Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Vetscience2

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the five basic functions of the musculoskeletal system? Fill in the blanks: Bones furnish five basic functions: _______, _______, _______, _______, and _______.

a)

structure, leverage, protection, mineral reserves, blood cell production

b)

movement, digestion, protection, mineral reserves, blood cell production

c)

structure, leverage, protection, fat storage, blood cell production

d)

structure, leverage, protection, mineral reserves, hormone secretion

2.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the musculoskeletal system?

a)

B) Leverage

b)

A) Structure

c)

C) Digestion

d)

E) Mineral reserves

e)

D) Protection

3.

The radiograph in Figure 3-2 shows a fracture in which bone of Missy's leg?

a)

Femur

b)

Tibia

c)

Fibula

d)

Humerus

4.

What is a radiograph?

a)

A) A type of surgery

b)

B) An X-ray image

c)

C) A broken bone

d)

D) A veterinarian

5.

An orthopedic surgeon is a veterinarian who specializes in surgery of the bones.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Fill in the blank: Missy was not able to ______ weight on her injured leg when she arrived at the office.

a)

bear

b)

bare

c)

bar

d)

beer

7.

Describe the most visible function of bones in the animal body as mentioned in the passage.

a)

The most visible function of bones is structure. The collection of bones in the animal forms the skeleton, which provides the framework that defines an animal's shape and size.

b)

The most visible function of bones is digestion. Bones help break down food in the animal body.

c)

The most visible function of bones is respiration. Bones assist in the breathing process of animals.

d)

The most visible function of bones is circulation. Bones pump blood throughout the animal body.

8.
Question Image

Match the following bone parts with their correct locations:

a)

Articular Cartilage

1.

Top end of bone covering joint surface

b)

Bone Marrow

2.

Center hollow region

c)

Cancellous (Spongy) Bone

3.

Area beneath compact bone at ends

d)

Medullary Cavity

4.

Central cavity

e)

Compact Bone Tissue

5.

Outer shell of shaft

9.

What is the function of the rib cage in the musculoskeletal system?

a)

Protects the heart and lungs

b)

Produces blood cells

c)

Stores minerals

d)

Provides movement at joints

10.

Fill in the blank: The outer shell of a long bone is composed of ________ bone.

a)

compact

b)

spongy

c)

cancellous

d)

trabecular

11.

Which type of bone is found inside the ends of long bones and is made up of tiny spicules and plates?

a)

Compact bone

b)

Spongy bone

c)

Cortical bone

d)

Periosteum

12.

The periosteum is a thin connective tissue that covers the bone and blends into tendons and ligaments.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Fill in the blank: Bone marrow is made in the ________ center, the medullary cavity.

a)

hollow

b)

solid

c)

dense

d)

outer

14.

Which tissue provides protection as bones move against one another within a joint?

a)

Periosteum

b)

Endosteum

c)

Articular cartilage

d)

Spongy bone

15.

What percentage of a dried bone is composed of inorganic minerals?

a)

70%

b)

30%

c)

50%

d)

90%

16.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the organic portion of bone?

a)

Collagen fibers

b)

Polysaccharides

c)

Hydroxyapatite

d)

Cells

17.

Name the three types of bone cells described in the passage.

a)

Osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts

b)

Chondrocytes, fibroblasts, erythrocytes

c)

Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes

d)

Adipocytes, melanocytes, keratinocytes

18.

Osteoporosis is a condition in which bones lose their normal density.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

What is the function of osteoclasts in bone tissue?

a)

Osteoclasts release minerals from bone into the bloodstream.

b)

Osteoclasts produce new bone matrix.

c)

Osteoclasts store calcium in bone tissue.

d)

Osteoclasts aid in the formation of cartilage.

20.

The central canal in the osteon is called the ________ canal.

a)

haversian

b)

volkmann

c)

medullary

d)

epiphyseal

21.

Which type of joint allows little movement and is found in the skull?

a)

Fibrous joint

b)

Cartilage joint

c)

Synovial joint

d)

Haversian joint

22.

Cartilage joints are connected with cartilage and allow for growth.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

What is the function of synovial fluid in synovial joints?

a)

Synovial fluid provides lubrication to the joint and carries nutrients to the cartilage.

b)

Synovial fluid strengthens the bones and increases joint rigidity.

c)

Synovial fluid produces red blood cells for the joint.

d)

Synovial fluid connects muscles to bones.

