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NUR211MobilityExam2

Total questions: 145

Worksheet time: 1hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following symptoms would lead to a diagnosis of parkinson's disease

a)

Tremor

b)

Rigidity

c)

Postural instability

d)

All of the above

2.

What causes parkinson's

a)

Sensory neuron death

b)

Motor neurones apathy

c)

Decreased acetylcholine

d)

Loss of dopamine producing cells

3.

Which of the following is a symptom of parkinson's disease

a)

Fast speaking

b)

Hyper activity

c)

Bradykinesia(slow movement)

4.

Changes to levels of _____ and _____ have key roles in parkinson's disease

a)

Dopamine,acetylcholine

b)

Serotonin,acetylcholine

c)

Dopamine,melatonin

d)

Dopamin,serotonin

5.

The leading treatment for Parkinson's Disease is:

a)

Carbidopa-levodopa

b)

Cardipoda-levopoda

c)

Carbinova-levopada

d)

Carbonipa-levadopa

6.

The Nurse explains to a patient newly diagnosed with MS that the diagnosis is made primarily by

a)

Spinal x-ray findings.

b)

T-cell analysis of the blood

c)

Analysis of cerebrospinal fluid

d)

History and clinical manifestations

7.

During your discharge teaching to a patient with multiple sclerosis, you educate the patient on how to avoid increasing symptoms and relapses. You tell the patient to avoid: (select all that apply)

a)

Cold temperatures

b)

Infection

c)

Overexertion

d)

Salt

e)

Stress

8.

A patient diagnosed with multiple sclerosis tells the healthcare provider, “I’m not sure if I’ll be able to exercise anymore.” Which of the following is the most appropriate response?

a)

“Exercise often causes a relapse in the disease, so it should be avoided.”

b)

“Swimming or exercising in the water can be both enjoyable and beneficial.”

c)

“It’s important for you to conserve your strength by not being too active.”

d)

“You should get a personal trainer to help you plan a fitness program.”

9.

What is MS?

a)

Disease of the CNS that attacks dendrites

b)

Disease of the PNS that attacks dendrites

c)

Disease of the CNS that attacks myelin

d)

Disease of the PNS that attacks myelin

10.

What are symptoms of MS? (select all)

a)

Fatigue

b)

Mood changes

c)

Increased sensation

d)

Impaired bladder control

11.

The prevalence of MS is higher in countries that have what?

a)

Warmer climate

b)

Colder climate

12.

Which is not an MS category?

a)

Progressive Relapsing MS

b)

Progressive MS

c)

Relapsing Remitting MS

d)

Remitting MS

13.

The majority of all MS cases are Relapsing Remitting. True or false?

a)

True

b)

False

14.

What lifestyle changes may help improve the quality of life for those with MS?

a)

Healthy eating

b)

Daily physical activity

c)

Getting plenty of rest

d)

Stress management

e)

All of the above

15.

What kind of disease is multiple sclerosis?

a)

Infectious

b)

Viral

c)

Autoimmune

d)

Blood

16.

Multiple Sclerosis is

a)

A progressive autoimmune condition in which the neurons of the central nervous system demyelinate

b)

Immune system attacks the joints

c)

When the immune system attacks blood vessels

17.

What is the most common type of MS?

a)

Secondary progressive MS

b)

Relapsing remitting MS

c)

Primary progressive MS

d)

Benign

18.

MS affects central nervous system (CNS). Which part of the CNS is affected

a)

Nerve cell(neurons)

b)

Myelin

c)

Plaques

d)

Vertebrae

19.

Which of the following is the most helpful study in the clinical investigation of MS?

a)

MRI

b)

Radiography

c)

Visual evoked potentials

d)

Lumbar puncture

20.

Select the TRUE statements about the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis

a)

Plaques of demyelination, disseminated in time and space, interfere with neuronal transmission

b)

The dendrites on the neuron are overstimulated leading to the destruction of the axon.

c)

The dopaminergic neurons in the part of the brain called substantia nigra have started to die.

21.

