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Worksheets

Extracted Questions

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Right order of the main steps of histological slides’ preparation.

a)

Fixation, washing, dehydration, preparing sections, embedding, staining, and freezing

b)

Dehydration, fixation, washing, embedding, preparing sections, staining and freezing

c)

Fixation, dehydration, embedding, washing, preparing sections, staining, and freezing

d)

Fixation, washing, dehydration, embedding, preparing sections, staining, and freezing

e)

Fixation, dehydration, washing, preparing sections, staining, embedding, and freezing

2.

At which step of the histological slide preparation does the rapid coagulation of the tissue protein occur to keep the tissue structures.

a)

Dehydration

b)

Embedding

c)

Fixation

d)

Preparing sections

e)

Staining and freezing

3.

At which step of the slide preparation do the tissue structures gain contrast.

a)

Fixation

b)

Dehydration

c)

Embedding

d)

Preparing sections

e)

Staining and freezing

4.

At which step of the slide preparation does the sample become dense and homogeneous.

a)

Fixation

b)

Dehydration

c)

Embedding

d)

Preparing samples

e)

Staining and freezing

5.

At which step of the slide preparation does the sample reach a certain thickness.

a)

Fixation

b)

Dehydration

c)

Embedding

d)

Preparing samples

e)

Staining and freezing

6.

Staining methods of histological slides is based on.

a)

pH difference in the nucleus and in the cytoplasm

b)

Structural difference in the nucleus and in the cytoplasm

c)

Coagulation of the protein

d)

Staining of the living cells and tissues

e)

Number of the cell nuclei

7.

Selective staining of the nucleus and the cytoplasm is based on.

a)

pH changes in cellular compositions

b)

Sedimentation of the samples with solid solutions

c)

Chemical reaction between the stains and certain cellular components

d)

Staining of the living cells

e)

Impregnation

8.

Identification of the chemical compositions of the cells and tissues is based on.

a)

pH changes in cellular compositions

b)

Sedimentation of the samples with solid solutions

c)

Chemical reaction between the stains and certain cellular components

d)

Staining of the living cells

e)

Impregnation

9.

Method of studying the histological slides with light refraction due to the structural density is.

a)

Dark area

b)

Phase contrast

c)

Radioautography

d)

Cytophotometer

e)

Morphometry

10.

Method of studying the histological slides using phase difference between the background and the scattered light is.

a)

Dark area

b)

Phase contrast

c)

Radioautography

d)

Cytophotometer

e)

Morphometry

11.

Method of studying the histological slides being based on per unit of substance in the cell at a given wavelength of light is.

a)

Dark area

b)

Phase contrast

c)

Radioautography

d)

Cytophotometer

e)

Morphometry

12.

Method of studying the histological slides by analyzing cell numbers, cell size, cell morphology, and cell structures is.

a)

Dark area

b)

Phase contrast

c)

Radioautography

d)

Cytophotometer

e)

Morphometry

13.

Belong to the optical part of the microscope.

a)

Condenser

b)

Aperture

c)

Eyepiece

d)

Mirror

e)

Revolver

14.

Mechanical part of the microscope.

a)

Coarse adjustment knob

b)

Eyepiece

c)

Objectives

d)

Condenser

15.

Belong to the illuminator of the microscope:

a)

Eyepiece

b)

Fine focus adjustments knob

c)

Mirror

d)

Objectives

e)

Revolver

16.

Syncytium includes:

a)

Thymus lobule epithelium

b)

Reticular tissue of red bone marrow

c)

Reticular tissue of peripheral hematopoietic organs

d)

Spermatogenic epithelium

e)

Enamel pulp

17.

Consists of bilipid layer, integral, semi-integral and membrane proteins:

a)

Plasmalemma

b)

Microtubules

c)

Ribosome

d)

Nucleus

e)

Cell center

18.

Intercellular contact, in which the plasma membranes of two cells are closely approached:

a)

Simple

b)

Dense

c)

Slit-like

d)

Nexus

e)

Synapse

19.