24.

In the diagram comparing the skeletons of a horse and a cat, what bone is labeled as the 'Atlas (C1)' in the horse?

a)

Atlas (C1) is the first cervical vertebra in the horse.

b)

Atlas (C1) is the last thoracic vertebra in the horse.

c)

Atlas (C1) is the first lumbar vertebra in the horse.

d)

Atlas (C1) is the last sacral vertebra in the horse.

25.

Which joint in the horse's leg is identified as a 'Ball and Socket Joint'?

a)

The joint between the pelvis and femur is a Ball and Socket Joint.

b)

The joint between the femur and tibia is a Ball and Socket Joint.

c)

The joint between the radius and ulna is a Ball and Socket Joint.

d)

The joint between the cannon bone and pastern is a Ball and Socket Joint.

26.

In the diagram, which bone is referred to as the 'Cannon Bone' in the horse?

a)

The III Metatarsal is referred to as the Cannon Bone in the horse.

b)

The Tibia is referred to as the Cannon Bone in the horse.

c)

The Femur is referred to as the Cannon Bone in the horse.

d)

The Calcaneus is referred to as the Cannon Bone in the horse.

27.

Which of the following bones is present in both the horse and the cat?

a)

Femur

b)

Ulna

c)

Patella

d)

All of the above

28.

What is the function of the 'Patella' as labeled in both the horse and cat diagrams?

a)

The Patella functions as the kneecap, aiding in leg movement and protection of the knee joint.

b)

The Patella is responsible for digestion in the animal.

c)

The Patella helps in the animal's sense of smell.

d)

The Patella is a bone in the tail that aids in balance.

29.

The horse has more coccygeal (caudal) vertebrae than the cat.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Which bone is labeled as the 'Mandible' in both the horse and cat diagrams?

a)

The Mandible is the lower jaw bone in both the horse and cat.

b)

The Mandible is the upper jaw bone in both the horse and cat.

c)

The Mandible is the cheek bone in both the horse and cat.

d)

The Mandible is the nasal bone in both the horse and cat.

31.

In the diagram, which animal has a clavicle bone?

a)

The cat has a clavicle bone.

b)

The dog has a clavicle bone.

c)

The horse has a clavicle bone.

d)

The cow has a clavicle bone.

32.

Which joint type is found at the horse's hock (tarsus)?

a)

Hinge Joint

b)

Ball and Socket Joint

c)

Pivot Joint

d)

Saddle Joint

33.

Refer to the diagram labeled 'Skull structure of a horse (Front View)'. Fill in the blank: The bone labeled at the top of the skull is called the _________.

a)

Temporal

b)

Frontal

c)

Occipital

d)

Parietal

34.

Refer to the diagram labeled 'Skull structure of a horse (Side View)'. Fill in the blank: The bone forming the lower jaw is called the _________.

a)

Mandible

b)

Maxilla

c)

Frontal

d)

Occipital

35.

Refer to the radiograph labeled 'Skull (Cranium)'. Fill in the blank: The arrow is pointing to the _________

a)

Mandible

b)

Maxilla

c)

Zygomatic bone

d)

Frontal bone

36.

Refer to the diagram labeled 'The structure of a vertebra'. Fill in the blank: The central part of the vertebra is called the _________.

a)

Vertebral Body

b)

Spinous Process

c)

Transverse Process

d)

Vertebral Arch

37.

Which bone in the skull is most notably responsible for protecting the brain?

a)

Cranium

b)

Mandible

c)

Maxilla

d)

Zygomatic

38.

The mandible is a synovial joint that allows animals to secure and chew food.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Match the following bones to their functions:

a)

Protects the brain

1.

3

b)

Holds the teeth

2.

1

c)

Allows animals to chew food

3.

2

40.

The function of the vertebral column in animals is:

a)

to support and protect the spinal cord

b)

to aid in digestion

c)

to produce hormones

d)

to filter waste from blood

41.

Refer to the diagram labeled 'Thoracic Vertebra.' Which part is labeled as the 'Spinous Process'?

a)

The uppermost projection is labeled as the 'Spinous Process.'

b)

The rounded area at the side is labeled as the 'Spinous Process.'

c)

The lower curved section is labeled as the 'Spinous Process.'

d)

The central hollow region is labeled as the 'Spinous Process.'

