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Immunization and Public Health Basics

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which set correctly lists live attenuated vaccines?

a)

Measles, BCG, PCV

b)

Pentavalent, OPV, Measles

c)

OPV, BCG, Measles

d)

PCV, BCG, OPV

2.

Exposure of vaccines to light primarily reduces which characteristic?

a)

Efficiency

b)

Potency

c)

Efficacy

d)

Tolerance

3.

When a vaccine is inoculated, in the body it acts as which of the following?

a)

Antibodies

b)

Pathogens

c)

Mediators

d)

Antigens

4.

A practical remedy for low immunization coverage is most directly achieved through which action?

a)

Raising immunization coverage

b)

Social mobilization for immunization

c)

Maintaining cold chain

d)

Evaluating immunization program

5.

In pregnancy, glycosuria most strongly indicates which condition?

a)

Essential diabetes

b)

Essential hypertension

c)

Pregnancy haemodilution

d)

Gestational diabetes

6.

Which term names the type of immunity based on the production of immunological responses?

a)

Cellular immunity

b)

Allergic reaction

c)

Herd immunity

d)

Humoral immunity

7.

The Millennium Development Goals have been changed to which global agenda?

a)

Suitable development goals

b)

Sustainable development goals

c)

Supplemental development goals

d)

Supersession development goals

8.

Within an MCH/FP program, nutrition most directly addresses which activity?

a)

Immunization needs

b)

Managing diarrhea

c)

Treating anaemia

d)

Growth monitoring

9.

Home visiting includes the objective that the purpose should be clear. Is this statement true or false?

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Another objective of home visiting is to link the home with the health facility. Is this statement true or false?

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Which outreach health service activity is primarily helpful for defaulter tracing?

a)

Raising immunization coverage

b)

Defaulter tracing exercise

c)

Maintaining cold chain

d)

Community mobilization

12.

An out-of-stock phenomenon may result from which cause?

a)

Assessing immunization needs

b)

Collaboration with other sectors

c)

Expiring overstocked vaccines

d)

Availing supplies as required

13.

Vaccines inoculated into the body evoke the formation of which substances?

a)

Antigens

b)

Allergens

c)

Toxins

d)

Antibodies

14.

Which action is most strategic for improving immunization coverage at the community level?

a)

Conducting mass screening without follow-up

b)

Intensifying social mobilization campaigns and outreach

c)

Reducing cold chain monitoring to save resources

d)

Prioritizing only facility-based services

15.

A public health team finds frequent vaccine stock-outs. Which single corrective step would most directly prevent wastage-related stock-outs?

a)

Increase orders without forecasting

b)

Allow overstocking to expire to free storage

c)

Strengthen inventory practices to avoid overstock and expiry

d)

Stop collaboration with other sectors to simplify logistics

16.

Which KEPI principle specifically focuses on motivating the community to utilize health services?

a)

Education

b)

Surveillance

c)

Training

d)

Cold chain

17.

Tetanus toxoid vaccine administered to an antenatal mother confers which type of immunity to the fetus?

a)

Natural active

b)

Natural passive

c)

Artificial active

d)

Artificial passive

18.

At birth, the typical mid–upper arm circumference (MUAC) for a newborn is closest to which value?

a)

10 cm

b)

14 cm

c)

15 cm

d)

16 cm

19.

Which of the following are classified as direct obstetric deaths?

a)

Essential hypertension, Eclampsia

b)

Eclampsia, antepartum haemorrhage

c)

Cardiomegaly, essential hypertension

d)

Diabetes, postpartum haemorrhage

20.

During home visiting, being a guest means you should adopt which approach?

a)

Coerce the client to allow you in

b)

Be approachable and dignified

c)

Observe the customs of the area

d)

Remain silent and patient

21.

Anti-tetanus serum is primarily composed of which component?

a)

Antibodies

b)

Antigen

c)

Cells

d)

Toxins

22.

Select a cause of direct obstetric death from the following options.

a)

Essential hypertension

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Puerperal sepsis

d)

Heart disease

23.

