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Control of Microbial Growth — Worksheet Extraction

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term refers to the complete removal or destruction of all living microorganisms, including endospores and prions?

a)

Sterilization

b)

Disinfection

c)

Antisepsis

d)

Asepsis

2.

Which agent is specifically defined as one that can sterilize?

a)

Sterilant

b)

Disinfectant

c)

Antiseptic

d)

Biocide

3.

Which process is defined as the destruction of vegetative microorganisms but not endospores?

a)

Disinfection

b)

Sterilization

c)

Antisepsis

d)

Asepsis

4.

Which agent is defined as one that can disinfect?

a)

Disinfectant

b)

Sterilant

c)

Antiseptic

d)

Fungistat

5.

Which process describes the destruction of vegetative microorganisms on living tissue?

a)

Antisepsis

b)

Sterilization

c)

Asepsis

d)

Biocidal treatment

6.

Which agent brings about antisepsis on living tissue?

a)

Antiseptic

b)

Disinfectant

c)

Sterilant

d)

Virucide

7.

Biocide (also called germicide, cidal agent) is best defined as an agent that does which action to microorganisms?

a)

Kills microorganisms

b)

Prevents growth only

c)

Neutralizes toxins without affecting cells

d)

Promotes replication

8.

Which cidal agent is specifically aimed at bacteria?

a)

Bacteriocide

b)

Fungicide

c)

Virucide

d)

Bacteriostat

9.

Which cidal agent targets fungi?

a)

Fungicide

b)

Bacteriocide

c)

Virustat

d)

Antiseptic

10.

Which cidal agent targets viruses?

a)

Virucide

b)

Bacteriostat

c)

Fungistat

d)

Antiseptic

11.

Static agents are defined as agents that prevent which microbial process?

a)

Growth and replication

b)

Spore formation only

c)

Metabolism without replication

d)

Protein synthesis only

12.

Which static agent specifically stops the growth of bacteria?

a)

Bacteriostat

b)

Bacteriocide

c)

Fungicide

d)

Virucide

13.

Which static agent specifically stops the growth of fungi?

a)

Fungistat

b)

Bacteriostat

c)

Virucide

d)

Sterilant

14.

Which static agent specifically stops the growth of viruses?

a)

Virustat

b)

Virucide

c)

Fungistat

d)

Disinfectant

15.

Sepsis is defined as which condition?

a)

Contamination with microorganisms

b)

Absence of contamination

c)

Complete removal of microorganisms

d)

Selective removal of endospores only

16.

Asepsis is defined as which condition?

a)

Absence of contamination

b)

Contamination with microorganisms

c)

Destruction of vegetative cells on tissue

d)

Presence of prions only

17.

According to the listed microbial characteristics, which group is highly resistant and therefore hardest to kill?

a)

Bacterial endospores and prions

b)

Pseudomonas sp., Mycobacterium sp., protozoan cysts

c)

Vegetative bacterial cells and enveloped viruses

d)

Yeast and protozoan trophozoites

18.

Which organisms are described as mildly resistant?

a)

Pseudomonas sp., Mycobacterium sp., protozoan cysts

b)

Bacterial endospores and prions

c)

Most vegetative bacterial cells only

d)

Enveloped viruses only

19.

Which organisms are listed among the least resistant group?

a)

Most vegetative bacterial cells, viruses, fungal forms, and protozoan trophozoites

b)

Bacterial endospores and prions only

c)

Mycobacterium and Pseudomonas only

d)

Prions and naked viruses only

20.

Moist heat affects proteins in which two ways? Select both.

a)

Denaturation

b)

Coagulation

c)

Phosphorylation

d)

Reduction

21.

At normal atmospheric pressure, water boils at which temperature?

a)

100 °C (212 °F)

b)

95 °C (203 °F)

c)

110 °C (230 °F)

d)

90 °C (194 °F)

22.

Boiling water is described as effective against which targets?

a)

Vegetative cells, fungi, most viruses, and protozoa

b)

Endospores only

c)

Prions and endospores

d)

Protozoan cysts only

23.

Most killing by boiling occurs within which time frame?

a)

10 minutes

b)

1 minute

c)

30 minutes

d)

60 minutes

24.

Boiling is less effective against which targets?

a)

Heat-resistant viruses and endospores

b)

Vegetative cells and fungi

c)

Enveloped viruses and yeast

d)

Protozoa and trophozoites

25.

