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Human anatomy and Physiology FINAL EXAM

Total questions: 145

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements is FALSE

a)

Ions Cannot cross the phospholipid bilayer without the help of transport proteins

b)

Small charged glucose molecules are hydrophilic and interact with the partial charges of water

c)

Glucose can easily pass through the cell membrane

d)

water can enter cells by osmosis. It predominantly enters through aquaporins

2.

Beta cells in the pancreas produce and secrete the protein hormone insulin. You would expect to see a relatively large amount of what organelle in these cells?

a)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum, and lysosomes

b)

mitochondria, and cilia

c)

golgi apparatus, rough endoplasmic reticulum

d)

cytoskeleton and peroxisomes

3.

Which of the following statements regarding the membrane potential is false?

a)

The Na+ - K+ pump has a small direct effect on the membrane potential by pumping more charged ions to the exterior than it pumps into the cell

b)

no energy is required to maintain the membrane potential

c)

It is mainly established by K+ diffusion through leakage channels

d)

It is maintained by the Na+-K pump

4.

Which of the following answers best describes the four tissue types found in the human body

a)

Epithelial, muscular, connective, and mesenchymal tissue

b)

Epithelial, muscular, connective, and bone tissue

c)

Epithelial, muscular, connective, and nervous tissue.

d)

blood, nervous, connective, and glandular tissue

5.

Which of the following organs would be found in the left iliac region

a)

stomach

b)

liver

c)

appendix

d)

intestines

6.

The parietal pleura would represent a serous membrane

a)

covering the individual lungs

b)

lining the thoracic cavity

c)

covering the heart

d)

lining the abdominal cavity

7.

In which body cavities are the lungs located?

a)

pericardial,ventral, and thoracic.

b)

mediastinal, thoracic, and ventral

c)

pleural, ventral, and thoracic

d)

pleural, dorsal, and abdominal

8.

Which of the following are regulated by positive feedback mechanisms

a)

Labor contractions, blood pH

b)

blood glucose, formation of platelet plugs

c)

blood pH, labor contractions and formation of platelet plugs

d)

labor contractions, formation of platelet plugs

9.

What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right called

a)

frontal

b)

regional

c)

sagittal

d)

transverse

10.

Which of the following describes the operation of the heart and blood vessels

a)

Systematic anatomy

b)

cardiovascular anatomy

c)

cardiovascular physiology

d)

systemic physiology

11.

Our body temperature is regulated by a homeostatic control system. Our sweat glands _______

a)

Function as effectors

b)

Function as receptors

c)

function as control centers

d)

sent information along the afferent pathway to the control center

12.

Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and skeletal muscles in the form of

a)

glucose

b)

triglycerides

c)

glycogen

d)

glucagon

13.

which of the following is a major positive ion outside cells?

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Magnesium

d)

Chloride

14.

What structural level is represented by the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain

a)

primary structure

b)

secondary structure

c)

tertiary structure

d)

quaternary structure

15.

Carbohydrates and proteins are built up from their basic building blocks by the

a)

addition of water molecule between each two units

b)

removal of a carbon atom between each two units

c)

removal of a water molecule between each two units

d)

addition of a carbon atom between each two units

16.

Which of the following statements regarding chemical reactions is FALSE?

a)

chemical reactions proceed more quickly at higher temperatures

b)

larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully

c)

catalysts increase the rate of chemical reaction, sometimes while undergoing reversible changes in shape

d)

chemical reactions progress at a faster rate when the reacting particles present are in higher numbers

17.

Four elements that make up about 96% of body weight are

a)

Sodium, Potassium, Hydrogen, Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen, Hydrogen, Calcium, Sodium

c)

Carbon, Oxygen, Phosphorus, Calcium

d)

Carbon, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Hydrogen

18.

A patient is hyperventilating. The "Blowing off" of excessive carbon dioxide causes a decrease in blood H+ concentration. How can the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system function to correct this imbalance? H2CO3 <--> H+ + HCO3-

a)

H2CO3 dissociates to form more H+ and raise pH

b)

HCO3- binds with H+ to form H2CO3 and lower pH

c)

HCO3- binds with H+ to form H2CO3 and raise pH

d)

H2CO3 dissociates to form more H+ and lower the pH

19.