The form of advocacy in which groups approach legislators to address significant social issues is known as what?

a)

Social justice

b)

Self advocacy

c)

Media advocacy

d)

Lobby advocacy

24.

Which option best represents the structural component of a rite of passage?

a)

Community socialization

b)

Societal recognition

c)

Reincorporation phase

d)

Group membership

25.

Minor repairs of cold chain equipment are typically carried out by which cadre?

a)

Clinical officer

b)

Public health officer

c)

District Public Health Nurse

d)

District Public Health Officer

26.

In the pentavalent vaccine, the diphtheria component is provided as which form?

a)

Bacterial toxins

b)

Live bacteria

c)

Dead bacteria

d)

Purified antigen

27.

Which statement best captures one purpose of a home visit?

a)

To link the home with the health facility

b)

To monitor static weight gain as an indication

c)

To enforce compliance with immunization schedules

d)

To replace clinic-based consultations entirely

28.

Which instrument monitors the refrigerator temperature in vaccine cold chain practice?

a)

Thermostat

b)

Dial thermometer

c)

Mercury thermometer

d)

Infrared thermometer

29.

Identify the appropriate etiquette for a health worker during home visiting.

a)

Announce authority and demand entry

b)

Be approachable and dignified toward the client

c)

Avoid local customs to remain neutral

d)

Speak only when asked by the head of household

30.

Which combination correctly lists conditions that are NOT direct obstetric deaths?

a)

Eclampsia and antepartum haemorrhage

b)

Cardiomegaly and essential hypertension

c)

Puerperal sepsis and postpartum haemorrhage

d)

Ruptured uterus and eclampsia

31.

Choose the accurate statement about advocacy approaches used to influence policy on social issues.

a)

Self advocacy relies on individuals representing only themselves to lawmakers

b)

Lobby advocacy involves organized groups approaching legislators

c)

Media advocacy excludes engagement with policymakers

d)

Social justice refers to a legal petition rather than policy dialogue

32.

Which of the following is a non-probability sampling method commonly used in community health studies?

a)

Purposive

b)

Quota

c)

Cluster

d)

Convenience

33.

Which list correctly identifies the standard measures of central tendency used in epidemiology and biostatistics?

a)

Mode, Mean, Median

b)

Mean, Range, Skew

c)

Range, Variance, Mode

d)

Median, Range, Mean

34.

In public health practice, community diagnosis primarily refers to which action?

a)

Engaging the people in their health problems

b)

Developing the people’s abilities to solve their health problems

c)

Solving the health problems in the community

d)

Deciding in consultation with the people their health priorities

35.

Analytical epidemiology is best described as the branch that

a)

Searches for causes of diseases

b)

Estimates the risks of diseases

c)

Describes the natural history of disease

d)

Identifies the affected cohorts

36.

Within community strategies, the Community Health Worker (CHW) is supported by which cadre?

a)

VHC

b)

CHEW

c)

DPHO

d)

DPHN

37.

Healthy communication in a family is demonstrated by which combination?

a)

Individual autonomy, total agreement, members cohesiveness

b)

Mutual decision-making, low self esteem, members cohesiveness

c)

Members cohesiveness, high self-esteem, individual autonomy

d)

Mutual decision making, total agreement, members cohesiveness

38.

Developmental tasks in a family are determined by the family’s

a)

Genogram

b)

Life cycle

c)

Socialization

d)

Cultural influence

39.

Which set correctly lists common demographic indicators used in population health assessment?

a)

Gender, occupation, age

b)

Education, births, migration

c)

Gender, births, occupation

d)

Deaths, migration, births

40.

The area of statistical inference where the relationship between variables is examined is a test of

a)

Estimation

b)

Significance

c)

Generalization

d)

Deviation

41.

In infectious disease epidemiology, the capability of an agent to attack any susceptible host is called

a)

Pathogenesis

b)

Virulence

c)

Pandemic

d)

Endemic

42.

Which list contains only non-probability sampling methods?

a)

Snowball, purposive, quota

b)

Cluster, convenience, sequential

c)

Purposive, systemic, convenience

d)

Sequential, quota, purposive

43.