Which materials are listed as suitable uses for sanitizing by boiling when heat and moisture stability are required?

a)

Glassware, bottles, non-medical utensils, dressings, cloth

b)

Electronic devices and rubber tubing

c)

Heat-sensitive plastics and paper products

d)

Frozen foods and live cultures

26.

Steam at normal atmospheric pressure is equivalent to boiling water.

a)

boiling water

b)

superheated dry steam

c)

dry heat sterilization

d)

ultraviolet irradiation

27.

Steam under pressure can reach higher temperatures.

a)

higher temperatures

b)

lower temperatures

c)

the same temperature as at sea level

d)

room temperature only

28.

Higher temperature is more effective for moist-heat sterilization.

a)

more effective

b)

less effective

c)

equally effective

d)

ineffective

29.

A pressure cooker is a common example of pressurized steam sterilization used in households.

a)

pressure cooker

b)

microwave oven

c)

laboratory incubator

d)

laminar flow hood

30.

Pressurized steam is used for some sterilization in home canning.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Autoclaves are used in the following settings.

a)

clinical applications

b)

industrial applications

c)

research applications

d)

home cooking

32.

An autoclave maintains high pressure to allow for higher temperatures.

a)

maintains high pressure

b)

reduces pressure to near vacuum

c)

adds desiccation only

d)

uses ultraviolet light

33.

Autoclaving is more effective at killing infectious agents and sterilizing than dry heat at the same temperature.

a)

killing infectious agents and sterilizing

b)

drying glassware

c)

cooling culture media

d)

culturing microbes

34.

Autoclave treatment is active against everything except prions.

a)

prions

b)

vegetative bacteria

c)

enveloped viruses

d)

fungi

35.

Most autoclave applications require approximately 15 to 30+ minutes to achieve sterilization.

a)

1–5 minutes

b)

10–12 minutes

c)

15–30+ minutes

d)

60–90 minutes

36.

Materials to be autoclaved must be stable to heat (about 121∘C121^\circ\mathrm{C} ) and moisture.

a)

stable to heat and moisture

b)

sensitive to heat but stable to moisture

c)

stable to heat but must remain dry

d)

unstable to both heat and moisture

37.

Items commonly sterilized in an autoclave include the following.

a)

culture media

b)

medical and laboratory equipment

c)

surgical and wound dressings

d)

glassware

e)

consumer electronics

38.

Pasteurization was first developed by Louis Pasteur.

a)

Louis Pasteur

b)

Robert Koch

c)

Joseph Lister

d)

Alexander Fleming

39.

Pasteurization was developed primarily to limit spoilage of food such as beer and wine.

a)

limit spoilage of food

b)

achieve complete sterilization

c)

enhance flavor through fermentation

d)

rapidly cool beverages

40.

Pasteurization uses low heat to reduce the number of microbes.

a)

low heat to reduce microbe numbers

b)

high heat to eliminate all microbes

c)

freezing to halt growth

d)

ultraviolet light to sterilize

41.

Pasteurization does not eliminate all microbes present.

a)

eliminates all microbes

b)

does not eliminate all microbes

c)

increases microbial contamination

d)

dehydrates microbes completely

42.

Pasteurization is effective against most microbes, especially pathogens.

a)

most microbes, especially pathogens

b)

only thermophiles

c)

only prions

d)

only bacterial endospores

43.

Pasteurization is not effective against the following.

a)

thermophilic bacteria

b)

bacterial endospores

c)

prions

d)

enveloped viruses

44.

Materials subjected to pasteurization must be somewhat heat-resistant.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

High-temperature short-time (HTST) pasteurization typically uses 72∘C72^\circ\mathrm{C} for 15 seconds.

a)

72∘C72^\circ\mathrm{C} for 15 seconds

b)

63∘C63^\circ\mathrm{C} for 30 minutes

c)

90∘C90^\circ\mathrm{C} for 5 seconds

d)

55∘C55^\circ\mathrm{C} for 10 minutes

46.

A liquid is run through a heated tube at a specific flow rate and is used with milk, some sauces, and egg products. After this treatment, what requirement for the material is stated?

a)

It must still be refrigerated

b)

It should be frozen immediately

c)

It can be stored at room temperature without limits

d)

It must be kept under pressure

47.