The following is involved in the transmission of a nerve impulse:

a)

Desmosome

b)

Hemidesmosome

c)

Synapse

d)

Tight connection

e)

Gap connection

20.

Connection between epithelial cell and basement membrane:

a)

Simple

b)

Dense

c)

Hemidesmosome

d)

Synapse

e)

Nexus

21.

Cell membrane glycocalyx is:

a)

Thick layer of lipids

b)

Ribonucleoprotein layer

c)

Plasmalemma-associated glycoprotein and glycolipid complex

d)

Layer of sulfated glycosaminoglycans

e)

Bundles of microfilaments and microtubules

22.

Thanks to passive transport, molecules are delivered to the cell:

a)

Water

b)

Glucose

c)

Amino acids

d)

Na+

e)

Ca2+

23.

Intercellular connections-desmosomes are characterized by the fact that:

a)

Plasma membranes of cells are as close as possible

b)

Distance between plasmalemms of cells is 20 nm

c)

Between the plasma membranes there is a zone with a high electron density

d)

Plasma membranes separated by a gap of 3 nm

e)

Plasma membranes are separated by a gap of 18 nm

24.

Membrane organelles include:

a)

Cilium

b)

Microtubule

c)

Ribosome

d)

Centriole

e)

Endoplasmic reticulum

25.

Membrane organelles include:

a)

Ribosome

b)

Microtubule

c)

Lysosome

d)

Centriole

e)

Microfilaments

26.

Hydrolytic enzymes are found in:

a)

Granular endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Golgi complex

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Mitochondria

e)

Agranular endoplasmic reticulum

27.

Membrane organelles include:

a)

Microtubules

b)

Microfilaments

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Polysomes

e)

Golgi apparatus

28.

Membrane organelles include:

a)

Centrioles

b)

Microtubules

c)

Filaments

d)

Ribosomes

e)

Mitochondria

29.

Protein synthesis occurs in:

a)

Agranular endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Granular endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Lysosomes

e)

Centrioles

30.

In the breakdown of substances in the cell, take part:

a)

Centrioles

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Golgi complex

d)

Endoplasmic reticulum

e)

Lysosomes

31.

Primary lysosomes are formed in:

a)

Microtubules

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Golgi complex

d)

Microfibrils

e)

Peroxisomes

32.

The accumulation of nutrients occurs in:

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Polysome

d)

Cilia

e)

Microtubules

33.

The breakdown of hydrogen peroxide involves:

a)

Endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Peroxisomes

c)

Nucleus

d)

Dictyosomes

e)

Ribosomes

34.

Bordered vesicles are derivatives of:

a)

Agranular endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Granular endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Mitochondria

e)

Lysosomes

35.

The organelle of a cell, the inner membrane of which forms cristae and is limited by two membranes, includes:

a)

Mitochondrion

b)

Granular endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Agranular endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Golgi apparatus

e)

Ribosomes

36.

The nucleoli from the cell nucleus disappear into:

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

37.

The nuclear membrane breaks up and turns into membrane vesicles in:

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

38.

The predominance of heterochromatin over euchromatin in the cell nucleus indicates:

a)

Cell damage

b)

Cell enters mitosis

c)

Weak transcriptional activity of the cell

d)

Cell polyploidy

e)

Cell apoptosis

39.

DNA reduplication and doubling of centrioles occur in:

a)

Mitosis

b)

Rest period

c)

Presynthetic period

d)

Synthetic period

e)

Post-synthetic period

40.

Most of the body's somatic cells during the cell cycle are in the stage of:

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

S

d)

G2

e)

M

41.

Apoptosis is:

a)

Programmed cell death

b)

Cell death under the influence of damaging factors

c)

Abnormal cell division

d)

Nuclear lysis process

e)

Entry into the first phase of mitosis

42.

Divergence of chromatids to the poles of the cell occurs in:

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

43.