Variance is defined as the

a)

Square root of the squared differences

b)

Squared differences from the mean

c)

Square root of the squared mean

d)

Square root of the standard deviation

44.

The magnitude of the disease burden in a community is commonly expressed as

a)

Incidence

b)

Prevalence

c)

Case fatality rate

d)

Attack rate

45.

Which term best expresses the magnitude of the disease burden in a community?

a)

Incidence

b)

Pandemic

c)

Endemicity

d)

Prevalence

46.

In epidemiology, which is an example of an observational study?

a)

Analytical epidemiology

b)

Experimental epidemiology

c)

Descriptive epidemiology

d)

Causal relationship analysis

47.

Which item is included within vital statistics records?

a)

Occupation

b)

Marriage

c)

Migration

d)

Education

48.

Natural increase rate plus net migration is equal to which demographic outcome?

a)

Emigration rate

b)

Immigration rate

c)

Population growth

d)

Fertility rate

49.

Which set correctly lists types of surveys commonly used in public health research?

a)

KAP, pilot, demographic

b)

Epidemicity, sporadic, baseline

c)

Demographic, incidence, KAP

d)

Sporadic, baseline, pilot

50.

Survey questions should primarily be based on which element to ensure relevance?

a)

Evaluation criteria

b)

Interviewers’ preferences

c)

Study objectives

d)

Respondent demographics

51.

The family is defined as a fundamental which of the following?

a)

Social aggregate

b)

Power structure

c)

Social buffer

d)

Basic unit

52.

An aging family has a major role in which area?

a)

Socializing the children

b)

Adjusting to retirement

c)

Cultivating leisure activities

d)

Promoting open communication

53.

Which list correctly identifies non-probability sampling methods?

a)

Snowball, purposive, quota

b)

Cluster, convenience, sequential

c)

Purposive, systemic, convenience

d)

Sequential, quota, purposive

54.

Variance is defined as which of the following?

a)

Square root of the squared differences

b)

Squared differences from the mean

c)

Square root of the squared mean

d)

Square root of the standard deviation

55.

In community health measurement, disease burden is most commonly communicated as which metric?

a)

Incidence

b)

Pandemic

c)

Endemicity

d)

Prevalence

56.

Which is an observational study in epidemiology?

a)

Analytical epidemiology

b)

Experimental epidemiology

c)

Descriptive epidemiology

d)

Causal relationship analysis

57.

Natural increase rate plus net migration is equal to which demographic measure?

a)

Emmigration rate

b)

Immigration rate

c)

Population growth

d)

Fertility rate

58.

Which set best lists types of surveys commonly used in community health research?

a)

KAP, pilot, demographic

b)

Epidemicity, sporadic, baseline

c)

Demographic, incidence, KAP

d)

Sporadic, baseline, pilot

59.

Survey questions should primarily be based on which element to ensure relevance?

a)

Evaluation

b)

Interviewers

c)

Objectives

d)

Respondents

60.

The family is defined as a fundamental what within society?

a)

Social aggregate

b)

Power structure

c)

Social buffer

d)

Basic unit

61.

Which major role is most characteristic of an aging family?

a)

Socializing the children

b)

Adjusting to retirement

c)

Cultivating leisure activities

d)

Promoting open communication

62.

Which grouping correctly identifies key demographic variables?

a)

Gender, occupation, age

b)

Migration, deaths, births

c)

Occupation, deaths, education

d)

Births, age, gender

63.

Healthy communication in a family is best demonstrated by which behavior?

a)

Individual low self-esteem

b)

Focus on many issues

c)

Total agreement on issues

d)

Focus on one issue

64.

In statistical inference, estimates primarily address which component?

a)

Approach

b)

Discussion

c)

Hypothesis

d)

Variables

65.

Collected data organized according to magnitude is called what?

a)

Data array

b)

Raw data

c)

Tabulated data

d)

Analysed data

66.