42.

According to the passage, how many cervical vertebrae do mammals such as cats, horses, and giraffes have?

a)

Seven cervical vertebrae.

b)

Five cervical vertebrae.

c)

Nine cervical vertebrae.

d)

Twelve cervical vertebrae.

43.

Which vertebra allows up-and-down motion of the head, as in nodding to signify yes?

a)

The atlas (first cervical vertebra).

b)

The axis (second cervical vertebra).

c)

The thoracic vertebra.

d)

The lumbar vertebra.

44.

Dogs, cats, cattle, goats, and sheep all have how many pairs of ribs?

a)

13 pairs of ribs.

b)

10 pairs of ribs.

c)

15 pairs of ribs.

d)

12 pairs of ribs.

45.

Horses have how many thoracic vertebrae?

a)

18 thoracic vertebrae.

b)

16 thoracic vertebrae.

c)

20 thoracic vertebrae.

d)

14 thoracic vertebrae.

46.

The cartilage joining the ribs to the sternum in older animals can be replaced with bone.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Refer to the diagram labeled 'Sacrum, Ventral View.' Which part is labeled as the 'Wing'?

a)

The lateral projections are labeled as the 'Wing.'

b)

The central ridge is labeled as the 'Wing.'

c)

The lower tip is labeled as the 'Wing.'

d)

The upper notch is labeled as the 'Wing.'

48.

What is the clinical significance of intervertebral disk disease in dogs?

a)

It can cause pain, paralysis, and may require medical or surgical treatment.

b)

It only affects the skin and causes mild itching.

c)

It improves mobility and increases energy levels.

d)

It is a minor condition that resolves without intervention.

49.

Which vertebrae are labeled in the radiograph of a cat?

a)

A) Thoracic Vertebrae

b)

B) Lumbar Vertebrae

c)

C) Sacral Vertebrae

d)

D) Caudal Vertebrae

50.

What age-related change is shown in the radiograph of the lumbar spine of a dog?

a)

Spondylosis

b)

Intervertebral disc herniation

c)

Osteosarcoma

d)

Hip dysplasia

e)

Luxation

51.

What is the name of the bone labeled in the diagram?

a)

Scapula

b)

Femur

c)

Humerus

d)

Clavicle

52.

The sacrum is a group of three sacral vertebrae that fuses to support the pelvis.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Which part of the skeleton includes the bones of the forelimbs and hind limbs?

a)

Axial skeleton

b)

Appendicular skeleton

c)

Pelvic skeleton

d)

Thoracic skeleton

54.

In cats, the scapula does not have a bony connection to the axial skeleton.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

What is the clinical significance of the cat's ability to rotate its scapula and extend its front legs when falling from heights?

a)

It allows the cat to land gracefully and rarely break a leg, but it may break its lower jaw due to the high speed of the fall.

b)

It helps the cat to fly short distances and escape predators.

c)

It enables the cat to swim efficiently when falling into water.

d)

It causes the cat to lose balance and increases the risk of spinal injury.

56.

What is the upper bone of the forelimb called?

a)

Humerus

b)

Femur

c)

Radius

d)

Tibia

57.

How many carpal bones does a dog have?

a)

7

b)

5

c)

8

d)

6

58.

How many carpal bones do ruminants have?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

5

59.

How many carpal bones does a horse have?

a)

7 or 8

b)

5 or 6

c)

9 or 10

d)

3 or 4

60.

Which bone is labeled as running parallel to the radius in the forelimb of a dog?

a)

Ulna

b)

Humerus

c)

Metacarpals

d)

Carpal Bones

61.

Which bones are found distal to the metacarpals in a dog's forelimb?

a)

Carpal Bones

b)

Phalanges

c)

Ulna

d)

Radius

62.

Refer to the radiograph of the foot of a horse (Figure 3-19). Which bone is labeled as Phalanx 1 (P1)?

a)

The most distal bone

b)

The middle bone

c)

The most proximal bone

d)

The bone covered by the nail or hoof

63.
Question Image

Refer to the radiograph of the pelvis. Match the following anatomical terms to their locations:

a)

Uppermost part of the radiograph

1.