Ultra-high-temperature (UHT) processing is specified at what temperature–time combination?

a)

140∘140^\circ C for 4 seconds

b)

100∘100^\circ C for 10 minutes

c)

72∘72^\circ C for 15 seconds

d)

160∘160^\circ C for 1 second

48.

According to the worksheet, UHT processing can actually do what to the material?

a)

Sterilize the material

b)

Pasteurize the material only

c)

Disinfect surfaces without affecting the material

d)

Sanitize but not sterilize

49.

For products treated with UHT (e.g., milk, coffee creamers, juice), what storage condition is stated?

a)

They do not need to be refrigerated

b)

They must be refrigerated

c)

They must be frozen

d)

They must be stored below 0∘0^\circ C

50.

Dry heat is described as being able to cause what outcome to the infectious agent/material?

a)

Complete destruction

b)

Partial inhibition

c)

Surface-level cleaning only

d)

Temporary deactivation

51.

Which method is stated to require very high temperature to completely destroy material?

a)

Incineration

b)

Filtration

c)

Ultra-high-temperature processing

d)

Refrigeration

52.

Which listed item is an example of equipment used for incineration?

a)

Benchtop incinerator

b)

Autoclave

c)

Laminar flow hood

d)

Centrifuge

53.

Why is a higher temperature needed for dry heat compared to moist heat?

a)

Dry heat has lower heat capacity

b)

Dry heat contains higher humidity

c)

Dry heat reduces oxygen levels

d)

Dry heat provides better conduction

54.

Filtration is defined as the passage of a liquid or gas through what?

a)

A porous membrane

b)

A heated coil

c)

A pressurized chamber

d)

An ultraviolet light tunnel

55.

According to the worksheet, which characteristics of filter pores are emphasized? Select all that apply.

a)

Large enough for liquid or gas to pass

b)

Small enough to block or trap microbes

c)

Designed to add chemicals to the fluid

d)

Heated to sterilize during flow

56.

What pore-size range is noted as commonly used for filters?

a)

0.45 μm0.45\,\mu\text{m} to 0.22 μm0.22\,\mu\text{m}

b)

1.0 μm1.0\,\mu\text{m} to 0.8 μm0.8\,\mu\text{m}

c)

5.0 μm5.0\,\mu\text{m} to 2.0 μm2.0\,\mu\text{m}

d)

0.10 μm0.10\,\mu\text{m} to 0.05 μm0.05\,\mu\text{m}

57.

Which example is given for a filterable agent—an infectious particle that can pass through a filter?

a)

Virus

b)

Bacterium

c)

Yeast

d)

Protozoan

58.

Used to sterilize heat-sensitive liquids and large volumes of gas (air), which method is indicated for these applications?

a)

Filtration

b)

Autoclaving

c)

Dry heat oven

d)

Incineration

59.

For liquids, which setup is specified to sterilize them by filtration?

a)

Vacuum filter chambers

b)

HEPA-filtered hoods

c)

Ultraviolet lamp exposure

d)

Chemical scrubbers

60.

For gases, high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters are used. What pore size is noted for these filters?

a)

0.3 μm

b)

3 μm

c)

30 μm

d)

0.03 μm

61.

Select all listed uses for HEPA filtration of gases.

a)

Biocontainment hoods

b)

Surgical suites

c)

Burn units

d)

Nurseries

e)

Chemical scrubbers to remove hazardous chemicals

62.

Osmotic pressure control is usually achieved using which conditions? Select all that apply.

a)

High salt

b)

High sugar

c)

Low pH

d)

High temperature

63.

Which examples are provided for foods preserved using osmotic pressure?

a)

Salted meat, jellies, and jams

b)

Fresh leafy greens

c)

Fermented dairy only

d)

Canned low-sugar fruit

64.

Osmotic pressure causes what effect on microbes?

a)

Plasmolysis

b)

Endospore formation

c)

Increased motility

d)

Capsule synthesis

65.

Not all microbes are equally affected by osmotic pressure. Which groups are specifically included in the notes? Select all that apply.

a)

Fungi

b)

Some bacteria (halophiles)

c)

Viruses

d)

Protozoa

66.

Ionizing radiation includes which types? Select all that apply.

a)

Gamma (γ) rays

b)

X-rays

c)

Ultraviolet (UV) light

d)

Infrared radiation

67.