Which of the following is an example of endogenous chemicals in epidemiology?

a)

Allergens, urea, fumes

b)

Bilirubin, ketones, urea

c)

Metal, allergens, gases

d)

Insecticides, ketones, bilirubin

67.

The number of children with scabies in a study sample represents which type of data?

a)

Qualitative

b)

Quantitative

c)

Cumulative

d)

Correlative

68.

In a family, self-esteem may be expressed as which individual attribute?

a)

Autonomy

b)

Occupation

c)

Gender

d)

Restrictions

69.

A baseline survey is the same as which activity?

a)

Monitoring activities

b)

Needs assessment

c)

Data analysis

d)

Decision making

70.

On a map, distances are indicated by which feature?

a)

Scale

b)

Symbols

c)

Key

d)

Numbers

71.

The Community Health Extended Worker (CHEW) is directly supervised by which entity?

a)

Community health worker

b)

Community development committee

c)

Village health committee

d)

District health management team

72.

Which is a characteristic of unhealthy communication in a family?

a)

Total agreement

b)

Socializing children

c)

Personal autonomy

d)

Tolerating errors

73.

The process of progressive structural transformation over time in a family is referred to as what?

a)

Autonomy

b)

Procreation

c)

Development

d)

Growth

74.

Which of the following is a demographic indicator?

a)

Migration

b)

Occupation

c)

Birth

d)

Gender

75.

Standard deviation is defined as which of the following?

a)

Square root of the squared differences from the mean

b)

Average of raw scores

c)

Sum of absolute deviations

d)

Median of ordered data

76.

Which hypothesis states there is no relationship among variables under study?

a)

Null hypothesis

b)

Standard deviation

c)

Alternative hypothesis

d)

Statistical inference

77.

In community settings, which function is associated with the Red Cross?

a)

Capacity building

b)

Conducting research

c)

Relief programming

d)

Building roads

78.

In epidemiology, the question “who is affected by a particular disease” refers to which aspect?

a)

The cause

b)

Predisposing factors

c)

The cohort

d)

Geographical area

79.

Which set lists physical agents in epidemiology?

a)

Humidity, cold, pressure

b)

Helminth, radiation, sounds

c)

Heat, allergens, injuries

d)

Fumes, heat, radiation

80.

Dental transplant using a patient’s own teeth is called:

a)

Homotransplant

b)

Herotransplant

c)

Autotransplant

d)

Intrusion

81.

Black spots on teeth due to destruction of enamel are:

a)

Dental plaque

b)

Dental caries

c)

Cancer sores

d)

Impacted tooth

82.

Acute infection of the socket is:

a)

Alveolitis

b)

Pericolonitis

c)

Gingivitis

d)

Pulpitis

83.

The crown part of the tooth includes which structures?

a)

Periosteum, enamel, pulp

b)

Dentine, pulp, cementum

c)

Gums, dentine, enamel

d)

Enamel, cementum, dentine

84.

Posteriorly, the oral cavity is bordered by:

a)

Palate

b)

Pharynx

c)

Tongue

d)

Cheeks

85.

Which combination best describes the functions of the tongue?

a)

Taste, digestion, deglutition

b)

Mastication, taste, deglution

c)

Speech, mastication, digestion

d)

Deglutition, smell, speech

86.

Total lack of tooth development is called:

a)

Anodontia

b)

Oligodontia

c)

Hypodontia

d)

Hyperdontia

87.

Necrotizing gingivitis should be irrigated with:

a)

Procain penicillin

b)

Hydrogen peroxide

c)

Sodium carbonate

d)

Normal saline

88.

Which option correctly distinguishes null hypothesis from alternative hypothesis in public health research?

a)

Null: assumes a relationship exists; Alternative: assumes no relationship

b)

Null: assumes no relationship; Alternative: proposes a relationship

c)

Null: descriptive statement; Alternative: statistical inference

d)

Null: prediction; Alternative: parameter estimate

89.

Choose the best example of a physical agent that can influence disease occurrence.

a)

Humidity variations affecting respiratory conditions

b)

Helminth worms in contaminated water

c)

Allergens triggering immune responses

d)

Cohort selection in a longitudinal study

90.