Sacrum

b)

Central region

2.

Pelvis

c)

Joint connecting pelvis and femur

3.

Hip Joint

d)

Lower part of the radiograph

4.

Femur

64.

Fill in the blank: The last phalanx is covered by the ______ or hoof.

a)

nail

b)

skin

c)

bone

d)

cartilage

65.

Which bones fuse into one structure as the ruminant embryo develops?

a)

First and second metacarpal bones

b)

Third and fourth metacarpal bones

c)

Phalanx 1 and Phalanx 2

d)

Ilium and ischium

66.

The pelvis is made of two halves. Each half divides into regions named the ______, ______, and ______.

a)

ilium, ischium, pubis

b)

ilium, sacrum, coccyx

c)

ischium, femur, tibia

d)

pubis, sacrum, femur

67.

FIGURE 3-21. The wings of the ilium (hooks) and the ischium (pins) can be observed on each side of the tail in the rump of a cow. Which bones are being identified in this description?

a)

Ilium and ischium

b)

Femur and tibia

c)

Scapula and humerus

d)

Radius and ulna

68.

Refer to the radiograph of the hind limb (Figure 3-22). Which bone is labeled as 'Femur'?

a)

A) The uppermost bone

b)

B) The lowermost bone

c)

C) The bone on the right

d)

D) The bone on the left.

69.

Refer to the photograph of the internal structure of the knee (Figure 3-23). What is identified by the probe in the image?

a)

The two cruciate ligaments

b)

The meniscus

c)

The patellar tendon

d)

The lateral collateral ligament

70.

Bone growth and remodeling in immature animals occurs through which process?

a)

Endochondral ossification and bone resorption

b)

Osteoarthritis development and cartilage breakdown

c)

Muscle hypertrophy and fat deposition

d)

Ligament stretching and joint fusion

71.

What is the function of the growth plate in young animals?

a)

The growth plate is the site where bone elongation occurs, allowing bones to grow longer as the animal matures.

b)

The growth plate is responsible for producing red blood cells in young animals.

c)

The growth plate helps in the absorption of nutrients from food in young animals.

d)

The growth plate acts as a protective layer against infections in young animals.

72.

What happens when the growth plate of the ulna closes prematurely in a basset hound?

a)

A) The radius grows straight

b)

B) The radius curves to fit between the other bones

c)

C) The humerus shortens

d)

D) The ulna lengthens

73.

What is the correct term used to describe the picture produced when a stream of x-rays is passed through a body part and exposes a piece of photographic film?

a)

Radiograph

b)

Photograph

c)

X-ray

d)

Radiology

74.

Which of the following tissues appear light on a radiograph because they are radiopaque?

a)

Fat

b)

Soft tissue

c)

Teeth and bone

d)

Mineral

75.

Arrange the following in order from most radiolucent to most radiopaque as seen in radiographs: air, fat, soft tissue or muscle, bone, mineral.

a)

Most radiolucent to most radiopaque: air, fat, soft tissue or muscle, bone, mineral.

b)

Most radiolucent to most radiopaque: mineral, bone, soft tissue or muscle, fat, air.

c)

Most radiolucent to most radiopaque: bone, mineral, soft tissue or muscle, fat, air.

d)

Most radiolucent to most radiopaque: fat, air, soft tissue or muscle, bone, mineral.

76.

What is the function of specially designed lead aprons and gloves during x-ray procedures?

a)

To minimize exposure to humans and prevent x-ray penetration.

b)

To enhance the clarity of x-ray images.

c)

To keep the patient warm during the procedure.

d)

To improve the comfort of the medical staff.

77.

What is the advantage of having a radiographic image as a computer file compared to old film methods?

a)

It allows for alterations in brightness, contrast, and size, and easy transfer of the image to a specialty clinic or radiologist for consultation.

b)

It makes the image less clear and harder to interpret.

c)

It increases the risk of losing the image due to physical damage.

d)

It requires more space for storage than traditional film.

78.

Refer to the image labeled 'FIGURE 3-25 Radiograph machine'. What is shown in the image?

a)

A radiograph machine used for taking x-rays.

b)

An ultrasound machine used for imaging soft tissues.

c)

A centrifuge used for separating blood components.

d)

A microscope used for viewing slides.

