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CCS (CCA) 1965 RULES

Total questions: 143

Worksheet time: 5hrs 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965, came into force on which date?

a)

1st January, 1965

b)

1st December, 1965

c)

15th October, 2018

d)

30th November, 1965

2.

Which authority has the power to make these rules, drawing power from the Constitution?

a)

The Union Public Service Commission

b)

The Comptroller and Auditor-General

c)

The President

d)

The Cabinet Secretary

3.

In relation to a Government servant, which of the following authorities, if multiple exist, is defined as the "appointing authority" under Rule 2(a)?

a)

The authority which appointed the Government servant to that Service, grade or post.

b)

The highest authority among those empowered to make appointments or who made the original appointment.

c)

The authority empowered to make appointments to the post which the Government servant for the time being holds.

d)

The cadre authority of the Service.

4.

Which of the following persons is explicitly excluded from the application of the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965?

a)

A civilian Government servant in the Defence Services

b)

A Government servant on foreign service

c)

A railway servant

d)

A Government servant whose services are temporarily placed at the disposal of a State Government

5.

If a doubt arises regarding whether these rules apply to a certain person, the matter must be referred to which authority for a decision?

a)

The Secretary of the concerned Ministry

b)

The Union Public Service Commission

c)

The President

d)

The Head of the Department

6.

Statement 1: A person in casual employment is explicitly excluded from the application of these rules. Statement 2: Civil posts of any group not included in any other Central Civil Service shall be deemed to be included in the General Central Service of the corresponding group.

a)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are True.

b)

Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is False.

c)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are False.

d)

Statement 1 is False; Statement 2 is True.

7.

Statement 1: All appointments to Central Civil Posts, Group ‘A’, are mandatory subject to the consultation with the Union Public Service Commission. Statement 2: The President cannot delegate the power to make appointments to Group ‘A’ Services and Posts.

a)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are True.

b)

Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is False.

c)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are False.

d)

Statement 1 is False; Statement 2 is True.

8.

Which authority listed below is not generally empowered to place a Government servant under suspension?

a)

The appointing authority

b)

Any authority subordinate to the appointing authority

c)

The disciplinary authority

d)

The inquiring authority

9.

A Government servant can be placed under suspension when a case against him in respect of any criminal offence is under which stages?

a)

Investigation, inquiry, or trial

b)

Trial only

c)

Investigation only

d)

Pending charge sheet

10.

When is a Government servant deemed to have been placed under suspension if detained in custody on a criminal charge?

a)

With effect from the date of the charge sheet.

b)

If the detention period exceeds forty-eight hours.

c)

With effect from the date of his detention, if the detention exceeds forty-eight hours.

d)

If the detention period exceeds twenty-four hours.

11.

If an order of suspension is made by an authority lower than the appointing authority, what action must the lower authority take immediately?

a)

Obtain immediate confirmation from the President.

b)

Inform the Comptroller and Auditor-General.

c)

Report forthwith to the appointing authority the circumstances in which the order was made.

d)

Inform the Secretary of the Ministry.

12.

If a penalty of dismissal is set aside in appeal or on review and the case is remitted for further inquiry, when is the order of suspension deemed to have continued in force?

a)

From the date of the appeal order.

b)

From the date the case is remitted.

c)

On and from the date of the original order of dismissal.

d)

Suspension is automatically revoked.

13.

If an order of dismissal is set aside by a Court of Law, and the disciplinary authority decides to hold a further inquiry, when is the Government servant deemed to have been placed under suspension?

a)

From the date of the Court's decision.

b)

From the date the further inquiry is ordered.

c)

From the date of the original order of dismissal, removal or compulsory retirement.

d)

The Government servant must be reinstated first.

14.

An order of suspension made or deemed to have been made under Rule 10 must be reviewed by the competent authority before the expiry of how many days from the effective date of suspension?

a)

30 days

b)

60 days

c)

90 days

d)

180 days

15.

What is the maximum period for which an extension of suspension can be granted at a time, following a review?

a)

90 days

b)

120 days

c)

180 days

d)

365 days

16.

When must subsequent reviews of an extended suspension period be made?

a)

Annually.

b)

Before the expiry of the extended period of suspension.

c)

Only if the disciplinary authority demands it.

d)

After the inquiry report is finalized.

17.

In the case of 'deemed suspension' due to detention in custody (sub-rule 2), when does the 90-day period for mandatory review begin to count?

a)

From the date of detention.

b)

From the date the Government servant is released from detention, or the date the fact of release is intimated to the appointing authority, whichever is later.

c)

From the date the criminal charge is filed.

d)

It must be reviewed immediately regardless of release.

18.

A further inquiry (after a penalty is set aside by a Court) shall not be ordered unless it is intended to meet a situation where the Court passed an order purely on what grounds?

a)

Substantive grounds

b)

Moral grounds

c)

Technical grounds without going into the merits of the case

d)

Constitutional grounds

19.