The final stage of mitosis is:

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Telophase

d)

Metaphase

e)

Anaphase

44.

Chromosomes line up in the equatorial plane of the division spindle in the stage:

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Early telophase

e)

Late telophase

45.

Separation of the original cell occurs in:

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

46.

Chromosomes form two daughter stars in the stage:

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Early telophase

e)

Late telophase

47.

Number of chromosomes of a somatic cell after mitosis:

a)

23

b)

92

c)

46

d)

20

e)

50

48.

The way of meiosis is divided into:

a)

Somatic cells

b)

Sex cells

c)

All body cells

d)

Cells containing inclusions

e)

Macrophages

49.

After meiosis in germ cells, the chromosome set becomes:

a)

Tetraploid

b)

Diploid

c)

Haploid

d)

Polyploid

e)

Triploid

50.

The marker enzyme of lysosomes is:

a)

Catalase

b)

Succinate dehydrogenase

c)

Lactate dehydrogenase

d)

Cytochrome oxidase

e)

Acid phosphatase

51.

Nucleosome is:

a)

DNA loop around histone molecules

b)

Ribosome in polysome

c)

RNA-protein complex

d)

Euchromatin

e)

Section of the endoplasmic reticulum

52.

Those with their own DNA and RNA include:

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Golgi complex

c)

Microtubules

d)

Ribosomes

e)

Endoplasmic reticulum

53.

Phagolisosome is called:

a)

Fusion of phagosome and primary lysosome

b)

Fusion of autophagosome and secondary lysosome

c)

Fusion of early endosome and lysosome

d)

Fusion of transport vesicle and peroxisome

54.

Pinocytosis is called

a)

Cell uptake of water

b)

Absorption of Na ions

c)

Absorption of macromolecules and bacteria

d)

Excretion of metabolites

e)

Excretion of K ions

55.

The predominance of euchromatin over heterochromatin in the cell nucleus indicates

a)

Cell damage

b)

Cell enters mitosis

c)

High transcriptional activity of the cell

d)

Cell polyploidy

e)

Cell apoptosis

56.

A spherical cell covered with a shiny shell and a radiant crown is

a)

Oogonia

b)

Oocyte I order

c)

Oocyte II order

d)

Mature egg

e)

Directing body

57.

According to the content of the yolk, the human egg is

a)

Polylecithal

b)

Mesolecithal

c)

Oligolecithal

d)

Telolecithal

e)

Alecithal

58.

Cortical granules are necessary for the egg

a)

For distant interaction with sperm

b)

For contact interaction with sperm

c)

For sperm to enter the egg

d)

Formation of the fertilization membrane

e)

For nuclear fusion

59.

According to the distribution of the yolk in the cytoplasm, the human egg is

a)

Isolecithal

b)

Telolecithal

c)

Alecithal

d)

Centrolecithal

e)

Mesolecithal

60.

A similar feature for sperm and egg is

a)

Form

b)

Size

c)

Mobility

d)

Nutrient supply

e)

Haploid set of chromosomes

61.

A set of chromosomes in the nucleus of the sperm

a)

Aneuploid

b)

Haploid

c)

Diploid

d)

Tetraploid

e)

Octoploid

62.

The sperm nucleus is located in

a)

Head

b)

Connecting part of the tail

c)

The main part of the tail

d)

Intermediate part of tail

e)

Terminal part of tail

63.

Sperm acrosome is a derivative of

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Axial thread

c)

Centrioles

d)

Golgi complex

e)

Endoplasmic reticulum

64.

Sperm acrosome contains

a)

Chromosomes

b)

Pigments

c)

Hydrolytic enzymes

d)

Nutrients

e)

Nucleus

65.

The axial thread of the sperm tail is

a)

Microtubule

b)

Axoneme

c)

Head

d)

Centrosome

e)

Peroxisome

66.