Phospholipids make up most of the lipid part of the cell membrane. Since water exists on both the outside and the inside of a cell, which of the following phospholipid arrangements makes the most sense?

a)

A single layer of phospholipids with the polar heads facing inside the cell

b)

A single layer of phospholipids with the polar heads facing outside the cell

c)

Two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the polar heads facing out on both sides

d)

wo back-to-back phospholipid layers with the non-polar tails facing out on both sides

20.

A red blood cell placed in a hypertonic solution would

a)

Shrink

b)

Neither shrink nor swell

c)

swell and burst

d)

swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached

21.

Which of the following statements regarding facilitated diffusion is correct

a)

It requires carrier or channel proteins

b)

It cannot transport glucose

c)

it always requires ATP

d)

It only transports water molecules

22.

Which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein

a)

circulating antibody

b)

forms a lipid bilayer

c)

oxygen transport

d)

molecular transport through the membrane

23.

Which of the following would NOT be a constituent of a plasma membrane?

a)

Glycoproteins

b)

Glycolipids

c)

messenger RNA

d)

phospholipids

24.

Peroxisomes ________

a)

are implicated in active transport

b)

are implicated in endocytosis

c)

contain digestive enzymes

d)

neutralize free radicals

25.

Which of the following is a function of lysosomes

a)

Hormone synthesis

b)

manufacture lipids

c)

help in the formation of cell membranes

d)

degrading and recycling worn-out or nonfunctional organelles

26.

Which of the following statements regarding active transport is FALSE

a)

Primary active transport moves oxygen into cells

b)

secondary active transport is driven by the energy stored in concentration gradients

c)

The sodium-potassium pump is an example of primary active transport

d)

Primary active transport requires ATP

27.

The myocardium must rhythmically contract for a lifetime. This requires a considerable amount of energy production by the cells. You would expect to see a relatively high amount of which organelle in these cells?

a)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

b)

mitochondria

c)

cytoskeleton

d)

lysosomes

28.

A covalent bond is based on

a)

strong electrostatic forces

b)

weak electrostatic forces

c)

sharing of electrons

d)

interaction between positively charged protons and negatively charged electrons

29.

Hydrogen bonds are NOT present in

a)

DNA

b)

Water

c)

lipids

d)

proteins

30.

Which of the following regarding radioisotopes are FALSE

a)

They emit radiation that can be utilized to target localized tumors

b)

They emit heat that can be utilized in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

c)

They can be utilized in cancer diagnosis

d)

They emit radiation that is harmful to normal cells

31.

Which of the following are negative feedback mechanisms

a)

A;Regulation of body temperature

b)

B;regulation of blood pressure

c)

C;Regulation of Blood glucose

d)

A and C

e)

A,B and C

32.

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a)

Cell adhesion molecules are a type of membrane protein implicated in cell-to-cell interactions

b)

Enzymes are proteins that speed up chemical reactions in our body

c)

Proteins that facilitate transport across the membrane always hydrolyze ATP as an energy source.

d)

Some membrane proteins interact with cytoskeleton and extracellular matrix to maintain cell shape

33.

Which of the following statements regarding cell junctions is FALSE?

a)

Gap junctions are important in heart cells

b)

Gap junctions form gaps between cells that prevent exchange of small molecules between cells

c)

Desmosomes glue adjacent cells together

d)

Tight junctions form continuous seals around cells and prevent molecules from passing between cells

34.

Which of the following statements regarding the functions of the cytoskeleton is FALSE?

a)

Microfilaments are made of actin subunits and are important in cytokinesis

b)

Flagella are wisplike cellular extensions that remove excess mucus from the lungs

c)

microtubules are an important aspect of cilia

d)

Microtubules form tracts along which intracellular vesicles are transported

35.

Which of the following statements regarding the Endocytosis/Exocytosis is FALSE?

a)

Pinocytosis takes place when epithelial cells lining the intestines absorb nutrients

b)

Phagocytosis takes place when macrophages internalize and destroy pathogens

c)

Receptor-mediated endocytosis is a non-specific process

d)

SNARE proteins mediate the process of exocytosis

36.

Which of the following statements regarding secondary active transport is FALSE?

a)

It is driven by Na+ gradients

b)

Cells of the small intestine utilize secondary active transport to take up glucose

c)

The Na+-K potassium pump is an example of secondary active transport

d)

Cotransport-Proteins that transport molecules in opposite directions are called antiporters

37.