Under which circumstances may a Government servant be placed under suspension by the competent authority?

a)

Where a disciplinary proceeding against him is contemplated or pending

b)

Where a case against him in respect of any criminal offence is under inquiry or trial

c)

Where, in the opinion of the authority, he has engaged himself in activities prejudicial to the interest of the security of the State

d)

Where the penalty imposed is compulsory retirement

20.

An order of suspension made or deemed to have been made under Rule 10 (1) or (2) shall not be valid after a period of ninety days unless which conditions are met?

a)

It is revoked by the appointing authority.

b)

It is extended after review.

c)

It is extended for a further period before the expiry of ninety days.

d)

The review committee has submitted a recommendation.

21.

Statement 1: If a Government servant is convicted for an offence and sentenced to imprisonment exceeding 48 hours, he is deemed suspended from the commencement of the imprisonment after the conviction. Statement 2: Intermittent periods of imprisonment shall not be taken into account when computing the forty-eight hours period for deemed suspension.

a)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are True.

b)

Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is False.

c)

Statement 1 is False; Statement 2 is True.

d)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are False.

22.

Statement 1: If a Government servant is already suspended, and another disciplinary proceeding commences against him, the authority competent to suspend him must revoke the original suspension. Statement 2: The authority that made (or is deemed to have made) an order of suspension, or any authority subordinate to it, may modify or revoke the order at any time.

a)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are True.

b)

Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is False.

c)

Statement 1 is False; Statement 2 is True.

d)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are False.

23.

Which of the following is defined as a Minor Penalty under Rule 11?

a)

Reduction to a lower time-scale of pay

b)

Compulsory retirement

c)

Censure

d)

Removal from service

24.

Which of the following is defined as a Major Penalty under Rule 11?

a)

Withholding of increments of pay

b)

Recovery from pay of pecuniary loss caused to the Government

c)

Dismissal from service

d)

Reduction to a lower stage in the time-scale of pay by one stage for a period not exceeding three years, without cumulative effect

25.

A specific penalty listed as Minor Penalty (iii-a) allows reduction to a lower stage in the time-scale of pay for a period not exceeding three years, provided it is without cumulative effect and does not adversely affect which benefit?

a)

His promotion prospects

b)

His grade or post

c)

His pension

d)

His seniority

26.

Which of the following major penalties is specifically defined as not being a disqualification for future employment under the Government?

a)

Reduction to a lower time-scale of pay

b)

Compulsory retirement

c)

Removal from service

d)

Dismissal from service

27.

When the penalty imposed is "reduction to a lower time-scale of pay, grade, post or Service," the order of penalty must specify the period and include directions regarding what?

a)

Whether the reduction period will postpone future increments and the extent thereof.

b)

Whether the Government servant will regain his original seniority on promotion after the specified period.

c)

Both A and B.

d)

Only whether the reduction affects his pension.

28.

When the charge of acceptance of any gratification, other than legal remuneration, as a motive or reward for doing or forbearing to do an official act is established, which penalty (or higher) shall ordinarily be imposed?

a)

Censure

b)

Withholding of promotion

c)

Removal from service or dismissal from service

d)

Reduction to a lower stage in the time-scale

29.

The Explanation under Rule 11 lists actions that shall not amount to a penalty. Which action below does amount to a penalty?

a)

Reversion of an officer officiating in a higher post to a lower post on administrative grounds unconnected with conduct

b)

Withholding of increments of pay for failure to pass a departmental examination.

c)

Recovery from pay of pecuniary loss caused by negligence.

d)

Compulsory retirement in accordance with superannuation rules.

30.

Stoppage of a Government servant at the efficiency bar in the time-scale of pay on the ground of his unfitness to cross the bar is treated as:

a)

A minor penalty.

b)

A major penalty.

c)

Not amounting to a penalty within the meaning of Rule 11.

d)

Equivalent to withholding increments with cumulative effect.

31.

Termination of the services of a temporary Government servant in accordance with the provisions of sub-rule (1) of rule 5 of the Central Civil Services (Temporary Service) Rules, 1965, is considered:

a)

A major penalty.

b)

Removal from service.

c)

Not amounting to a penalty under Rule 11.

d)

Compulsory retirement.

32.

Which of the following are categorized as Minor Penalties under Rule 11?

a)

Recovery from pay of the whole or part of any pecuniary loss caused to the Government

b)

Withholding of increments of pay

c)

Reduction to a lower time-scale of pay

d)

Censure

33.

Which of the following actions, according to the Explanation under Rule 11, do not amount to a penalty?

a)

Non-promotion after consideration to a Service, grade or post for which the employee is eligible

b)

Reversion of a Government servant appointed on probation to his permanent post at the end of the probation period

c)

Dismissal from service which shall be a disqualification for future employment

d)

Compulsory retirement in accordance with provisions relating to superannuation

34.