A chronic nervous system disease characterized

by a slowly spreading tremor, muscular

weakness, and rigidity

a)

epilepsy

b)

muscular dystophy

c)

Parkinson's disease

d)

meningitis

22.

A chronic, slowly progressive disease of the

central nervous system that destroys the myelin

sheath of nerve cell axons

a)

multiple sclerosis

b)

epilepsy

c)

Parkinson's disease

d)

Alzheimer's disease

23.

Osteoclast do not reabsorb and it makes the bones very dense. It leads to facial paralysis and decreased blood production.

a)

osteoporosis

b)

osteogenesis imperfecta

c)

osteopetrosis

d)

osteomyopathy

24.

Which of the following statements explains the difference between a sprain and a strain?

a)

in both cases the liagment is pulled, but the degree of damage determines the difference

b)

a sprain is a pulled tendon and a strain is a pulled ligament

c)

a strain is a pulled muscle and a sprain is a pulled ligament

d)

there is no difference between a strain and sprain.

25.

Autoimmune disorder that damages the myelin around nerve cells, reducing the response of muscles. Leads to numbness, tremors, and visions problems.

a)

Myopathy

b)

Duchenne msucular dystrophy

c)

Marfan syndrome

d)

Multiple Sclerosis

26.

Caucasian and Asian women are more likely to have this disorder due to lack of Ca+ uptake. This leads to fractures in the hips and vertebrate.

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Osteopetrosis

c)

Osteogenesis imperfecta

d)

Osteoblast Cyst

27.

Inflammation of tendons typically in the shoulder, wrist, knee, and elbow, that is the result of repeated movements of that joint (like a baseball player throwing a ball).

a)

multiple sclerosis

b)

tendonitis

c)

osteotendonitis

d)

Marfan syndrome

28.

Name the Disorder

a)

Scoleosis

b)

Multiple Sclerosis

c)

Marfan syndrome

29.
An injury to a muscle caused by overusing or overstretching it
a)
Sprain
b)
Strain
c)
Shin Splints
d)
Athlete's Foot
30.
A loss of bone mass that makes bones easy to break
a)
Sprain
b)
Strain
c)
Osteoporosis
d)
Shin splints
31.

What is Multiple Sclerosis?

a)

It is a disease of the Central nervous system.

b)

It affects the brain, spinal cord, and optic nerves.

c)

Interferes with the transmission of nerve signals between the brain and spinal cord.

d)

All of the above.

32.

A 95 year old patient has an accidental fall while going to the bathroom without assistance. It appears the patient has sustained a bone fracture to the right leg. The leg’s shape is deformed and the patient is unable to move it. The patient is alert and oriented but in pain. What will you do FIRST after confirming the patient is safe and stable?

a)

Apply an ice pack covered with a towel to the site.

b)

Immobilize the fracture with a splint.

c)

Administer pain medication.

d)

Elevate the extremity above heart level.

33.

A female patient is brought to the emergency room with an injury to her lower leg from an ATV accident. You notice a white tip of a bone protruding through the skin as you cut her pant leg off. Her injury is described as what kind of fracture.

a)

Comminuted

b)

Pathologic

c)

Compound

d)

Stress

34.
a)
compression
b)
simple
c)
compound
d)
spiral
35.
 a fracture in which the bone breaks diagonally. 
a)
Oblique Fracture
b)
Fracture
c)
Diagonal Fracture
d)
Horizontal Fracture 
36.
Bone breaks into many fragments.
a)
Shattered Fracture
b)
Traction Fracture 
c)
Comminuted Fracture
d)
The Magic School Bus
37.
Bone breaks incompletely, occurs most commonly during the infantile stages of life.
a)
Greenstick Fracture
b)
Stable Fracture
c)
Bluestick Fracture
d)
Comminuted Fracture 
38.
Which fracture is where the bone is visible through the skin?
a)
Compound Fracture
b)
Stable Fracture
c)
Kevin Ware
d)
Horse
39.
What kind of fracture is shown in the picture?
a)
Open or compound
b)
Closed or simple
40.
What is an open fracture?
a)
A break with two or more fractures of the same bone
b)
A break of a bone joint
c)
One in which the two sides of the break do not touch each other
d)
One in which the sharp edges of the bone cut through the skin
41.
a)
Compression Fracture
b)
Compound Fracture
c)
Greenstick Fracture
d)
Comminuted Fracture
42.