In disaster response, which activity aligns most with Red Cross relief programming?

a)

Publishing peer-reviewed studies

b)

Training bridge construction crews

c)

Distributing emergency supplies to affected families

d)

Launching a long-term economic policy

91.

Which clinical condition most likely presents after tooth extraction with a painful empty socket?

a)

Gingivitis

b)

Alveolitis

c)

Pulpitis

d)

Pericolonitis

92.

Which option best represents a psychosomatic type of illness in the workplace, characterized by symptoms influenced by psychological factors?

a)

Bipolar disorder

b)

Frontal headache

c)

Broncho pneumonia

d)

Chemical burns

93.

Identify the chemical type of occupational hazard from the list.

a)

Cane fiber

b)

Peptic ulcer

c)

Interpersonal conflict

d)

Ionizing radiation

94.

Teeth that are smaller than the usual size are referred to as:

a)

Hyperplasia

b)

Macrodontia

c)

Microdontia

d)

Hypoplasia

95.

Which set correctly lists rehabilitative services in dental health?

a)

Extraction, flossing, apicectomy

b)

Implants, fillings, dentures

c)

Debridement, fillings, extraction

d)

Apicectomy, dentures, flossing

96.

Localized toothache is most commonly caused by which condition?

a)

Cavity

b)

Abscess

c)

Decay

d)

Plaque

97.

Pain from a canker sore is aggravated by which trigger?

a)

Cold food

b)

Spiced food

c)

Tapping the tooth

d)

Sucking cold air

98.

The root canal that drains pus opens at the base called the:

a)

Dental periosteum

b)

Alveolar process

c)

Pulp cavity

d)

Apical foramen

99.

The deposit that forms on teeth due to poor oral hygiene is called:

a)

Tartar

b)

Debris

c)

Gingivae

d)

Papillae

100.

An Occupational Health Nurse primarily restores health by providing:

a)

Protective devices

b)

Curative services

c)

Health messages

d)

Rehabilitative services

101.

The tooth anomaly where a tooth appears within a tooth is termed:

a)

Talon cusp

b)

Dentin dysplasia

c)

Dens invaginatus

d)

Cusp of carabelli

102.

One element of Primary Health Care (PHC) is:

a)

Training medical specialists

b)

Controlling endemic conditions

c)

Training community health workers

d)

Managing in minor surgeries

103.

The primary purpose of one-to-one teaching is to:

a)

Understand the client more

b)

Be friendly and understanding

c)

Solve the problem of the client

d)

Provide general health messages

104.

Which scenario best illustrates a psychosomatic illness at work rather than a structural injury?

a)

A lab technician develops chemical burns after a spill

b)

A clerk experiences recurrent frontal headaches during periods of stress

c)

A warehouse worker sustains a fracture from a fall

d)

A nurse acquires bronchopneumonia after exposure to infected patients

105.

A factory introduces controls to reduce ionizing radiation exposure. This initiative targets which category of occupational hazard?

a)

Physical

b)

Chemical

c)

Biological

d)

Psychosocial

106.

Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed most effectively in the presence of which substance?

a)

Plasma proteins

b)

Protein enzymes

c)

Bile salts

d)

Fat globules

107.

In Health Administration, the guideposts that direct decision-making are referred to as what?

a)

Objectives

b)

Policies

c)

Principles

d)

Mission

108.

The noise produced primarily by inspiratory airway obstruction is termed what?

a)

Rhonchi

b)

Rale

c)

Wheeze

d)

Stridor

109.

Which role best describes the responsibility of a District Public Health Nurse (DPHN)?

a)

Supervise nutrition activities in the District

b)

Supervise environmental health activities in the district

c)

Supervise nursing education activities in the District

d)

Supervise nursing care activities in the District

110.

Which set lists immunizable diseases?

a)

Pneumonia, Diphtheria, Tetanus

b)

Malaria, Poliomyelitis, Tuberculosis

c)

Poliomyelitis, Typhoid, Pertussis

d)

Dysentery, Meningitis, Diphtheria

111.

