What is the neurotransmitter released by sympathetic preganglionic neurons?

Which of the following correctly describes neurotransmission at sympathetic postganglionic neurons to most target organs?

Which of the following postganglionic sympathetic fibres release acetylcholine instead of noradrenaline?

Damage to which structure is most likely to cause Horner's syndrome?

The adrenal medulla is directly innervated by:

Which of the following correctly describes referred pain?

Which symptom is not part of Horner's syndrome?

A lesion at T1 spinal cord level would most likely affect which function?

The dilator pupillae muscle is supplied by sympathetic fibres that:

Which statement best describes the neurotransmission at the adrenal medulla?

A lesion at the level of the inferior cervical (stellate) ganglion would most likely affect which function?

Which neurotransmitter and receptor pair is correctly matched for sympathetic postganglionic fibres to the sweat glands?

Which cranial nerve carries parasympathetic fibres that synapse in the ciliary ganglion?

A 65-year-old man develops left-sided ptosis and miosis after a Pancoast tumour. The lesion likely involves which of the following?

Which of the following best explains why visceral pain is poorly localised?

Which of the following is most consistent with a lesion of the superior cervical ganglion?

Which best describes the pathway of sympathetic fibres responsible for pupillary dilation?

A 30-year-old woman has an absent sweating response on one side of the face following thyroidectomy. The most likely injured structure is:

Which of the following correctly pairs the ganglion with its primary function or target?

Which of the following correctly describes the general outflow of the parasympathetic nervous system?

Which neurotransmitter is released by both preganglionic and postganglionic parasympathetic neurones?

At the parasympathetic ganglion, acetylcholine binds to which receptor type?

Which cranial nerve carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to the ciliary ganglion?

The pterygopalatine ganglion receives parasympathetic fibres from which cranial nerve nucleus?

Which gland receives parasympathetic innervation via the lesser petrosal nerve?

Which cranial nerve branch carries postganglionic fibres to the lacrimal gland?

The submandibular ganglion receives preganglionic fibres via which nerve?

Which nucleus gives rise to parasympathetic fibres innervating the heart?

Which of the following correctly matches a cranial nucleus with its target ganglion?

A 68-year-old man develops a right dilated pupil that does not constrict to light. Examination reveals ptosis and diplopia. Which structure is most likely affected?

Parasympathetic postganglionic fibres to the parotid gland travel within which branch of the trigeminal nerve?

A lesion of the greater petrosal nerve would most likely cause which deficit?

Which cranial nerve carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibres originating from the inferior salivatory nucleus?

A 45-year-old patient presents with unilateral dry nasal mucosa and loss of lacrimation but normal salivation. The lesion most likely involves:

Postganglionic parasympathetic fibres innervating the ciliary muscle originate in which ganglion?

A researcher applies a muscarinic receptor antagonist to the eye. Which physiological response would most likely occur?

Which nucleus primarily controls parasympathetic innervation to the gastrointestinal tract?

A lesion of the chorda tympani would lead to which combination of findings?

Which parasympathetic ganglion receives fibres that travel in the lesser petrosal nerve before synapsing?

Which hypothalamic nuclei are primarily involved in the regulation of circadian rhythms?

The paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus primarily produce which hormones?

Which hypothalamic region primarily promotes feeding behaviour when stimulated?

Which hypothalamic area is most associated with sympathetic nervous system regulation?

The nucleus tractus solitarius (NTS) in the medulla receives afferent input from which nerve?

During the baroreceptor reflex, activation of the caudal ventrolateral medulla (CVLM):

Which structure provides parasympathetic output to the heart via the vagus nerve?

During the chemoreceptor reflex, the NTS directly activates which nucleus to increase sympathetic activity?

Which of the following best describes the function of the mammillary bodies?

The rostral ventral respiratory group (rVRG) primarily influences which muscle?

Which hypothalamic nucleus receives major retinal input to synchronise circadian rhythms with light-dark cycles?

Which hypothalamic region primarily integrates signals to maintain satiety after feeding?

During the baroreceptor reflex, which neurotransmitter is released by caudal ventrolateral medulla neurons?

Which hypothalamic nucleus directly influences posterior pituitary hormone release via axonal transport?

Lesions of the anterior hypothalamus would most likely cause which clinical feature?

Which of the following nuclei provides tonic sympathetic drive to maintain baseline vasomotor tone?

In the chemoreceptor reflex, stimulation of the NTS results in which immediate autonomic effect?

Damage to the mammillary bodies is most likely to result in which of the following?

Which hypothalamic–brainstem pathway mediates parasympathetic output during the baroreceptor reflex?

During inspiration, which brainstem nucleus drives phrenic motor neurons to activate the diaphragm?

Which of the following structures does not form part of the diencephalon?

Which of the following sensory modalities does not relay through the thalamus before reaching the cerebral cortex?

The ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus of the thalamus receives sensory information primarily from:

Which thalamic nucleus is part of the visual pathway?

The blood supply to the thalamus is mainly provided by branches of which arteries?

Which part of the internal capsule primarily carries corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts?

Which artery most commonly causes lacunar infarcts affecting the internal capsule?

A stroke involving the posterior limb of the internal capsule most likely results in:

The anterior limb of the internal capsule connects which structures?

Which clinical feature would most likely exclude an internal capsule stroke?

A patient has a small lacunar infarct involving the ventral posteromedial (VPM) nucleus. Which of the following findings is most likely?

Which of the following arteries most specifically supplies the posterior limb of the internal capsule?