The diagram shows a fracture that has pierced through the skin. What type of fracture is this?

a)

Simple

b)

Compound

c)

Impacted

d)

Greenstick

43.

The xray shows a fracture that has bones broken into more than two pieces. What type of fracture is this?

a)

Simple

b)

Compound

c)

Impacted

d)

Comminuted

44.

The diagram shows a fracture that has two bones crushing into each other. What type of fracture is this?

a)

Simple

b)

Compound

c)

Impacted

d)

Comminuted

45.
a)

Open

b)

Closed

c)

Trauma

d)

Stress

e)

Pathologic

46.

Closed Reduction

a)

Treating a bone through realignment with one's hands

b)

Treating a bone surgically with pins, rods, screws, and/or wires

c)

Placing the broken bone within a cast, splint, or boot

47.

Open Reduction

a)

Treating a bone through realignment with one's hands

b)

Treating a bone surgically with pins, rods, screws, and/or wires

c)

Placing the broken bone within a cast, splint, or boot

48.

Immobilization

a)

Treating a bone through realignment with one's hands

b)

Treating a bone surgically with pins, rods, screws, and/or wires

c)

Placing the broken bone within a cast, splint, or boot

49.

What type of fracture is this? (Hint: it's across the bone.)

a)

Dorsal

b)

Linear

c)

Closed

d)

Transverse

50.

What is the name of the incomplete fracture usually seen in children?

a)

Linear

b)

Transverse

c)

Fibial

d)

Greenstick

51.

When a broken bone moves out of its original position, it is ___________.

a)

Closed

b)

Displaced

c)

Rearranged

d)

Opened

52.

_________ fractures are diagonal breaks in the bone.

a)

Incomplete

b)

Linear

c)

Closed

d)

Oblique

53.

What is a non-surgical way to treat a fracture?

a)

Immobilization

b)

Discombobulation

c)

Reduction

d)

Amputation

54.

What type of fracture DOESN'T penetrate through the skin?

a)

Open

b)

Closed

c)

Comminuted

d)

Oblique

55.

If a fracture is comminuted, that means the bone is in _______ pieces.

a)

Multiple

b)

One

56.

What are the precautions while treating fracture?

a)

Movement must be cut down to a minimum before supporting the fractured position

b)

Watch the signs of loss of circulation to the limb every 15 minutes

c)

Do not try to force a broken bone back into place

d)

Always cover the places where the skin had been punctured by the bone with bandages or a cloth

57.

A 45 year old patient comes to the clinic after a fall from a ladder. When she moves her injured leg, a grating sound is heard. How should you document this sound?

a)

Fremitus

b)

Crepitus

c)

Arthritis

d)

Clicking

58.

What type of fracture is this?

a)

Compound

b)

Hairline

c)

Simple

d)

Spiral

59.

What type of fracture is this?

a)

Compound

b)

Open

c)

Simple

d)

Spiral

60.

Open Reduction

a)

Treating a bone through realignment with one's hands

b)

Treating a bone surgically with pins, rods, screws, and/or wires

c)

Placing the broken bone within a cast, splint, or boot

61.

Immobilization

a)

Treating a bone through realignment with one's hands

b)

Treating a bone surgically with pins, rods, screws, and/or wires

c)

Placing the broken bone within a cast, splint, or boot

62.

What is a late sign of compartment syndrome?

a)

Paralysis

b)

Pain

c)

Paresthesia

d)

Pulselessness

63.

A patient sustained a fracture to the femur. The patient has suddenly become confused, restless, and has a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute. Based on the location of fracture and the presenting symptoms, this patient may be experiencing what type of complication?

a)

Compartment Syndrome

b)

Osteomyelitis

c)

Fat embolism

d)

Hypovolemia

64.

This cell lays down new bone and helps repair damage.

a)

Osteoblast

b)

Osteoclast

c)

Osteocyte

d)

Osteobuddies

65.