What wavelength characteristic is noted for ionizing radiation?

a)

Low wavelength (under 1 nm)

b)

Medium wavelength (10–400 nm)

c)

Visible range (400–700 nm)

d)

Long wavelength (over 1 mm)

68.

What energy and penetration characteristics are associated with ionizing radiation?

a)

High energy and high penetration

b)

Low energy and low penetration

c)

High energy and low penetration

d)

Low energy and high penetration

69.

Ionizing radiation ionizes molecules to create which radicals?

a)

Hydroxyl (−OH) radicals

b)

Methyl (−CH3) radicals

c)

Carboxyl (−COOH) radicals

d)

Nitrate (NO3−) radicals

70.

Which cellular targets are listed as damaged by ionizing radiation? Select all that apply.

a)

DNA

b)

Proteins

c)

Lipids

d)

Polysaccharides

71.

Effectiveness of ionizing radiation depends on which listed factors?

a)

Type of radiation and number of hits

b)

Ambient humidity alone

c)

Color of the material

d)

Operator technique only

72.

What use is specified for ionizing radiation in laboratory and medical contexts?

a)

Sterilization of heat-sensitive materials for clinical, pharmaceutical, and research use

b)

Pasteurization of milk

c)

Drying laboratory glassware

d)

Staining microbial cells

73.

For nonionizing radiation, does it have the energy to ionize molecules?

a)

Yes, it ionizes molecules

b)

No, it does not ionize molecules

74.

The wavelength for nonionizing radiation used in disinfection is longer than how many nanometers?

a)

1 nm

b)

10 nm

c)

100 nm

d)

0.1 nm

75.

Identify the type of light: ______ (UV) light.

a)

Infrared

b)

Ultraviolet

c)

Visible

d)

Gamma

76.

For the UV light described, the wavelength is between which two values (in nanometers)?

a)

800 and 400 nm

b)

400 and 700 nm

c)

200 and 400 nm

d)

10 and 100 nm

77.

Primary mechanism: Damage ______.

a)

RNA

b)

Proteins

c)

Cell membrane

d)

DNA

78.

Formation of ______ dimers is a key effect of UV exposure.

a)

Adenine

b)

Thymine

c)

Guanine

d)

Cytosine

79.

UV exposure inhibits ______.

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

d)

Cell wall synthesis

80.

Most effective wavelength for the UV method described is how many nanometers?

a)

100 nm

b)

200 nm

c)

260 nm

d)

400 nm

81.

The wavelength is most absorbed by what cellular target?

a)

Proteins

b)

Lipids

c)

DNA

d)

Cell wall polysaccharides

82.

Problem noted: Very ______ penetration.

a)

High

b)

Moderate

c)

Low

d)

Variable

83.

Items must be ______ exposed to UV for effective treatment.

a)

Indirectly

b)

Partially

c)

Directly

d)

Intermittently

84.

UV can be ______ by paper, glass, plastic, etc.

a)

Amplified

b)

Blocked

c)

Reflected to increase dose

d)

Converted to visible light

85.

UV can cause damage to which tissues?

a)

Liver and kidneys

b)

Eyes and skin

c)

Lungs and heart

d)

Bones and cartilage

86.

Uses include ______ of airborne particles, surfaces, and water.

a)

Sterilization

b)

Disinfection

c)

Sanitization

d)

Pasteurization

87.

UV is used in ______ rooms and ______ cabinets/hoods.

a)

Operating; storage

b)

Sterile; biocontainment

c)

Lecture; incubation

d)

Transport; laminar flow

88.

UV is ______ effective against endospores.

a)

Highly

b)

Moderately

c)

Not

d)

Always variably

89.

Phenol-containing compounds are chemically altered phenol-containing compound(s). Which change is noted?

a)

Increased toxicity and decreased half-life

b)

Decreased toxicity and increased half-life

c)

Increased toxicity and increased half-life

d)

Decreased toxicity and decreased half-life

90.

The stability of phenol-containing compounds is described as what?

a)

Less stable

b)

More stable

c)

Unchanged

d)

Unstable in all conditions

91.

Mechanism: ______ at low concentrations.

a)

Detergent action

b)

Antimicrobial activity

c)

Chelation of metals

d)

Oxidation of lipids

92.

Phenol-containing compounds work by damaging ______ membrane and ______ cell walls.

a)

Protein; peptidoglycan

b)

Lipid; lipid

c)

Carbohydrate; cellulose

d)

Nucleic acid; chitin

93.