The first step in tissue repair involves

a)

proliferation of fibrous connective tissue

b)

formation of scar tissue

c)

replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells

d)

release of inflammatory chemicals by injured tissue cells

38.

Cranial bones develop

a)

from cartilage models

b)

within fibrous membranes

c)

from a tendon

d)

within osseous membranes

39.

William has a cut that is superficial, painful but not bleeding. Based on this information, you would predict that the cut has penetrated to _______

a)

the stratum basale, but not the dermal layers

b)

the papillary layer but not the reticular layer

c)

the stratum corneum but not the stratum granulosum

d)

the subcutaneous layer, but no deeper

40.

Osteoporosis occurs when

a)

bone resorption outpaces bone deposit

b)

osteoclasts are inhibited by estrogen

c)

androgens activate osteoprogenitor cells

d)

osteocytes release chemicals that promote the formation of additional bone

41.

What are the three main components of connective tissue?

a)

alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells

b)

fibroblasts, collagen, and proteoglycans

c)

fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts

d)

ground substance, fibers, and cells

42.

Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which of the following protects us from water loss through the skin?

a)

fat associated with skin

b)

the size and shape of the cells that make up the stratum spinosum, as well as the thick bundles of intermediate filaments

c)

the dermis is the thickest portion of the skin and water cannot go through it

d)

glycolipids that are secreted by keratinocytes into extracellular spaces.

43.

what is the role of mesenchymal cells intramembranous ossification

a)

they specialize into osteoclasts

b)

they secrete calcium phosphate

c)

they specialize into osteoblasts

d)

they specialize into blood cells

44.

Which of the following is NOT found in cartilage but is found in bone

a)

blood vessels

b)

lacunae

c)

organic fibers

d)

living cells

45.

Which layer of the epidermis will be supplied with the highest levels of oxygen from the blood

a)

stratum corneum

b)

stratum spinosum

c)

stratum basale

d)

stratum granulosum

46.

bones are covered and lined in a special tissue called periosteum, the inner layer consists primarily of

a)

chondrocytes and osteocytes

b)

osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, and osteoclasts

c)

cartilage and compact bone

d)

dense irregular connective tissue

47.

which of the following statements is FALSE

a)

in holocrine glands, the entire secretory cell ruptures

b)

merocrine glands secrete their products by exocytosis

c)

the pancreas is an example of a merocrine gland

d)

sebaceous glands are merocrine glands

48.

which of the following epidermis layers is responsible for cell division and replacement

a)

stratum lucidum

b)

stratum corneum

c)

stratum granulosum

d)

stratum basale

49.

in the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows _______

a)

in a circular fashion

b)

from the edges inward

c)

by pulling the diaphysis toward the epiphysis

d)

by pushing the diaphysis away from the epiphysis

50.

which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth of cartilage

a)

unspecialized cells from mesenchyme develop into osteoblasts, which divide and form cartilage

b)

growth occurs in the lining of long bones

c)

fibroblasts give rise to chondrocytes that differentiate and form cartilage

d)

chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix , allowing the cartilage to grow from within

51.

how is hyaline cartilage different from elastic cartilage or fibrocartilage

a)

hyaline cartilage forms costal cartilages of the ribs

b)

it is more vascularlized

c)

supports the external ear

d)

it contains more nuclei

52.

cartilage grows in two ways, appositional and interstitial, what is appositional growth

a)

when cells in the surrounding perichondrium secrete new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage

b)

the lengthening of hyaline cartilage

c)

growth along the edges only of existing osteons, making each osteon longer

d)

growth at the epiphyseal plate

53.

the cell responsible for secreting the matrix of the bone is

a)

osteoblast

b)

osteocyte

c)

osteoclast

d)

osteoprogenitor

54.

inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which epithelial tissue

a)

stratified squamous

b)

simple columnar

c)

simple squamous

d)

transitional

55.

which of the following form the biological barrier of the skin

a)

fibroblasts and dendritic cells

b)

dendritic cells and macrophages

c)

white blood cells and hematopoietic stem cells

d)

white blood cells and fibroblasts

56.

which of the following cells and their function/location are correctly matched

a)

dendritic cells- activate the immune system

b)

keratinocytes- provide sense of touch and pressure

c)

tactile cells- protect cells of epidermis

d)

mitotic stem cells of the stratum basale- secrete glycolipids

57.