Which of the following is part of a Synovial joint

a)

Synovial membrane

b)

Joint cavity

c)

Ligament

d)

Cartilage

66.

What is total hip arthroplasty?

a)

A surgical procedure in which the hip joint is replaced by a hip prosthesis

b)

A surgical procedure in which hip joint is removed

c)

A surgical procedure in which the entire hip is plastered

d)

A surgical procedure in which the elbow joint is repaired

67.

What is the most common purpose to diagnose total hip arthroplasty?

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Trauma arthritis

c)

Hip resurfacing

d)

Osteoarthritis

68.

What is osteoarthritis caused by?

a)

Fracture of bone

b)

Inflammation of liver

c)

Deterioration of cartilage

d)

Excessive production of cartilage

69.

What are some types of hip arthroplasty?

a)

Total hip arthroplasty

b)

Hemiarthroplasty

c)

Hip resurfacing

d)

All of the above

70.

Which of the following may indicate that the patient has a herniated disk?

a)

Cough or hoarseness that doesn't go away

b)

Unusual bleeding

c)

Pain and numbness, most commonly on one side of the body

d)

Skin irregularities

71.

A discectomy is the surgical removal of abnormal disc material that presses on a nerve root or the spinal cord.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Which of the following may result in a herniated disk?

a)

Physically demanding occupations

b)

Being overweight

c)

Genetics -- if another family member had a herniated disk

d)

All of the above

73.

surgical puncture to aspirate fluid from a joint

a)

arthrocentesis

b)

arthrodesis

c)

arthroplasty

d)

arthroscopy

74.

surgical repair of a joint

a)

arthrocentesis

b)

arthrodesis

c)

arthroplasty

d)

arthroscopy

75.

radiographic imaging of a joint

a)

arthrocentesis

b)

arthrography

c)

arthroplasty

d)

arthroscopy

76.

visual examination of a joint

a)

arthrocentesis

b)

arthrography

c)

arthroplasty

d)

arthroscopy

77.

A medical emergency that must be identified immediately; pressure within the muscle compartment or cast increases as perfusion to the area decreases which could lead to necrosis and irreversible neuromuscular damage. Pain is worst with movement.

a)

Compact syndrome

b)

Avascular necrosis

c)

Compartment syndrome

d)

Atherosclerosis

78.

Select all that are signs of impaired neurovascular signs include (select all that apply)

a)

Pain

b)

Coolness

c)

Pallor

d)

Paralysis

e)

Redness

79.

Not using pillows behind the knee and not using a knee gatch on the bed prevents which of the following post-op ortho. complications?

a)

Flexion contractures

b)

Extensor contractures

c)

Avascular necrosis

d)

Footdrop

80.

Apply trochanter rolls to immobile patients to prevent?

a)

Joint extention

b)

Compartment syndrome

c)

Internal rotation

d)

External rotation

81.

What is used to measure bone density and diagnose osteoporosis?

a)

Bone scan

b)

Duel-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

c)

Gallium scan

d)

CAT scan

82.

What precautions should be made to prevent total hip dislocation after total hip arthroplasty? (select all that apply)

a)

Avoid flexing the hip more than 90 degree

b)

Prevent external rotation

c)

Keep the head of the bed below 45 degree

d)

Avoid crossing your legs

e)

Do not bend at the waste

83.

Forward curvature of the thoracic spine is referred to as__________

a)

Lordosis

b)

Callus

c)

Scoliosis

d)

Kyphosis

84.

Symptoms of neurovascular compromise are ( select all that apply)

a)

Poikilothermia

b)

Pain

c)

Position

d)

Pallor

e)

Parasthesia

85.

Which term means an attempt to return the affected bone to its normal alignment by manually applied forces?

a)

immobilization

b)

closed reduction

c)

traction

86.

This injury results in the total displacement of a bone from its joint.

a)

subluxation

b)

dislocation

87.

A sprain is a small, medium, or complete tear to the:

a)

bone

b)

tendon

c)

ligament

d)

muscle

88.