Surveillance in public health is categorized as which type of prevention?

a)

Primary prevention

b)

Secondary prevention

c)

Tertiary prevention

112.

Trichomoniasis is a protozoan disease, and syphilis is also protozoan. Evaluate the correctness of both statements.

a)

Both statements are true

b)

First is true; second is false

c)

First is false; second is true

d)

Both statements are false

113.

Osteomalacia is due to deficiency of vitamin C, and keratomalacia is due to deficiency of vitamin A. Evaluate these statements.

a)

Both statements are true

b)

First is true; second is false

c)

First is false; second is true

d)

Both statements are false

114.

The liver requires vitamin K to synthesize which coagulation factor?

a)

Bile

b)

Albumin

c)

Fibrinogen

d)

Prothrombin

115.

Which combination best represents approaches in Health Education?

a)

Mass media, one-to-one, group teaching

b)

One-to-one, home visit, lecture

c)

Demonstration, meetings, home visiting

d)

Role play, one-to-one, mass media

116.

Chancroid lesions are typically described as what?

a)

Soft and painful

b)

Hard and painful

c)

Soft and painless

d)

Hard and painless

117.

By-laws are also called what?

a)

Bill of rights

b)

Act of parliament

c)

Delegated legislation

d)

Assent by president

118.

Chemoprophylaxis is categorized under which type of service?

a)

Curative service

b)

Preventive service

c)

Promotive service

119.

Fat-soluble vitamin absorption depends on micelle formation facilitated by a specific substance. Which option names that facilitator?

a)

Bile salts

b)

Pancreatic amylase

c)

Gastric acid

d)

Serum globulins

120.

In a district-wide infectious disease monitoring program, classifying routine case-finding and data analysis most directly aligns with which prevention level?

a)

Primary—eliminating exposures before disease onset

b)

Secondary—detecting and tracking disease to limit spread

c)

Tertiary—rehabilitating after disease causes disability

121.

Which measure specifically interrupts the mode of disease transmission?

a)

Disinfection and sterilization

b)

Immunization of specific infection

c)

Taking nutritious diet

d)

Sleeping under mosquito net

122.

Counseling is described as a helping relationship in which the counselor assists the counselee through what process?

a)

Advice

b)

Coercion

c)

Interaction

d)

Persuasion

123.

The type of tinea that affects the nails is termed which of the following?

a)

Corpolis

b)

Uunguim

c)

Intergiditalis

d)

Capitis

124.

According to the material, which individuals are included among behaviorist theorists?

a)

A. Bandura

b)

J. Brunner

c)

B. F. Skinner

d)

B. S. Bloom

125.

Teaching is defined as which of the following?

a)

Process of helping to shape learners life

b)

Deliberate effort of changing behaviour pattern of a person

c)

Process of helping individual to acquire more information

d)

Deliberate effort aimed at inducing learning

126.

In curriculum development, a job description entails primarily which element?

a)

Title, specific functions of a worker

b)

Actions required to complete a task

c)

Dividing down task into subtasks

d)

Knowledge required in a task

127.

As an element of an educational objective, criterion is defined as which of the following?

a)

Data, limitations and restrictions

b)

Acceptable level of performance

c)

Description of task to be accomplished

d)

Condition under which performance occur

128.

Which option presents the correct sequence of the learning process?

a)

Attention, perception, application, retention, transfer

b)

Attention, retention, perception, acquisition, transfer

c)

Perception, attention, application, retention, transfer

d)

Attention, perception, acquisition, retention, transfer

129.

The final step of problem-based learning involves which activity?

a)

Definition of terms, clarifying concepts

b)

Self-directed learning, group discussion

c)

Synthesis, presentation of information

d)

Solution of problems, group discussion

130.

A valid evaluation tool is characterized by which feature?

a)

Measure what is supposed to measure

b)

Should be accurate and consistent

c)

Should be free from individual bias

d)

Practical in terms of resources and time

131.