In addition to protection, the skin serves other functions, which of the following is another vital function of the skin

a)

it absorbs vitamin c so that the skin will not be subjected to diseases

b)

the cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy

c)

it aids in the transport of materials throughout the body

d)

it converts modified epidermal cholesterol to vitamin d, an important precursor to calcium metabolism

58.

Bones grow in thickness by appositional growth and long bones grow in length by interstitial growth of the epiphysis

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Which layer of tissue is damaged in a first degree burn

a)

dermis

b)

hypodermis

c)

both the epidermis and dermis

d)

epidermis

60.

which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood

a)

lacuna

b)

osteon

c)

epiphyseal plate

d)

epiphyseal line

61.

which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epithelial tissues

a)

supported by connective tissues

b)

supported by blood vessels

c)

polarity

d)

innervated

62.

a ciliated version of pseudostratified columnar epithelium containing mucus-secreting goblet cells _____

a)

lines most of the respiratory tract

b)

aids in digestion

c)

is more durable than all other epithelia

d)

is found in some of the larger glands

63.

cells of the stratum spinosum have many interlocking desmosomes that will remain between the cells as they migrate to the stratum corneum. The cells junctions serve the body by ______

a)

preventing ultraviolet light from penetrating the deeper layer of the epidermis

b)

preventing mechanical stress or trauma from damaging the epidermis

c)

stopping water loss and preventing dehydration

d)

allowing secretions like sweat or sebum to pass through

64.

bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. which of the following cells accomplishes this process

a)

stem cell

b)

osteoprogenitor cells

c)

osteocyte

d)

osteoclast

65.

choose the structures that most directly provide nutrients and remove wastes from osteocytes in compact bone

a)

central canals

b)

perforating canals

c)

canaliculi

d)

nutrient foramens

66.

Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the following would indicate a liver disease such as hepatitis resulting in elevated bilirubin

a)

black and blue marks become evident for no apparent cause

b)

the skin and sclera of the eye appears to have a yellow tint

c)

the skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance

d)

it is impossible to suggest a disease from looking at a persons skin

67.

ossification is the process of _____

a)

making a cartilage model of the fetal bone

b)

bone destruction to liberate calcium

c)

bone formation

d)

calcification of cartilage

68.

a needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the skin in which order

a)

basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum

b)

corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

c)

basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum

d)

granulosum, basale , corneum, spinosum

69.

which of the following is NOT a function of connective tissue

a)

transporting substances within the body

b)

insulating

c)

protecting

d)

generation of heat

e)

support

70.

which of the following statements regarding cells found in connective tissue is FALSE

a)

macrophages internalize (eat) bacteria

b)

adipocytes store energy

c)

mast cells secreted chemicals that mediate inflammation

d)

white blood cells secrete extracellular matrix

71.

what kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo

a)

hyaline cartilage

b)

dense regular connective tissue

c)

fibrocartilage

d)

elastic connective tissue

72.

which of the following does NOT take place during healing a bone fracture

a)

bone remodeling

b)

production of collagen fibers by fibroblasts

c)

formation of the periosteal bud

d)

calcification of cartilaginous matrix

73.

which of the following statements regarding hair/follicle is FALSE

a)

the wall of a hair follicle has the following components, peripheral connective tissue sheath, glassy membrane and epithelial root sheath

b)

associated with the hair follicle is the arrector pili muscle which is made up of smooth muscle cells

c)

hair grows because cells inside the bulb divide rapidly

d)

hair consists of alive, keratinized cells

74.

which of the following is true about epithelia

a)

simple epithelia are commonly found in areas of high abrasion

b)

pseudostratified epithelia are commonly keratinized

c)

stratified epithelia are associated with filtration

d)

endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs

75.

The central (Haversian) canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of ____

a)

adipose tissue and nerve fibers

b)

cartilage and interstitial lamellae

c)

yellow marrow and spicules

d)

blood vessels and nerve fibers

76.

which of the following surrounds a fascicle?

a)

epimysium

b)

perimysium

c)

endomysium

d)

exomysium

77.

during muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites?

a)

none of the above

b)

myosin filaments

c)

thick filaments

d)

troponin

e)

z discs

78.

the sliding filament model of contraction involves _____

a)

the z discs sliding over the myofilaments

b)

the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past

c)

actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping

d)

actin and myosin lengthening in order to slide past each other

79.

which of the following is the correct order for the phases of a muscle twitch

a)

contraction, relaxation, latent

b)

latent, contraction, relaxation

c)

latent, relaxation, contraction

d)

relaxation, contraction, latent

80.