A STRAIN is a small, medium, or complete tear of the:

a)

muscle or tendon

b)

tendon or ligament

c)

cartilage

d)

cartilage and ligament

89.
Break in the hip socket, most often in the femur
a)
fracture
b)
herniated disk
c)
hip fracture
d)
kyphosis
90.
large blood clot, seen in bones at the site of the fracture as the first step in healing
a)
bony callous
b)
cartilaginous callous
c)
fibrocartilage
d)
hematoma
91.
abnormal inward curvature of the vertebrae of the lower back, leading to swayback
a)
lordosis
b)
lumbago
c)
kyphosis
d)
laminectomy
92.
extreme back pain and numbness due to degeneration and breakdown of cartilage discs between the vertebrae
a)
herniated disc
b)
fracture
c)
hip fracture
d)
lumbago
93.
bone tissue that replaces cartilaginous callus as the broken bone heals
a)
hematoma
b)
bony callus
c)
fibrocartilage
d)
osteoblast
94.

Which of the following is the gold standard for diagnosis of DVT?

a)

Contrast venography

b)

Doppler ultrasound

c)

Homan's sign

d)

Wells Clinical Decision Rule

95.

Early mobilization post surgery has been shown to result in all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Increased pain

b)

Shorter hospital stays

c)

Reduced risk of DVT

d)

Greater independence

96.

Which of the following nutrients is most important for wound healing?

a)

Calcium

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Protein

d)

Magnesium

97.

Which of the following may be a sign of post surgical wound infection?

a)

Fever

b)

Redness

c)

Increased drainage

d)

All of the above

98.
Formation of bone marrow
a)
Myelopoiesis
b)
Scoliosis
c)
Lordosis
d)
Kyphosis
99.
Degenerative joint disease; chronic inflammation of bones
a)
Osteoarthritis
b)
Carpal tunnel syndrome
c)
Gouty Arthritis
d)
Achondroplasia
100.

Recommended non-surgical managements for knee osteoarthritis for which there are good evidence in all the following EXCEPT:

a)

Footwear modification

b)

Self-management and education

c)

Weight management

d)

Land-based exercise

101.

Difficult movement

a)

hyperkinesia

b)

bradykinesia

c)

dyskinesia

102.

break down of striated muscle

a)

spondylosis

b)

rhabdomyolysis

c)

spondylolisthesis

103.

a crackling sound heard during flexion and extension

a)

osteopenia

b)

exostosis

c)

crepitus

104.

Osteoarthritis can cause pain due to inflammation of the joints. What type of pain medication may the provider ask you to administer?

a)

Analgesic

b)

Anti-inflammatory

c)

Antiemetic

d)

none of the above

105.

Which of the below treatment can be the last option for osteoarthritis patient?

a)

Wear joint support

b)

Use assistive aid

c)

Joint replacement

d)

Corticosteroid injection

106.

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who has a femur fracture and is in skeletal traction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a)

Loosen the knots on the ropes if the client is experiencing pain.

b)

Ensure the client’s weights are hanging freely from the bed.

c)

Check the client’s bony prominences every 12 hr.

d)

Cleanse the client’s pin sites with povidone-iodine.

107.

A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for an older adult client who is postoperative following a right hip arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

a)

Perform the client's personal care activities for her.

b)

Limit the client’s fluid intake.

c)

Monitor the Homan’s sign.

d)

Maintain abduction of the right hip.

108.

A nurse is assisting with the plan of care for an older adult client who is 4 hr postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of a fractured femur. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

a)

Restrict oral fluid intake to 1,000 mL per day.

b)

Remove antiembolic stockings once each day to examine skin integrity.

c)

Maintain the client on bed rest for 72 hr after surgery.

d)

Check capillary refill in the affected extremity every 4 hr.

109.

A nurse is collecting data from a client following the application of a leg cast for the treatment of a fracture. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect to find first if the cast is too tight?

a)

Toes cool to touch

b)

Edema of the toes

c)

Pallor of the toes

d)

Inability to move toes

110.

A nurse is collecting data on a client who has a femur fracture. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of fat embolism syndrome?

a)

Reduced pulses distal to the client's fracture

b)

Swelling below the client's injury

c)

A drop in the client's temperature

d)

Petechiae over the client's chest

111.