Active against: Gram-positive, most Gram-negative, and yeast — Which spectrum of organisms is listed for this agent?

a)

Only Gram-positive bacteria

b)

Gram-positive, most Gram-negative, and yeast

c)

Only Gram-negative rods

d)

Viruses only

94.

Not active against: Which organism is noted as not being affected by this agent?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Pseudomonas

c)

Candida

d)

Escherichia coli

95.

Uses: Surface disinfectant; can be antiseptic — What is the primary listed use of this agent?

a)

Food preservative

b)

Surface disinfectant (can be antiseptic)

c)

Antibiotic for systemic infections

d)

Vaccine adjuvant

96.

Combined with soaps and detergents to enhance activity — Which combination is indicated to increase effectiveness?

a)

With organic acids

b)

With soaps and detergents

c)

With heavy metals

d)

With UV light

97.

Can also be used as a topical anesthetic — Which additional application is noted?

a)

Topical anesthetic

b)

Systemic analgesic

c)

Antifungal cream

d)

Antiviral spray

98.

Examples: Cresols (Fig. 7.6, Fig. 7.7): o-phenylphenol — Which compound is used as a surface disinfectant (in Lysol)?

a)

Benzalkonium chloride

b)

o-Phenylphenol

c)

Ethanol

d)

Hydrogen peroxide

99.

Bisphenols: Which specific bisphenol is listed?

a)

Triclosan

b)

Bisphenol A

c)

Phenol

d)

Chlorhexidine

100.

Used in soaps, detergents, plastics, toothpaste — Which product category is explicitly mentioned for bisphenols use?

a)

Vaccines

b)

Toothpaste

c)

Antibiotic capsules

d)

Glassware

101.

Halogens: Include iodine and chlorine — Which elements are identified as halogens in this context?

a)

Iodine and chlorine

b)

Sodium and potassium

c)

Iron and copper

d)

Carbon and nitrogen

102.

Iodine: Can be used as an antiseptic or a disinfectant — Which dual role is listed for iodine?

a)

Antibiotic or vaccine

b)

Antiseptic or disinfectant

c)

Detergent or surfactant

d)

Preservative or flavoring

103.

Capable of sterilization (depends on the concentration used) — What condition enables iodine to sterilize?

a)

Temperature only

b)

pH only

c)

Concentration used

d)

Duration of storage

104.

Mechanism: Affects protein synthesis and damages proteins — Which cellular target is noted for iodine?

a)

DNA replication

b)

Protein synthesis and proteins

c)

Cell wall cross-links only

d)

Ribosome exclusion

105.

Can also disrupt lipid membranes — What additional mechanism is listed for iodine?

a)

Enhances glycolysis

b)

Disrupts lipid membranes

c)

Increases ATP synthase activity

d)

Blocks carbohydrate transport

106.

Active against all bacteria, fungi, some virus — Which spectrum is attributed to iodine?

a)

Only Gram-positive bacteria

b)

All bacteria, fungi, some viruses

c)

Only yeasts

d)

Protozoa only

107.

Can also affect endospores at higher concentrations or with certain formulations — Under what conditions can iodine impact endospores?

a)

At room temperature only

b)

At higher concentrations or with specific formulations

c)

Only in acidic environments

d)

Only with UV exposure

108.

Formulations include: Tincture (Fig. 7.10): Solutions of iodine in alcohol — What is a tincture of iodine?

a)

Iodine dissolved in water

b)

Iodine chelated to proteins

c)

Solutions of iodine in alcohol

d)

Iodine vapor under pressure

109.

Iodophor: Iodine complexed with other molecules — What does iodophor mean?

a)

Iodine in gaseous form

b)

Iodine complexed with other molecules

c)

Iodine mixed with salt

d)

Iodine reduced to iodide only

110.

Iodophors: Increase stability, less skin staining, less skin irritation — Which benefits are listed for iodophors?

a)

Increase stability

b)

More skin staining

c)

Less skin irritation

d)

Increase volatility

111.

Uses of iodine: Skin antiseptic (wound treatment, surgical prep); water treatment (potable water) — Which listed application is correct?

a)

Sterilizing surgical instruments only

b)

Skin antiseptic and potable water treatment

c)

Air disinfection only

d)

Food flavoring

112.