Which is a stated purpose of a handout as a teaching aid?

a)

It tells a story in which you can see things happen

b)

For visual stimulation and attract attention

c)

Start using right attitude and expression from start

d)

Indicate and define the area to be covered

132.

Which method is identified as effective for evaluating attitudes?

a)

Objective questions

b)

Likert scale

c)

Open essays

d)

Restricted essays

133.

A midwife who handled a delivery en route to the delivery room later learned to monitor future partographs using which experiential approach?

a)

Practical

b)

Critical incident

c)

Simulation

d)

Individual learning

134.

Discovery learning is most closely associated with which theorist?

a)

B. S. Bloom

b)

Thorndike

c)

J. Brunner

d)

Skinner

135.

What is identified as the first step of problem-based learning?

a)

Definition of terms and clarifying concepts

b)

Self-directed learning and group discussion

c)

Synthesis and presentation of information

d)

Solution of problems with group discussion

136.

Formative evaluation aims primarily at which outcome for learners?

a)

Ability to integrate and apply learning

b)

Level of development of independent learning

c)

Level of development of the right attitude

d)

Progress toward demonstrating competence

137.

A well-structured learning objective should describe which trio of elements?

a)

Condition, learner, result

b)

Performance, condition, criteria

c)

Content, performance, evaluation

d)

Criteria, evaluation, content

138.

Which set best represents projected teaching aids?

a)

Films, flip chart, slides

b)

Slides, LCD projector, videotape

c)

Photography, models, videotapes

d)

Posters, puppet, cartoons

139.

In problem-based learning, which action most appropriately follows clarifying concepts?

a)

Identify learning issues and plan self-directed study

b)

Jump directly to solution generation

c)

Write summative assessment items

d)

Evaluate attitudes through observation

140.

Which option best exemplifies formative evaluation evidence for competence progress?

a)

A single end-of-course exam score

b)

Ongoing feedback demonstrating improved task performance

c)

Personality inventory rating

d)

Attendance percentage only

141.

Which item is NOT typically a projected aid?

a)

LCD projector

b)

Videotape

c)

Flip chart

d)

Slides

142.

Which statement best matches discovery learning as advocated by Bruner?

a)

Learners memorize predefined facts from lectures

b)

Learners actively construct knowledge by exploring concepts

c)

Instructors reinforce behavior through external rewards

d)

Assessment is limited to recall of definitions

143.

When drafting objectives using performance–condition–criteria, which component specifies the acceptable standard?

a)

Performance

b)

Condition

c)

Criteria

d)

Content

144.

Which teaching scenario most closely matches a critical incident learning approach for a midwife?

a)

Practicing on a simulator under controlled conditions

b)

Reviewing a specific challenging case to analyze decisions

c)

Reading a textbook chapter on partographs

d)

Attending a general skills workshop without case review

145.

Which assessment purpose aligns with formative evaluation rather than summative?

a)

Certifying achievement at the end of a course

b)

Ranking students for final grades

c)

Providing feedback to guide ongoing improvement

d)

Determining eligibility for graduation

146.

Select the best next step in PBL after self-directed learning has occurred.

a)

Return to group to synthesize and present information

b)

Move to final grading without discussion

c)

Repeat the problem statement verbatim

d)

Switch to unrelated case study

147.

Which combination most accurately lists non-projected visual aids?

a)

Posters, puppets, cartoons

b)

Slides, LCD projector, videotape

c)

Films, flip chart, slides

d)

Photography, models, videotapes

148.

In writing objectives, which element states the circumstances under which the learner performs?

a)

Performance

b)

Condition

c)

Criteria

d)

Evaluation

149.

Which evaluation evidence best indicates development of the right attitude?

a)

Checklist of observed respectful behaviors during practice

b)

Multiple-choice test of definitions

c)

Number of videos watched

d)

Count of slides presented

150.

Which PBL step most directly focuses on generating and testing possible solutions?

a)

Definition of terms and clarifying concepts

b)

Self-directed learning and group discussion

c)

Synthesis and presentation of information

d)

Solution of problems with group discussion