaphylaxis?

a)

Symptoms that remain localized to the skin for several days

b)

A severe allergic reaction that can become serious quickly and lead to death

c)

Gradual improvement in breathing after rest

d)

Mild nausea that resolves without other signs

79.

A clinician suspects a patient has a food allergy. Based on the described diagnostic methods, which step is most consistent with recommended practice?

a)

Order a random trial of antibiotics for one week

b)

Rely solely on a single blood test without history

c)

Use a detailed history, a patient diet diary, or an elimination diet

d)

Advise the patient to ignore symptoms unless they recur monthly

80.

Which option includes only foods identified as common allergens in the material?

a)

Milk, wheat, and tree nuts

b)

Rice, potatoes, and bananas

c)

Beef, lettuce, and tomatoes

d)

Oats, barley, and raspberries

81.

Which statement best distinguishes milk allergy from lactose intolerance?

a)

Milk allergy is an immune reaction to cow’s milk proteins; lactose intolerance is due to missing lactase enzyme.

b)

Milk allergy and lactose intolerance are both caused by sugar malabsorption in the digestive tract only.

c)

Milk allergy is not serious, whereas lactose intolerance commonly leads to anaphylaxis.

d)

Milk allergy allows small portions of milk, whereas lactose intolerance requires total avoidance of dairy.

82.

According to the material, what is the most appropriate immediate prevention strategy for someone with a confirmed milk allergy?

a)

Use lactase supplements before meals containing dairy.

b)

Gradually increase milk intake to build tolerance.

c)

Strictly avoid cow’s milk and all cow’s milk products.

d)

Switch to low‑fat dairy to reduce symptom severity.

83.

Which set of symptoms aligns most closely with lactose intolerance as described?

a)

Hives, wheezing, and anaphylaxis after milk exposure

b)

Gas, bloating, diarrhea, and cramping that are not life‑threatening

c)

Swelling of lips and tongue requiring epinephrine

d)

Skin rash and persistent fever following dairy ingestion

84.

A parent asks whether their child with egg allergy can eat only egg yolks. Based on the guidance, what should you advise?

a)

Egg yolks are safe because allergenic proteins are only in the shell.

b)

Avoid all eggs completely even though the whites contain most allergenic proteins.

c)

Eat baked goods with eggs because heating removes all allergens.

d)

Limit to small portions of scrambled eggs to gauge tolerance.

85.

Two patients present after consuming dairy. Patient A has hives and breathing difficulty; Patient B has abdominal cramps and diarrhea but is stable. Which classification is most appropriate?

a)

Patient A: lactose intolerance; Patient B: milk allergy

b)

Patient A: milk allergy with potential anaphylaxis; Patient B: lactose intolerance affecting the digestive system only

c)

Both patients have milk allergy with different severities

d)

Both patients have lactose intolerance managed by lactase supplements

86.

DoK 1—Which statement best describes peanut allergies according to the text?

a)

They usually resolve in childhood and rarely persist into adulthood.

b)

They tend to be lifelong for many individuals.

c)

They only occur after eating large quantities of peanuts.

d)

They primarily cause skin irritation without systemic reactions.

87.

DoK 1—According to the material, what percentage range of people with peanut allergy are also allergic to tree nuts?

a)

5–10 percent

b)

15–20 percent

c)

25–40 percent

d)

50–65 percent

88.

DoK 2—Which scenario is less likely to trigger a severe reaction in someone with peanut allergy, based on the guidance provided?

a)

Eating a dessert containing trace amounts of peanut.

b)

Casual contact with peanut butter residue on a surface.

c)

Consuming a sauce thickened with ground peanuts.

d)

Ingesting candy processed with peanuts as an ingredient.

89.

DoK 1—Which of the following is classified as a tree nut in the list provided?

a)

Peanut

b)

Cashew

c)

Soybean

d)

Sesame seed

90.

DoK 2—The text notes that a person allergic to one type of tree nut has a higher chance of reacting to other types. What management advice follows from this observation?

a)

Rotate different nuts monthly to build tolerance.

b)

Avoid only the specific nut that caused the reaction.

c)

Avoid all nuts as a precaution recommended by many experts.

d)

Consume nuts only when cooked thoroughly.

91.

DoK 3—A patient has a confirmed allergy to hazelnut. Using the principles stated, which plan is the most evidence-aligned to reduce risk during daily eating?

a)

Carry an antihistamine and continue eating other tree nuts since cross-reactivity is uncommon.

b)

Avoid all nuts, read ingredient labels for tree nut names like walnut and Brazil nut, and seek specialist guidance on cross-reactivity.

c)

Avoid only raw hazelnuts because roasting prevents reactions in most cases.

d)

Switch to peanut products since peanuts are botanically legumes and never co-occur with tree nut allergies.