79.

Objective: Relate Bone and Muscle Groups to Movement. Bones and muscles work together to provide mobility to the body by:

a)

Muscles contract and pull on bones, causing movement at the joints.

b)

Bones contract and pull on muscles, causing movement at the joints.

c)

Muscles and bones both contract to create movement.

d)

Bones move independently to create mobility.

80.

What is a simple fracture?

a)

A simple fracture is when the bone is broken into two pieces, a clean break.

b)

A simple fracture is when the bone is shattered into many small pieces.

c)

A simple fracture is when the bone breaks and pierces through the skin.

d)

A simple fracture is when the bone bends but does not break.

81.

What is a comminuted fracture?

a)

A comminuted fracture results in several fragments of bone.

b)

A comminuted fracture is a break that does not involve bone fragments.

c)

A comminuted fracture is a simple crack in the bone.

d)

A comminuted fracture is a fracture that heals without intervention.

82.

What is a compound (open) fracture?

a)

A compound (open) fracture results when one of the bone ends punctures through the skin.

b)

A compound (open) fracture is a fracture that heals without medical intervention.

c)

A compound (open) fracture is a fracture where the bone bends but does not break.

d)

A compound (open) fracture is a fracture that only occurs in children.

83.

Which surgical method involves driving a stainless steel pin into the center of the broken tibia?

a)

Bone plate and screws

b)

Intramedullary pin

c)

Cerclage wire

d)

Cast or splint

84.

What is the purpose of cerclage wires in bone fracture repair?

a)

Cerclage wires are used to stabilize the pieces of bone by wrapping around the bone fragments.

b)

Cerclage wires are used to promote bone growth by releasing growth factors.

c)

Cerclage wires are used to prevent infection by acting as a barrier.

d)

Cerclage wires are used to replace missing bone tissue.

85.

What is the initial structure that forms at the fracture site and helps stabilize it during bone healing?

a)

Callus

b)

Osteon

c)

Ligament

d)

Cartilage

86.

After approximately two weeks, the callus at the fracture site is gradually replaced by what type of cell?

a)

Osteoblasts

b)

Chondrocytes

c)

Fibroblasts

d)

Adipocytes

87.

What method was used to repair the tibial fracture shown in the radiograph?

a)

Bone plate and screws

b)

Intramedullary pin

c)

Cerclage wire

d)

Cast or splint

88.

What is the name of the formation surrounding the site of the fracture in the radiograph of healing bone two months following surgery?

a)

Callus

b)

Osteoma

c)

Granuloma

d)

Fibroma

89.

What condition is shown in the radiograph of a dog, characterized by a shallow acetabulum and subluxation (partial dislocation) of the femur?

a)

Hip dysplasia

b)

Osteosarcoma

c)

Patellar luxation

d)

Intervertebral disc disease

90.

What is the most common treatment for mild cases of hip dysplasia in dogs?

a)

Anti-inflammatory medications

b)

Surgical hip replacement

c)

Physical therapy only

d)

High-protein diet

91.

Which of the following is NOT a reason that fractures do not heal properly?

a)

Bone infection

b)

Proper alignment and immobilization

c)

Open fracture

d)

Movement after surgery

92.

Degenerative joint disease in dogs is characterized by:

a)

A) Pain and lameness

b)

B) Trouble rising

c)

C) Both A and B

d)

D) None of the above

93.

Hip dysplasia is generally associated with large- and giant-breed dogs, but any dog can have it.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

What is the condition called that involves damage or degeneration of the navicular bone in horses, leading to lameness?

a)

Navicular syndrome

b)

Laminitis

c)

Colic

d)

Ringbone

95.

Aspirin can be used to treat hip dysplasia.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

The hinge joint allows rotation.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Dried bone consists of _____% inorganic and _____% organic material.

a)

70% inorganic and 30% organic material

b)

60% inorganic and 40% organic material

c)

50% inorganic and 50% organic material

d)

80% inorganic and 20% organic material

98.

The appendicular skeleton contains the bones of the _______.

a)

limbs

b)

skull

c)

vertebral column

d)

rib cage

99.

The smallest metacarpal bone in a dog is called the _______.

a)

dewclaw

b)

carpal pad

c)

metacarpal tubercle

d)

phalange