When a sacromere contracts and thin filaments move over thick filaments you would expect to see _____

a)

the I bands to appear wider

b)

the H zone to appear wider

c)

the A band to appear darker

d)

the I bands to appear smaller

81.

An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPSs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is _____

a)

the citric acid cycle

b)

the electron transport chain

c)

glycolysis

d)

hydrolysis

82.

a major difference between smooth muscle fibers and skeletal muscle fibers in terms of calcium influx is that

a)

only smooth muscle fibers have a sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

smooth muscle contraction does not involve calcium

c)

calcium ion influx occurs mostly from the extracellular fluid in smooth muscle

d)

calcium ions are stored in the sarcoplasm of smooth muscle

83.

Calcium binds to this substance in smooth muscle contractions

a)

calmodulin

b)

myosin kinase

c)

troponin

d)

Calcitonin

84.

Which of the following statements is FALSE

a)

motor units with the biggest fibers are recruited/activated first

b)

all statements are false

c)

the strength of contraction depends on the number of motor neurons activated

d)

the higher the frequency of stimulation of a skeletal muscle, the greater the strength of contraction

85.

Nerve impulses leading to the skeletal muscle carry information for direct movement. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system

a)

sensory (afferent) division

b)

sympathetic division

c)

parasympathetic division

d)

somatic nervous system

86.

Some nerve fibers of the peripheral nervous system have the ability to regenerate after damage has occurred. Which of the following cells is most responsible for aiding in this process

a)

astrocytes

b)

schwann cells

c)

oligodendrocytes

d)

satellite cells

87.

Which cells of the central nervous system can transform to phagocytize microorganisms and neuronal debris

a)

satelite cells

b)

oligodendrocytes

c)

microglia

d)

schwann cells

88.

Which cells are involved in fiber myelinization in the peripheral nervous system

a)

oligodendrocytes

b)

satellite cells

c)

schwann cells

d)

ependymal cells

89.

Which of the following statements is FALSE

a)

astrocytes are ciliated and line the central cavities of the brain

b)

astrocytes influence the composition of the neuronal environment

c)

astrocytes play a role in exchanges between capillaries and neurons

d)

astrocytes are located in the central nervous system (CNS)

90.

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a)

unipolar neurons have no axon

b)

bipolar neurons have two processes

c)

multipolar neurons are the most abundant type of neuron type in the body

d)

multipolar neurons have three or more processes

91.

which of the following is a excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle

a)

cholinesterase

b)

norepinephrine

c)

dopamine

d)

none of the above

92.

a change in membrane potential from -70mV to 10mV is termed_______

a)

depolarization

b)

hyperpolarization

c)

hypopolarization

d)

repolarization

93.

during membrane repolarization, there is a decrease in the membrane permeability to which ion

a)

both potassium and sodium

b)

sodium

c)

potassium

d)

calcium

94.

which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials

a)

leakage channel

b)

leakage channel and mechanically gated channel

c)

ligand gated channel

d)

voltage gated channel

95.

a neuron that has as its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is called a(n) ______

a)

efferent neuron

b)

afferent neuron

c)

interneuron

d)

glial cell

96.

immediately after an action potential has peaked, which of the following channels will open

a)

voltage gated sodium

b)

voltage gated calcium channels

c)

chemically gated potassium channels

d)

chemically gated calcium channels

e)

voltage gated gated potassium channels

97.

the interior surface of a neuron's plasma membrane at resting potential will have a ______

a)

negative charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell

b)

positive charge and contains more sodium than outside the cell

c)

negative charge and contains more sodium than outside the cell

d)

positive charge and contains less sodium than outside the cell

98.

what is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles

a)

tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules

b)

tropomyosin is the chemical that activates the myosin heads

c)

tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter

d)

tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules

99.

which structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage

a)

myofibrillar network

b)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

c)

intermediate filament network

d)

mitochondria

e)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

100.

creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by _____-

a)

forming a chemical compound with actin

b)

forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin

c)

inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments

d)

storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP

101.