The acrosome of the spermatozoon is necessary for

a)

Capacitation

b)

Rheotaxis

c)

Chemotaxis

d)

Dissolution of the membranes of the egg

e)

Movements

67.

Fertilization of a human egg occurs in

a)

Ampullary part of the fallopian tube

b)

Cervical area

c)

Uterine cavity

d)

Abdominal cavity

e)

Vagina

68.

The fusion of male and female germ cells, with the formation of a zygote, occurs during

a)

Fertilization

b)

Crushing

c)

Gastrulation

d)

Implantation

e)

Histogenesis

69.

Rheotaxis is the ability of spermatozoa to

a)

Contact interaction

b)

Moving against fluid flow

c)

Syngamy

d)

Penetration through the transparent membrane

e)

Penetration through the follicular membrane

70.

Chemotaxis is the ability of spermatozoa to

a)

Movement along the concentration gradient of gamons

b)

Movement against the flow of mucus

c)

Contact interaction

d)

Penetration through the transparent membrane

e)

Penetration through the follicular membrane

71.

Capacitation is

a)

Sperm activation process

b)

Fertilization membrane formation

c)

Loss of sperm flagella

d)

Movement against fluid flow

e)

Movement along the concentration gradient of substances

72.

Acrosomal reaction is a process

a)

Formation of the fertilization membrane

b)

Loss of flagella by spermatozoa

c)

Synchronous release of enzymes from the acrosome

d)

Movement against fluid flow

e)

Movement along the concentration gradient of substances

73.

Monospermia is

a)

The inability of the sperm to fertilize the egg

b)

Penetration of one sperm during fertilization into the egg

c)

Penetration of many sperm into the egg

d)

Fusion of the nucleus of the spermatozoon with the nucleus of the egg

e)

Limited fertility

74.

Compaction of the zona pellucida after penetration of the sperm head into it occurs after:

a)

Acrosomal reaction

b)

Capacitation

c)

Cortical reaction

d)

Chemotaxis

e)

Distant interaction

75.

Human egg cleavage:

a)

Full, uniform, synchronous

b)

Complete, uneven, synchronous

c)

Full, uneven, asynchronous

d)

Incomplete, uniform, synchronous

e)

Incomplete, uneven, asynchronous

76.

The process of reproduction, growth and movement of cells, which is reduced to their differentiation, occurs when:

a)

Gastrulation

b)

Crushing

c)

Fertilization

d)

Morule

e)

Implantation

77.

The implantation process starts at:

a)

3 days

b)

15 day

c)

7 days

d)

10 days

e)

1 day

78.

In the process of gastrulation occurs:

a)

Division of the zygote into blastomeres

b)

Fusion of female and male sex cells

c)

Formation of three germ layers

d)

Blastocyst formation

e)

Morula formation

79.

Implantation in humans occurs at the following stages:

a)

Adhesions, invasions

b)

Immigration, epiboly

c)

Intussusception, epiboly

d)

Delamination, immigration

e)

Epibolia, adhesions

80.

The formation of organs and tissues in the fetus occurs in the process:

a)

Fertilization

b)

Crushing

c)

First phase of gastrulation

d)

Second phase of gastrulation

e)

Germ layer differentiation

81.

Nephrotome is a source of education:

a)

Genitourinary system

b)

Nervous system

c)

Respiratory system

d)

Digestive system

e)

Endocrine system

82.

The neural tube is a source of education:

a)

Respiratory system

b)

Digestive system

c)

Reproductive system

d)

Nervous system

e)

Endocrine system

83.

From the ganglionic plates are formed:

a)

Brain

b)

Mesenchyme

c)

Spinal nodes

d)

Sense organs

e)

Skin ectoderm

84.

The epidermis of the skin is formed from:

a)

Mesenchyme

b)

Intestinal endoderm

c)

Skin ectoderm

d)

Neural tube

e)

Mesoderm splanchnotome

85.

Connective tissue develops from:

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Mesenchyme

d)

Splanchnotoma

e)

Neural plate

86.

