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Module 4

Total questions: 36

Worksheet time: 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which task is part of a medical assistant’s preparation at the start of the day?

a)

Review the day’s schedule to anticipate procedures and needed supplies

b)

Order new medications without checking inventory

c)

Allow rooms to remain unstocked until patients arrive

d)

Skip equipment function checks to save time

2.

According to the review, what is the best way to determine the supplies and equipment needed for each visit?

a)

Consult the appointment schedule and planned procedures

b)

Ask each patient to bring personal supplies

c)

Stock every item in every room regardless of the day

d)

Wait until the provider requests items during the visit

3.

Which statement correctly defines supplies versus equipment?

a)

Supplies are disposable items used in procedures; equipment refers to reusable instruments and devices

b)

Supplies are reusable devices; equipment refers only to medications

c)

Supplies include furniture; equipment includes drapes and gauze

d)

Supplies are items in sterile packs; equipment is always non-sterile

4.

What must be done between every patient to ensure safety and infection control?

a)

Disinfect and reset the exam room with appropriate cleaning and restocking

b)

Open windows for ventilation only

c)

Change provider’s white coat

d)

Move the patient to a different room without cleaning

5.

Before the patient arrives, it is important to do which of the following?

a)

Prepare the room, gather needed equipment, and ensure cleanliness

b)

Leave instruments out to air dry

c)

Lock the room until the provider arrives

d)

Ask the patient to set up their own supplies

6.

What action should be taken before entering an occupied exam room?

a)

Knock, announce yourself, and wait for permission to enter

b)

Enter quickly to save time

c)

Call the patient’s phone instead of entering

d)

Turn off the room lights first

7.

When providing patient education after a procedure, what should be included?

a)

Instructions for aftercare, warning signs, and when to contact the clinic

b)

Only the provider’s credentials

c)

A list of unrelated health tips

d)

Billing policies only

8.

Which patient position places the patient lying on their back?

a)

Supine

b)

Prone

c)

Left lateral

d)

Knee-chest

9.

Which position involves the patient sitting with the head of the bed elevated, often used to improve breathing?

a)

Fowler’s

b)

Left lateral

c)

Knee-chest

d)

Lithotomy

10.

Parenteral administration refers to medication given by which general routes?

a)

Injection routes such as intradermal, subcutaneous, intramuscular, or intravenous

b)

Oral only

c)

Otic and ophthalmic only

d)

Topical creams only

11.

Nonparenteral administration refers to which general routes?

a)

Routes other than injection such as oral, topical, ophthalmic, and otic

b)

Intramuscular and intravenous only

c)

Rectal and vaginal are excluded

d)

Only inhalation methods

12.

What does the dosage of a medication indicate?

a)

The specific amount to be given to achieve the desired effect

b)

The color of the medication label

c)

The brand popularity

d)

The storage shelf where it belongs

13.

When performing a weight-based dosage calculation, you will likely need to do what first?

a)

Convert the patient’s weight into kilograms

b)

Estimate the dose by age only

c)

Round the dose to the nearest 10 mg without calculation

d)

Use the tallest height measurement

14.

Which form is the most common for medications administered to the eyes and ears?

a)

Drops/solutions

b)

Tablets

c)

Transdermal patches

d)

Powders

15.

During eye medication instillation, how should the patient be positioned and where should they look?

a)

Seated with head tilted back; look up while lower eyelid is gently pulled down

b)

Prone; look down at the floor

c)

Standing; look straight ahead without tilting

d)

Side-lying; keep both eyes closed

16.

For ear medication instillation, how should the auricle be manipulated for an adult versus a child?

a)

Adult: pull up and back; Child: pull down and back

b)

Adult: pull down and forward; Child: pull up and back

c)

Adult: no manipulation; Child: pull straight out

d)

Adult and Child: pull down only

17.

What is anaphylactic shock best defined as?

a)

A severe, life-threatening systemic allergic reaction causing airway, breathing, and circulatory compromise

b)

A minor skin irritation from a topical product

c)

A brief headache after medication

d)

A mild ear infection

18.