which of the following is NOT a muscle function

a)

absorbs nutrients from food

b)

stabilizes joints

c)

produces movement

d)

generates heat

102.

which of the following sentences is FALSE

a)

the amplitude of the action potential depends on the axon diameter

b)

the graded potential occur in the dendrites of a neuron

c)

the graded potential are attributed to chemically gated channels

d)

the graded potentials only travel short distances

103.

which energy source is used FIRST for short duration, high intensity exercise

a)

aerobic respiration

b)

glycolysis and aerobic respiration

c)

creatine phosphate

d)

glycolysis

104.

which is the correct sequence of events during the generation of an action potential?

a)

depolarization, repolarization, hyperpolarization

b)

hyperpolarization, repolarization, depolarization

c)

repolarization, hyperpolarization, depolarization

105.

which of the following statements regarding the depolarization phase of an action potential is CORRECT

a)

it is caused by NA+ flowing into the cell

b)

it is caused by K+ flowing into the cell

c)

it is caused by K+ flowing out of the cell

d)

it is caused by Na+ flowing out of the cell

106.

what is the definition of nucleus in the nervous system

a)

a bundle of axons in the central nervous system

b)

a collection of neuron cell bodies in the central nervous system

c)

a collection of neuron cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system

d)

a bundle of axons in the peripheral nervous system

107.

opening of which of the following channels will cause a hyperpolarization in a dendrite

a)

chemically gated channels that allow passage of both sodium and potassium

b)

chemically gated channels that allow passage of chloride

c)

voltage gated channels that allow the passage of sodium ions

d)

voltage gated channels that allow the passage of potassium ions

108.

an action potential cannot be generated during the relative refractory period

a)

true

b)

false

109.

which of the following statements is FALSE

a)

some neurotransmitters directly bind to and open ion channels

b)

some neurotransmitters bind to G-protein-coupled-receptors that elicit intracellular signaling that opens ion channels

c)

neurotransmitters play an important role in electrical synapses

d)

Acetylcholine is excitatory in neuromuscular junctions of skeletal muscles and inhibitory in the cardiac muscle

110.

which channels are open during the hyperpolarization phase of an action potential

a)

voltage gated potassium channels

b)

voltage gated sodium channels

c)

chemically gated sodium channels

d)

chemically gated potassium channels

111.

action potentials cannot be generated in dendrites because

a)

dendrites lack voltage gated sodium channels

b)

dendrites are characterized by a low number of voltage gated channels

c)

dendrites lack ion channels

d)

the cell membrane potential of dendrites can only hyperpolarize

112.

which of the following events at a dendrite is most likely to cause can action potential at the initial segment

a)

opening of channels that allow simultaneous sodium and potassium ion fluxes

b)

opening of chemically gated potassium ion channels

c)

opening of chemically gated chloride ion channels

d)

opening of both voltage gated potassium and sodium ion channels

113.

which is the biosynthetic center of a neuron

a)

the dendrites

b)

the cell body

c)

the axon

d)

axon and dendrites

114.

which of the following statements regarding glycosomes is FALSE

a)

are found in muscle fibers

b)

are located in the cytoplasm and store glycogen

c)

bind and store oxygen which is needed for ATP synthesis

d)

provide glucose needed for ATP generation

115.

Action potential propagation by continuous conduction occurs in myelinated axons

a)

true

b)

false

116.

filaments do not slide during isometric muscle contractions

a)

true

b)

false

117.

Consumption of puffer fish can cause paralysis of muscles, including those of the respiratory tract, this effects are attributed to the toxin tetrodotoxin (TTX). Which of the following statements describes its mechanism of action

a)

TTX opens voltage gated channels in the sarcolemma of skeletal muscles

b)

TTX blocks voltage gated sodium channels

c)

TTX opens voltage gated calcium channels at the axon terminal

d)

TTX opens voltage gated sodium channels

118.