Blood is formed from:

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Mesenchyme

c)

Endoderm

d)

Splanchnotomes

e)

Nephrotomes

87.

Smooth muscle tissue develops from:

a)

Neural tube

b)

Nephrotomes

c)

Mesenchyme

d)

Ectoderm

e)

Endoderm

88.

The epithelium of the stomach and intestines develops from:

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Mesenchyme

c)

Ectoderm

d)

Endoderm

e)

Neural tube

89.

Cytotrophoblast and symplastotrophoblast are formed:

a)

Amnion

b)

Yolk sac

c)

Allantois

d)

Primary chorion

e)

Placenta

90.

Amnion in humans performs the following function:

a)

Hematopoietic

b)

Protective

c)

Endocrine

d)

Immune

e)

Transport

91.

The water shell of the fetus is:

a)

Amnion

b)

Yolk sac

c)

Allantois

d)

Chorion

e)

Placenta

92.

The yolk sac performs the function of:

a)

Protective

b)

Hematopoietic

c)

Endocrine

d)

Excretory

e)

Secretory

93.

The formation of primary germ cells occurs in:

a)

Amnion

b)

Allantois

c)

Wall of the yolk sac

d)

Placenta

e)

Umbilical cord

94.

Type of human placenta:

a)

Desmochorial

b)

Hemochorial

c)

Epitheliochorial

d)

Trabecular

e)

Vasochorial

95.

The connection of the embryo with the mother's body is carried out through:

a)

Yolk sac

b)

Placenta

c)

Amnion

d)

Allantois

e)

Chorion

96.

The cause of ectopic pregnancy can be all of the listed processes, except:

a)

Inflammatory diseases of the fallopian tubes

b)

Cicatricial bends of the fallopian tubes

c)

Anomalies in the development of the fallopian tubes

d)

Agenesis of the fallopian tubes

e)

Tumors of the fallopian tubes

97.

Angiodermal type of epithelium lines:

a)

Proximal nephron

b)

Blood and lymph vessels

c)

Oviducts

d)

Small intestine

e)

Oral cavity

98.

The wall of the bladder is lined with:

a)

Stratified ciliated epithelium

b)

Single layered prismatic epithelium

c)

Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium

d)

Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

e)

Stratified transitional epithelium

99.

A single-layer prismatic border epithelium lines:

a)

Uterus and oviducts

b)

Stomach

c)

Trachea and bronchi

d)

Small intestine

e)

Serous membranes

100.

The sebaceous glands of the skin secrete according to:

a)

Merocrine type

b)

Eccrine type

c)

Microapocrine type

d)

Macroapocrine type

e)

Holocrine type

101.

In stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium, keratohyalin granules are contained in the layer:

a)

Basal cells

b)

Spiny cells

c)

Granular cells

d)

Brilliant

e)

Horny

102.

The epithelium of the proximal renal tubules by origin is:

a)

Epidermal

b)

Endodermal

c)

Ependymoglial

d)

Angiodermal

e)

Colognephrodermal

103.

Smooth muscle cells of epithelial origin (myoepithelial) are found in:

a)

Ectodermal exocrine glands

b)

Endodermal exocrine glands

c)

Ectodermal endocrine glands

d)

Mesodermal endocrine glands

e)

Endodermal endocrine glands

104.

With the holocrine method of secretion, the epithelial cell does not have a phase:

a)

Absorption of initial products for secretion synthesis

b)

Secretion synthesis in the endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Secretion transport to the Golgi apparatus

d)

Secretion accumulation in the Golgi apparatus

e)

Epiteliocyte recovery after secretion

105.

Secretory cells of glandular epithelium:

a)

Fibroblasts

b)

Glandulocytes

c)

Macrophages

d)

Keratinocytes

e)

Adipocytes

106.

Ependymoglial type of epithelium lines:

a)

Stomach

b)

Small intestine

c)

Blood vessels

d)

Renal tubules

e)

Spinal canal

107.