A lesion of the anterior limb of the internal capsule would most likely affect which functional pathway?

Which thalamic nucleus has strong reciprocal connections with the prefrontal cortex, integrating sensory and motor information for cognition?

Which of the following best describes the reticular nucleus of the thalamus?

A pure motor stroke with contralateral face, arm, and leg weakness but no cortical signs most likely involves which region?

A lesion of the retrolentiform part of the internal capsule would primarily affect which pathway?

A stroke affecting the posterior cerebral artery (PCA) may result in damage to which thalamic function?

Which statement best explains why internal capsule lesions can cause both motor and sensory deficits simultaneously?

A patient with contralateral hemiplegia but preserved language, vision, and eye movements most likely has an infarct in which artery?

Aδ fibres primarily transmit which type of sensation?

Where are the cell bodies of primary somatosensory neurons from the trunk and limbs located?

Fine touch and conscious proprioception from the lower limb ascend in which structure?

Which pathway decussates (crosses) in the medulla?

Which sensory modality is transmitted via the spinothalamic tract?

Rapidly adapting receptors are important for:

A patient withdraws their hand immediately from a hot surface and feels sharp pain, followed later by a dull ache. The delayed dull pain is carried by:

A lesion in the left lateral spinothalamic tract at T8 will result in loss of:

Two-point discrimination is best where:

In Brown-Séquard syndrome affecting the left side at T10, which deficit is expected below the lesion?

A 32-year-old man has reduced vibration and joint position sense in his right leg, but pain and temperature are preserved. The lesion is most likely in which tract?

Damage to the principal sensory nucleus of CN V would result in loss of:

A complete lesion of the left medial lemniscus in the pons will produce sensory loss on which side and modality?

A slowly adapting stretch receptor in a muscle spindle primarily signals:

Which of the following statements regarding spinocerebellar tracts is correct?

Which receptor type does not adapt to a sustained stimulus?

A right-sided lesion of the lateral spinothalamic tract at C6 results in:

A patient has bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the level of C8 only. The most likely cause is:

Which best explains improved two-point discrimination at the fingertips?

A lesion of the left dorsal column at T12 will cause:

A lesion of the lateral corticospinal tract in the spinal cord causes which motor deficit?

Which finding is most consistent with an upper motor neuron lesion?

Which tract is responsible for reflexive head and eye movement in response to visual stimuli?

Decussation of the lateral corticospinal tract occurs at the:

The ventral corticospinal tract is best described as:

A patient presents with forehead sparing facial weakness. Where is the lesion?

The rubrospinal tract primarily:

Which feature is characteristic of a lower motor neuron lesion?

Which tract is most important for maintaining posture and anti-gravity extension?

During a patellar tendon reflex, which type of reflex arc is primarily involved?

A patient has a right-sided lesion of the lateral corticospinal tract at T10. What motor deficit is expected?

Which part of the brain does the corticobulbar tract primarily synapse with?

A stroke affecting the superior colliculus disrupts which tract?

Damage to the medial vestibulospinal tract would most impair:

A lesion affecting the medullary reticulospinal tract would most likely cause:

Which finding suggests a lesion of the ventral corticospinal tract?

Which motor tract primarily crosses immediately in the midbrain?

A positive Babinski sign indicates dysfunction of which neuronal group?

Which tract is most involved in modulating automatic posture control during quiet standing?

A patient presents with unilateral complete facial paralysis including inability to raise their eyebrow. The lesion is most likely:

A 58-year-old man has weakness, increased tone in the right arm, brisk reflexes and an upgoing plantar response. Which is the most likely cause?

Which feature is most characteristic of a lower motor neuron lesion?

A 66-year-old diabetic patient has progressive numbness in both feet and difficulty with balance. Examination shows reduced ankle reflexes and loss of vibration sense bilaterally. What is the most likely pattern?

A 22-year-old returns from a viral illness and develops ascending weakness over 48 hours. FVC is reduced. What is the next best step?

Which test best confirms a demyelinating peripheral neuropathy such as GBS?

Which is a key UMN feature seen in spasticity?

Which medication is commonly used to manage generalised spasticity?

Which drug carries a risk of hepatotoxicity when used for spasticity?

A patient has mixed UMN and LMN signs in the same limb. No sensory loss. Which diagnosis is most likely?

Which of the following is a typical early feature of MND?

A 45-year-old man presents with progressive foot drop and distal wasting in both legs. Reflexes are absent at the ankles. Sensation is intact. His father had a similar problem. Nerve conduction studies show uniformly reduced conduction velocity. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

A patient has acute facial palsy affecting the entire left side of the face, including inability to close the eye. Sensation is normal. Which site is most likely affected?

A 28-year-old presents with painful mononeuritis multiplex. Blood tests show positive ANCA. What is the most likely underlying pathology?

A patient with rapidly progressive ascending weakness has normal sensory examination, but nerve conduction studies show preserved sensory conduction with reduced CMAP amplitude and absent F-waves. What subtype of GBS is most likely?

A patient post-stroke has severe lower limb spasticity limiting transfers. Tone worsens when in pain. Which is the most appropriate first management step?

A patient taking baclofen for spasticity abruptly stops it before surgery. What is the most likely risk?

Which drug is most associated with first-dose hypotension in spasticity management?

A patient with MND asks about prognosis. Which statement is most accurate?

Which clinical test most reliably detects UMN-mediated hyperreflexia?

A patient with progressive bulbar weakness, absent gag reflex, and tongue fasciculations is diagnosed with Progressive Bulbar Palsy (PBP). What feature supports UMN involvement in PBP?