Which of the following statements is FALSE

a)

ventral roots are located medial to spinal nerves

b)

dorsal rami contain sensory and motor fibers

c)

the dorsal root ganglion contains cell bodies of motor neurons

d)

ventral rami are located distal to spinal nerves

119.

which of the following statements is CORRECT

a)

Ventral rami branch and join one another

b)

the sciatic is a major nerve of the lumbar plexus

c)

the phrenic nerve supplies the lungs

d)

ventral rami do not form nerve plexuses

120.

which nerve supplies the superior oblique eye muscle

a)

optic nerve

b)

a spinal nerve

c)

trochlear nerve

d)

oculomotor

121.

which receptors can detect stretching of muscles

a)

tactile corpuscles

b)

proprioreceptors

c)

interreceptor

d)

exteroceptors

122.

stretch receptors that respond to increased arterial pressure are an example of ____

a)

interreceptor

b)

chemoreceptors

c)

nocireceptors

d)

exteroceptors

123.

astrocytes support axon regrowth in the central nervous system

a)

true

b)

false

124.

which nerve supplies the lateral rectus muscle of the eye?

a)

Abducens nerve

b)

Trigeminal nerve

c)

optic nerve

d)

oculomotor nerve

125.

both the somatic and sensory divisions lack ganglia

a)

true

b)

false

126.

A patient who receives a blow to the side of the skull exhibits the following signs and symptoms on that side of the face. He is unable to close his eye and the corner of his mouth drops, which cranial nerve has been damaged

a)

facial

b)

accessory

c)

glossopharyngeal

d)

hypoglossal

127.

problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve

a)

abducens

b)

vestibulocochlear

c)

trigeminal

d)

accessory

128.

vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure is located in the

a)

thalamus

b)

pons

c)

medulla oblongata

d)

midbrain

129.

which of the following statements does not describe the cerebral cortex

a)

the hemispheres are exactly equal in function

b)

no functional area of the cortex works alone

c)

the cerebral cortex contains three kinds of functional areas

d)

each hemisphere is chiefly concerned with sensory and motor functions of the opposite side of the body

130.

An individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with his or her finger but could not recognize it as a bicycle is most likely to have sustained damage to the _____-

a)

somatosensory association cortex

b)

primary visual cortex

c)

visual association area

d)

frontal eye field

131.

broca's area _____

a)

controls voluntary movements of the eyes

b)

serves the recognition of complex objects

c)

is considered a motor speech area

d)

is usually found only in the right hemisphere

132.

which of the following is NOT a function of the CSF

a)

reduction of brain weight

b)

innervation of nerve impulses

c)

nourishment of the brain

d)

protection from blows

133.

injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following except ______

a)

sleep disturbances

b)

loss of fine motor control

c)

loss of body temperature control

d)

dehydration

134.

which of the following statements is FALSE

a)

commissural fibers run vertically and enter the cortex from the spinal cord

b)

association fibers are located in the cerebral white matter

c)

association fibers connect different parts of the same hemisphere

d)

projection fibers are located in the cerebral white matter

135.

the three basic regions of the cerebrum are the cerebral cortical gray matter, internal white matter, and the superior and inferior colliculi

a)

true

b)

false

136.

cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the ventricles of the brain and in the subarachnoid space

a)

true

b)

false

137.

commissural fibers connect the cerebrum to the diencephalon

a)

true

b)

false

138.

which of the following regarding axon damage is FALSE

a)

schwann cells secrete protein chemicals that recruit macrophages

b)

following axon injury, the distal end of the cut axon will degenerate

c)

Schwann cells secrete chemicals that activate macrophages to form the regeneration tube

d)

macrophages induce cell division in schwann cells

139.

predict the outcome of damage to one cord of the left brachial plexus

a)

only a portion of the left limb will suffer reduced function

b)

the entire left limb will be paralyzed

c)

the entire right limb will be paralyzed

d)

only a portion of the right limb will suffer reduced function

140.

in which body location can you not find proprioceptors

a)

skeletal muscles

b)

joints

c)

tendons

d)

skin

141.

which of the following describes the function of the reticular formation

a)

A; maintains cerebral cortical alertness

b)

B: filters out repetitive stimuli

c)

C; contains visual relex centers

d)

A and B

142.

which of the following brain regions regulates water balance and thirst

a)

hypothalamus

b)

epithalamus

c)

cerebrum

d)

thalamus

143.

Nociceptors _____

a)

respond to potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain

b)

respond to light

c)

respond to mechanical force

d)

respond to chemicals in solution

144.

the olfactory and optic nerves are mixed nerves

a)

true

b)

false

145.

damaged _________ nerves result in diaphragm paralysis and respiratory arrest

a)

sciatic nervves

b)

femoral nerves

c)

median nerves

d)

phrenic nerves