In the multi-row ciliated epithelium of the trachea, mucus is produced:

a)

Short intercalated cells

b)

Long intercalated cells

c)

Goblet cells

d)

Ciliated cells

e)

Border cells

108.

Single-layer squamous epithelium (mesothelium) develops from:

a)

Endoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Mesenchyme

e)

Neuroectoderm

109.

A single-layered border epithelium (intestine) develops from:

a)

Endoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Mesenchyme

e)

Neuroectoderm

110.

Multi-row ciliated epithelium (oviduct) develops from:

a)

Endoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Mesenchyme

e)

Neuroectoderm

111.

Stratified keratinizing epithelium develops from:

a)

Endoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Mesenchyme

e)

Neuroectoderm

112.

Single-layer glandular epithelium (stomach) develops from:

a)

Endoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Mesenchyme

e)

Neuroectoderm

113.

Single-layer cubic epithelium lines:

a)

Esophagus

b)

Pelvis

c)

Serous membranes

d)

Distal tubules of the nephron

e)

Bronchi

114.

Multi-row ciliated epithelium lines:

a)

Esophagus

b)

Pelvis

c)

Serous membranes

d)

Distal tubules of the nephron

e)

Bronchi

115.

Stratified non-keratinizing epithelium lines:

a)

Esophagus

b)

Pelvis

c)

Serous membranes

d)

Distal tubules of the nephron

e)

Bronchi

116.

The source of blood development is:

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Parietal sheet of mesoderm

d)

Visceral layer of mesoderm

e)

Mesenchyme

117.

The volume of human blood plasma is:

a)

55-60%

b)

40-45%

c)

20-30%

d)

10-20%

e)

1-5%

118.

Hemoglobin contains:

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Monocytes

c)

Erythrocytes

119.

In the process of development, they lost the nucleus and organelles:

a)

Monocytes

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Basophils

e)

Eosinophils

120.

Respiratory function is performed by:

a)

Monocytes

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Basophils

e)

Eosinophils

121.

The life span of erythrocytes is:

a)

8-12 hours

b)

Two Month

c)

120 days

d)

10-12 minutes

e)

1 year

122.

The biconcave form of erythrocytes is characteristic for:

a)

Spherocytes

b)

Stomatocytes

c)

Echinocytes

d)

Discocytes

e)

Planocytes

123.

Contain the remains of organelles:

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Basophils

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Reticulocytes

e)

Monocytes

124.

The number of red blood cells in men is:

a)

3.9-4.9 x1012x10^{12} per liter of blood

b)

3.9-5.0 x1012x10^{12} per liter of blood

c)

4.0-4.7 x1012x10^{12} per liter of blood

d)

4.0-5.0 x1012x10^{12} per liter of blood

e)

3.9-5.1 x1012x10^{12} per liter of blood

125.

The number of red blood cells in women is:

a)

3.9-4.7 x1012x10^{12} per liter of blood

b)

3.9-5.0 x1012x10^{12} per liter of blood

c)

4.0-4.7 x1012x10^{12} per liter of blood

d)

4.0-5.0 x1012x10^{12} per liter of blood

e)

3.9-5.1 x1012x10^{12} per liter of blood

126.

The number of platelets in the blood is:

a)

150-300 x10^9 per liter of blood

b)

150-320 x10^9 per liter of blood

c)

180-300 x10^9 per liter of blood

d)

180-320 x10^9 per liter of blood

e)

190-320 x10^9 per liter of blood

127.

Fetal hemoglobin in adult erythrocytes is:

a)

2%

b)

12%

c)

50%

d)

82%

e)

100%

128.

The main type of hemoglobin in an adult is:

a)

HbA

b)

HbF

c)

HbS

d)

HbM

e)

HbG

129.

The diameter of most erythrocytes is:

a)

7.5 µm

b)

1.0 µm

c)

22.5 µm

d)

120.0 µm

e)

500.0 µm

130.