Chlorine: Primarily used as a disinfectant — What is the principal application noted for chlorine?

a)

Antibiotic

b)

Disinfectant

c)

Antiseptic only

d)

Preservative

113.

Chlorine can also be used as a sterilant (at high concentrations) — Under what condition is chlorine used as a sterilant?

a)

At low concentrations

b)

At high concentrations

c)

Only with heat

d)

Only when mixed with iodine

114.

Mechanism: Similar to iodine (halogens) — How is chlorine’s mechanism described?

a)

Opposite to iodine

b)

Similar to iodine (halogens)

c)

Unrelated to halogens

d)

Only oxidizes metals

115.

Most active form is hypochlorous acid (HOCl) — Which chemical species is noted as most active for chlorine?

a)

Sodium hypochlorite

b)

Hypochlorous acid (HOCl)

c)

Chloride ion (Cl−)

d)

Chlorine gas (Cl2)

116.

Most in this group are water-soluble but can use gaseous form.

a)

Liquid formulations only

b)

Water-soluble with possible gaseous form

c)

Only fat-soluble, no gaseous form

d)

Solid formulations only

117.

Sodium hypochlorite (found in bleach): disinfect surfaces and equipment.

a)

Used primarily for sterilizing surgical instruments

b)

Used to disinfect surfaces and equipment

c)

Used only as a skin antiseptic

d)

Used for antibiotic therapy

118.

Calcium hypochlorite: as above; also used for Semmelweis washes.

a)

Food preservation

b)

Semmelweis hand washes

c)

Inhalation therapy

d)

Oral antisepsis

119.

Chloramines (chlorine + ammonia): stable; used in water treatment.

a)

Chlorine + oxygen; unstable; used for air sterilization

b)

Chlorine + ammonia; stable; used in water treatment

c)

Bromine + nitrogen; stable; used in wound care

d)

Iodine + hydrogen; unstable; used in hand rubs

120.

Alcohols can be used as a disinfectant and/or an antiseptic.

a)

Only antiseptic use

b)

Only disinfectant use

c)

Disinfectant and/or antiseptic use

d)

Neither disinfectant nor antiseptic

121.

Alcohols: mechanism is denaturation of protein and disruption of cell membrane.

a)

Inhibit DNA synthesis only

b)

Denaturation of protein and disruption of cell membrane

c)

Chelate metal ions exclusively

d)

Oxidize carbohydrates only

122.

Alcohols are active against most vegetative prokaryotes, protozoa, and enveloped viruses.

a)

Only bacterial endospores

b)

Most vegetative prokaryotes, protozoa, and enveloped viruses

c)

Only fungi and helminths

d)

Only naked viruses

123.

Alcohols are NOT active against endospores and unenveloped (naked) viruses.

a)

Endospores and naked viruses

b)

Enveloped viruses and vegetative bacteria

c)

Protozoa and fungi

d)

Gram-positive cocci only

124.

Skin antiseptic (but NOT for wounds) because inflammation.

a)

Suitable for open wounds to reduce inflammation

b)

Used as a skin antiseptic but not for wounds because of inflammation

c)

Only for deep tissue injections

d)

Only for surgical instrument sterilization

125.

Alcohol formulations are mild disinfectants.

a)

Strong sporicidal agents

b)

Mild disinfectants

c)

Exclusively sterilants

d)

Only deodorants

126.

Ethanol: one of the most commonly used; activity is concentration-dependent ( 60%60\% to 95%95\% ).

a)

Activity independent of concentration

b)

Activity concentration-dependent from 60%60\% to 95%95\%

c)

Active only at 100%100\%

d)

Inactive above 50%50\%

127.

Ethanol requires some water for activity (coagulation).

a)

Requires absolute ethanol with no water

b)

Requires some water for activity (coagulation)

c)

Requires only salt for activation

d)

Activated by exposure to light

128.

Purell: 62%62\% to 65%65\% ethanol.

a)

Contains 20%20\% ethanol

b)

Contains 40%40\% to 50%50\% ethanol

c)

Contains 62%62\% to 65%65\% ethanol

d)

Contains 90%90\% to 95%95\% ethanol

129.

Heavy metals can be used for antiseptic and disinfection.

a)

Only for sterilization

b)

Only for oral antibiotics

c)

Antiseptic and disinfection

d)

Only for food preservation

130.