How is epinephrine administered in first-line emergency care for anaphylaxis?

a)

Intramuscular injection, typically into the lateral thigh

b)

Oral tablet

c)

Ophthalmic drops

d)

Subcutaneous injection into the forearm

19.

What needle safety step should be performed prior to use?

a)

Check the package for integrity, sterility indicators, size, and expiration date

b)

Open the package early to save time

c)

Ignore the expiration date if the packaging looks clean

d)

Share needles between rooms

20.

Which needles should never be recapped due to high risk of sharps injury?

a)

Contaminated (used) needles

b)

Sterile unused needles

c)

Dental irrigation tips

d)

Safety needles with built-in shields

21.

The bevel of a needle should face which direction when injecting?

a)

Upward (bevel up) to ease tissue entry

b)

Downward to increase resistance

c)

Sideways to create a larger hole

d)

Direction does not matter

22.

What does a needle’s gauge refer to?

a)

The diameter of the needle; higher gauge numbers indicate a thinner needle

b)

The length measured in inches only

c)

The temperature of the metal

d)

The color of the hub

23.

Two regulatory bodies oversee requirements for medication disposal in healthcare facilities. Which pair correctly identifies them?

a)

CDC and OSHA

b)

EPA and DEA

c)

FDA and CMS

d)

NIH and Joint Commission

24.

What does MAR stand for, and what is its primary purpose in patient care documentation?

a)

Medication Administration Record; documents all medications administered to a patient

b)

Medical Audit Report; reviews billing discrepancies

c)

Medication Access Registry; tracks pharmacy inventory levels

d)

Medical Assessment Review; summarizes physical exam findings

25.

In electronic records, what does EMR mean?

a)

Electronic Medication Registry

b)

Electronic Medical Record

c)

Emergency Monitoring Report

d)

External Medical Repository

26.

What does the expiration date on a medication indicate?

a)

The date the medication must be opened

b)

The last day the manufacturer guarantees full potency and safety if stored properly

c)

The date the pharmacy received the shipment

d)

The date after which the medication becomes a controlled substance

27.

Which statement correctly defines sterile technique?

a)

A method to reduce microbial counts on hands

b)

A set of procedures to maintain asepsis and prevent contamination of sterile fields and devices

c)

Routine cleaning of equipment with detergent

d)

Using gloves without hand hygiene

28.

Which difference between an EMR and an EHR is accurate?

a)

EMR is a longitudinal record across organizations; EHR is limited to a single practice

b)

EMR is a single-practice clinical record; EHR supports sharing across multiple settings

c)

EMR is only paper-based; EHR is fully electronic

d)

EMR contains billing data only; EHR contains clinical data only

29.

What does CPOE stand for, and why is it beneficial?

a)

Computerized Provider Order Entry; reduces transcription errors and standardizes order workflow

b)

Certified Pharmacy Operations Engine; speeds medication compounding

c)

Clinical Procedure Oversight Exchange; improves surgical scheduling

d)

Controlled Prescription Origin Evaluation; prevents duplicate charts

30.

Which items must be documented in the MAR for a medication that was administered?

a)

Drug manufacturer and warehouse location

b)

Dose, route, time, site (if applicable), and the administering clinician’s initials/signature

c)

Patient insurance group and copay amount

d)

Pharmacy lot pricing and expiration month only

31.

What do you do before entering an occupied exam room?

a)

walk in

b)

knock

c)

announce your name

d)

nothing

32.

Disposable items used for patient exams and treatment

a)

equipment

b)

single use items

c)

multi use items

d)

supplies

33.

Flat on back with hands at the sides

a)

Prone

b)

Supine

c)

Lithotomy

d)

Fowler's

34.

Which of the following is an example of a parenteral route?

a)

oral

b)

buccal

c)

sublingual

d)

IV

35.

Which of the following is an example of how dosages can be listed?

a)

tablets

b)

capsules

c)

mL

d)

liquid

36.

How do you convert pounds to kilograms?

a)

Multiply by 1.2

b)

Divide by 1.2

c)

Divide by 2.2

d)

Multiply by 2.2