Consist of granulomere and hyalomer:

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Basophils

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Platelets

e)

Erythrocytes

131.

Non-nuclear fragments of megakaryocytes lying in groups and having an irregular shape include:

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Platelets

c)

Monocytes

d)

Lymphocytes

e)

Basophils

132.

The parent cell of all blood cells is:

a)

Megakaryoblast

b)

Stem cell

c)

Unipotent progenitor cell

d)

Macrophage

e)

Reticular cell

133.

Blood is formed from:

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Mesenchyme

c)

Endoderm

d)

Splanchnotomes

e)

Nephrotomes

134.

In the process of erythropoiesis in the cytoplasm of erythrocytes occurs:

a)

Accumulation of hemoglobin

b)

The appearance of a specific granularity

c)

Accumulation of lysosomes

d)

Increase in RNA content

e)

Increase in the number of mitochondria

135.

The death of old erythrocytes occurs in:

a)

Lymph nodes

b)

Thymus

c)

Kidney parenchyma

d)

White pulp of the spleen

e)

Red pulp of the spleen

136.

The color of the cytoplasm of an oxyphilic erythroblast is determined by:

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Lipofuscin

c)

Melanin

d)

RNA

e)

Hemoglobin

137.

Jaundice is a condition that is caused by:

a)

Destruction of circulating erythrocytes

b)

Pathology of the hematopoietic system

c)

Organic damage to the spleen

d)

Oncological diseases of the kidneys

e)

Long-term anemia

138.

Newborn jaundice develops due to:

a)

Adaptation of the respiratory system

b)

Inefficiency of the bilirubin-conjugating system in the newborn's liver

c)

Failure of the hepatic-splenic hematopoiesis

d)

Closing the foramen ovale

e)

Increased concentration of hemoglobin in the blood

139.

Anemia was found in stomach disease. This condition is associated with impaired functional activity:

a)

Parietal (parietal) cells

b)

Mucous cervical cells

c)

EC cells

d)

ECL cells

e)

G-cells

140.

Polycythemia vera is panmyelosis due to an increase in the amount of:

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Leukocytes

c)

Platelets

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

141.

Defects inherent in erythrocytes that can cause hemolysis include the following disorders:

a)

The membrane of erythrocytes

b)

Cellular metabolism

c)

The structure of hemoglobin

142.

The number of leukocytes in the blood is:

a)

2.0-9.90 x10^9 per liter of blood

b)

2.0-15.0 x109x10^9 per liter of blood

c)

4.0-9.0 x109x10^9 per liter of blood

d)

4.0-15.0 x109x10^9 per liter of blood

e)

1.0-16.1 x10^9 per liter of blood

143.

Blood leukocytes have the form:

a)

Rounded

b)

Rectangular

c)

Stellate

d)

Fusiform

e)

Cylindrical

144.

The formed elements of blood include:

a)

Fibrocytes

b)

Lipocytes

c)

Pigmentocytes

d)

Chondrocytes

e)

Neutrophils

145.

Granulocytes include:

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Monocyte

c)

Erythrocyte

d)

Lymphocyte

e)

Reticulocyte

146.

Neutrophilic leukocytes circulate in the blood around:

a)

1 year

b)

8-12 hours

c)

1 month

d)

120 days

e)

10-12 minutes

147.

A sharply segmented nucleus and fine granularity in the cytoplasm have:

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Monocytes

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Neutrophils

e)

Platelets

148.

A large number of lysosomes in the cytoplasm has:

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Basophil

c)

B-lymphocyte

d)

T-lymphocyte

e)

Erythrocyte

149.

In the focus of acute inflammation, neutrophils:

a)

Secrete antibodies

b)

Secrete histamine

c)

Produce heparin

d)

Phagocytize microorganisms

e)

Secrete melanin

150.

In the cytoplasm, large acidophilic granularity contains:

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Monocytes

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Erythrocytes

e)

Platelets

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