Bones need a balanced diet that includes:

a)

calcium and vitamin D

b)

calcium and vitamin A

c)

Vitamin C and Calcium

d)

calcium Vitamin A

112.
Which of the following is commonly called a ruptured disk?
a)
Herniated nucleus pulposus 
b)
Ankylosing spondylitis 
c)
Osteomalacia
d)
Spina bifida
113.
Dual-energy absorptiometry is used to diagnose which condition?
a)
Osteoarthritis
b)
Ewing’s sarcoma 
c)
Osteoporosis
d)
Rickets
114.
Which term refers to realigning bone fragments in a fracture?
a)
Fixation
b)
Myelography
c)
Reduction 
d)
Amputation
115.

Bony nodes seen in the Distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints in osteoarthritis is called

a)

Bouchard's nodes

b)

Virchow's nodes

c)

Rheumatoid nodules

d)

Heberden’s nodes

116.

Immature bone cell

a)

osteoblast

b)

osteoclast

117.

cell that reabsorbs (digests, breaks down) bone tissue

a)

osteoblast

b)

osteoclast

118.

Softening of bone

a)

Osteomalacia

b)

Chrondrocyte

c)

Encephalitis

d)

Tendotomy

119.

an abnormal bending of a joint into a fixed position

a)

flexion

b)

extension

c)

contraction

d)

contracture

120.
stress fracture
a)
overuse injury ,small crack in bone
b)
angle across bone
c)
bone twisted apart
d)
bone splintered or crushed
121.
mechanical device designed to control, correct or help with limb impairment, joint malfunction
leg brace, shoe insert, splint
a)
prosthesis
b)
orthotic
c)
traction
d)
synovectomy
122.

What is osteoblast?

a)

A strong band of connective tissue that joins one bone to another

b)

The irregularly shaped end of a long bone

c)

The fibrous membrane that covers a bone’s surface

d)

A cell that produces bone tissue

123.

What agent is used to prevent and treat osteoporosis? (It increases bone mass by decreasing bone turnover)

a)

non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

b)

selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)

c)

steroids

d)

bisphosphonate

124.

A nurse is caring for a client who displays manifestations of stage III parkinson's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

a)

Recommend a community support group

b)

Integrate a daily exercise routine

c)

Provide a walker for ambulation

d)

Perform ADLs for the client

125.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has parkinson's disease and has a new prescription for bromocriptine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

a)

Rise slowly when standing

b)

Expect urine to be dark colored

c)

avoid foods containing tyramine

d)

report any skin discoloration

126.

A nurse is caring for a client who has parkinson's disease and is starting to display bradykinesia. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

a)

Tech the client to walk more quickly when ambulating

b)

Complete passive range of motion excercises daily

c)

place the client on a low protein low calorie diet

d)

give the client extra time to perform activities

127.

A nurse is caring for a client who has Multiple Sclerosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

a)

fluctuations in blood pressure

b)

loss of cognitive function

c)

ineffective cough

d)

drooping eye lids

128.

A nurse is beginning a physical assessment of a client who has a new diagnosis of multiple sclerosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (select all that apply)

a)

Areas of paresthesia

b)

involuntary eye movements

c)

alopecia

d)

increased salivation

e)

ataxia

129.

A nurse is teaching a client who has multiple sclerosis and a new prescription for baclofen. Which of the following statments should the nurse include in the teaching?

a)

this medication will help with your tremors

b)

this medication will help with your bladder function

c)

this medication can cause your skin to bruise easily

d)

this medication can cause you to experience dizziness

130.

A nurse is reviewing the health record of a client who is to undergo total joint arthroplasty. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to this procedure?

a)

age 78 yrs

b)

history of cancer

c)

previous joint replacement

d)

bronchitis 2 weeks ago

131.

A nurse is admitting a client to the orthopedic unit following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following actions by the nurse are appropriate? (Select all that apply)

a)

check CPM device settings

b)

palpate dorsal and pedal pulses

c)

place a pillow behind the knee

d)

elevate heels off of bed

e)

apply heat therapy to incision

132.

A nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client who had a total hip arthroplasty. which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching? (select all that apply)

a)

clean incision daily with soap and water

b)

turn toes inward when sitting or lying

c)

sit in straight-backed armchair

d)

bend at waist when putting on socks

e)

use a raised toiletseat

133.

A nurse is assessing a client who is scheduled to undergo a right knee arthroplasty. The nurse should expect which of the following findings? (Select all that apply)

a)

skin reddened over the joint

b)

pain when bearing weight

c)

joint crepitus

d)

swelling of affected joint

e)

limited joint motion

134.

A nurse is completing a preoperative teaching plan for a client who is scheduled to have a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching? (select all that apply)

a)

encourage complete autologous blood donation

b)

sit in a low reclining chair

c)

instruct client to roll onto the operative hip

d)

use an abductor pillow when turning the client

e)

perform isometric exercises

135.

A nurse is admitting an adult client who has suspected osteoporosis. Which of the following findings are risk factors for osteoporosis? (select all that apply)

a)

history of consuming 1 glass of wine per day

b)

loss in height of 2 in

c)

BMI of 18

d)

kyphotic curve at upper thoracic spine

e)

history of lactose intolerance

136.

A nurse is providing care for a client who had a vertebroplasty of the thoracic spine. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a)

apply heat to the puncture site

b)

place the client in supine position

c)

turn client every 1 hour

d)

ambulate the client within the first hour postprocedure

137.

A nurse is providing dietary teaching about calcium-rich foods to a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the instructions?

a)

White bread

b)

Kale

c)

Apples

d)

Brown rice

138.

A nurse is performing health screenings at a health fair. Which of the following clients have a risk factor for osteoporosis? (select all that apply)

a)

40 yr old who has been taking prednisone for 4 months

b)

30 yr old who jogs 3 miles a day

c)

45 yr old who takes phenytoin for seizures

d)

a 65 yr old who has sedentary lifestyle

e)

a 70 yr old who has smoked for 50 years

139.

A nurse is planning discharge teaching on home safety for a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? (select all that apply)

a)

remove throw rugs in walkways

b)

use prescribed assistive devices

c)

remove clutter from environment

d)

wear soft-bottomed shoes

e)

maintain lighting of doorway areas

140.

A nurse is teaching a client how to manage an external fixation device upon discharge. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding? (select all that apply)

a)

I will clean the pins more often if drainage increases

b)

i will use a seperate cotton swab for each pin

c)

i will report loosening of the pins to my doctor

d)

I will move my leg by lifting the device in the middle

e)

I will report increased redness at the site

141.

A nurse is assessing a client who has a casted compound fracture of the femur. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of a fat embolus?

a)

Altered mental status

b)

reduced bowel sounds

c)

swelling of toes distal to the injury

d)

pain with passive movement of the foot distal to the injury

142.

A nurse is assessing a client who had an external fixation device applied 2 hours ago for a fracture of the left tibia and fibula. Which of the following findings is a clincial manifestation of compartment syndrome? (select all that apply)

a)

intense pain when the client's left foot is passively moved

b)

capillary refill of 3 sec on the client's left toes

c)

hard, swollen, muscles in the clients left leg

d)

burning and tingling of the left foot

e)

client report of minimal pain relief following a second dose of opioid pain med

143.

A nurse in the ER is planning care for a client who has a right hip fracture. Which of the following immobilization devices should the nurse anticipate in the plan of care?

a)

Skeletal traction

b)

Buck's traction

c)

Halo traction

d)

Bryants traction

144.

A nurse is assessing a client who has osteoarthritis of the knees and fingers. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect to find? (select all that apply.)

a)

Herberden's nodes

b)

swelling of all joints

c)

small body frame

d)

enlarged joint size

e)

limp when walking

145.

A nurse is providing teaching about capsaicin cream to a client who reports continuous knee pain from osteoarthritis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the discussion?

a)

continuous pain relief is provided

b)

put on gloves before applying cream to other parts of the body

c)

leave cream on the hands for 10 min following application

d)

apply the medication every 2 hours during the day