Heavy metals: mechanism interferes with protein folding (denaturation) and activity.

a)

Stimulate protein synthesis

b)

Interfere with protein folding (denaturation) and activity

c)

Promote membrane repair

d)

Increase RNA transcription

131.

Heavy metals show oligodynamic action: very little metal is needed for inhibition.

a)

Require large amounts for effect

b)

Oligodynamic action with very little metal needed for inhibition

c)

Only effective at high temperatures

d)

Ineffective against microbes

132.

Heavy metals have broad-spectrum activity but activity varies with the metal used.

a)

Narrow spectrum and identical activity for all metals

b)

Broad-spectrum activity but varies with the metal used

c)

Only antiviral activity, constant across metals

d)

Only antifungal activity, varies by temperature

133.

No charge, diffused rapidly into cells.

a)

Having no charge allows rapid diffusion into cells

b)

High charge promotes rapid diffusion into cells

c)

Large size promotes rapid diffusion into cells

d)

Membrane-bound state promotes rapid diffusion into cells

134.

For oxygen-releasing antimicrobial agents, identify the listed applications they can be used for.

a)

Antiseptic

b)

Disinfectant

c)

Sterilant

d)

Preservative

135.

For oxygen-releasing antimicrobial agents, what do they produce as their primary mechanism of action?

a)

Free radicals

b)

Organic acids

c)

Halogen ions

d)

Alkylating agents

136.

Oxygen-releasing antimicrobial agents are described as having what level of spectrum activity?

a)

Broad-spectrum

b)

Narrow-spectrum

c)

Selective for Gram-negative only

d)

Selective for viruses only

137.

Hydrogen peroxide produces which reactive species responsible for antimicrobial effects?

a)

Peroxide radicals

b)

Singlet nitrogen

c)

Hydroxide ions

d)

Sulfur oxides

138.

Which statement best describes hydrogen peroxide activity?

a)

It is concentration-dependent

b)

It is temperature-exclusive and unaffected by concentration

c)

It is only time-dependent

d)

It is pH-independent and fixed

139.

At low concentrations (about 3%), hydrogen peroxide serves in which roles? Select all that apply.

a)

Antiseptic

b)

Disinfectant

c)

Sterilant

d)

Preservative

140.

Hydrogen peroxide at low concentrations kills which types of organisms? Select all that apply.

a)

Bacteria

b)

Protozoa

c)

Fungi

d)

Viruses

141.

Hydrogen peroxide is noted as not effective against which target?

a)

Endospores

b)

Gram-positive bacteria

c)

Enveloped viruses

d)

Fungi

142.

At higher concentrations, hydrogen peroxide can be used as what?

a)

Sterilant

b)

Preservative

c)

Chelating agent

d)

Staining agent

143.

What drawback is noted for hydrogen peroxide at higher concentrations?

a)

Corrosive to skin

b)

Increases tissue alkalinity

c)

Causes excessive foaming only

d)

Becomes nonreactive

144.

Quaternary ammonium compounds (quats) are described as what kind of detergents?

a)

Amphipathic, cationic detergents

b)

Nonionic, hydrophobic detergents

c)

Anionic, neutral detergents

d)

Amphipathic, anionic detergents

145.

Quats contain which ions?

a)

Ammonium ions ( NH4+\mathrm{NH_4^+} )

b)

Sodium ions ( Na+\mathrm{Na^+} )

c)

Calcium ions ( Ca2+\mathrm{Ca^{2+}} )

d)

Chloride ions ( Cl−\mathrm{Cl^-} )

146.

Quats primarily act as what type of agent?

a)

Disinfectant

b)

Antibiotic

c)

Oxidizing sterilant

d)

Chelator

147.

Which mechanisms of action are attributed to quats? Select all that apply.

a)

Alter membranes

b)

Denature proteins

c)

Cross-link peptidoglycan

d)

Block folate synthesis

148.

Quats are active as surfactants and can be bactericidal against which group?

a)

Some Gram-positive organisms

b)

All Gram-negative organisms

c)

Only acid-fast organisms

d)

Only endospore-formers

149.

Quats are less active against which group?

a)

Gram-negative organisms

b)

Gram-positive organisms

c)

Acid-fast organisms

d)

Fungi

150.

Quats are also active against most fungi, protozoa, and which type of viruses?

a)

Enveloped viruses

b)

Nonenveloped viruses

c)

Bacteriophages only

d)

Plant viruses only

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