Statement 1: Dismissal from service shall ordinarily be a disqualification for future employment under the Government. Statement 2: Termination of a Government servant appointed on probation at the end of the period of his probation, in accordance with the terms of his appointment, amounts to a penalty.

a)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are True.

b)

Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is False.

c)

Statement 1 is False; Statement 2 is True.

d)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are False.

35.

Statement 1: Withholding of increments of pay is a Minor Penalty. Statement 2: Stoppage of a Government servant at the efficiency bar or on the ground of unfitness to cross the bar is a Minor Penalty.

a)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are True

b)

Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is False

c)

Statement 1 is False; Statement 2 is True

d)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are False

36.

Statement 1: Any compensation awarded on the recommendation of the Complaints Committee for sexual harassment is a Minor Penalty. Statement 2: In exceptional cases where the charge of possession of assets disproportionate to known sources of income is established, any penalty other than removal or dismissal may be imposed, provided special reasons are recorded in writing.

a)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are True

b)

Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is False

c)

Statement 1 is False; Statement 2 is True

d)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are False

37.

Which authority has the unrestricted power to impose any of the penalties specified in Rule 11 on any Government servant?

a)

The Head of the Department

b)

The Appointing Authority

c)

The President

d)

The Union Public Service Commission

38.

Generally, no penalty specified in clauses (v) to (ix) of Rule 11 (major penalties) shall be imposed by any authority subordinate to which authority?

a)

The Disciplinary Authority

b)

The Head of the Office

c)

The Appellate Authority

d)

The Appointing Authority

39.

If a Government servant holding a Central Civil post of any Group is promoted (temporarily or on probation) to the Service or Central Civil post of the next higher Group, for the purpose of Rule 12 (Disciplinary Authorities), he shall be deemed to belong to the Service or hold the post of which group?

a)

The lower Group

b)

The higher Group

c)

The General Central Service

d)

The original Service

40.

An authority competent to impose only minor penalties (clauses (i) to (iv) of Rule 11) may institute disciplinary proceedings for the imposition of which penalties?

a)

Minor penalties only

b)

Major penalties only

c)

Both Minor and Major penalties

d)

Only penalties specified in Rule 11(i) and 11(ii)

41.

Which authorities may institute disciplinary proceedings against any Government servant?

a)

The President

b)

Any other authority empowered by the President by general or special order

c)

A disciplinary authority competent to impose penalties specified in clauses (i) to (iv) of Rule 11

d)

The Head of the Office, regardless of rank

42.

In which cases must the authority competent to impose major penalties (v to ix) consult an external authority before imposing the penalty?

a)

Where a member of the Indian Audit and Accounts Service is penalized by the Comptroller and Auditor-General (No consultation required per (4)(a))

b)

Where a Government servant belonging to a Service other than the General Central Service is temporarily appointed to another Service or post

c)

Where the Government servant is serving in a Ministry or Department of the Government of India and the Secretary is imposing the penalty

d)

Where the authority imposing the penalty is subordinate to the appointing authority (Major penalties cannot generally be imposed by a subordinate authority)

43.

Statement 1: A disciplinary authority means the authority competent under these rules to impose on a Government servant any of the penalties specified in Rule 11. Statement 2: A Secretary to the Government of India in a Ministry may exercise the power to impose penalties on a member of a Central Civil Services, Group ‘C’ serving in that Ministry.

a)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are True

b)

Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is False

c)

Statement 1 is False; Statement 2 is True

d)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are False

44.

No order imposing a major penalty (v to ix of Rule 11) shall be made except after an inquiry held in the manner provided in Rule 14 and 15, or in the manner provided by which Act?

a)

The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988

b)

The Public Servants (Inquiries) Act, 1850

c)

The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985

d)

The Constitution of India

45.

When there is a complaint of sexual harassment, which body shall be deemed to be the inquiring authority appointed by the disciplinary authority for the purpose of these rules?

a)

The Secretary of the Ministry

b)

The Union Public Service Commission

c)

The Complaints Committee established for inquiring into such complaints

d)

The Head of the Department

46.

If the disciplinary authority proposes to hold an inquiry, it must draw up the substance of the imputations of misconduct into definite and distinct:

a)

Findings of fact

b)

Articles of charge

c)

Statement of defence

d)

List of witnesses

47.

A Government servant must submit his written statement of defence within a period of fifteen days of receiving the articles of charge. What is the maximum overall extension period permissible for filing the written statement of defence?

a)

Fifteen days at a time, up to ninety days total

b)

Forty-five days from the date of receipt of articles of charge

c)

Thirty days total

d)

Extension is not permitted

48.

If all articles of charge have been admitted by the Government servant in his written statement of defence, what must the disciplinary authority do next?

a)

Immediately impose the major penalty

b)

Record its findings on each charge after taking such evidence as it may think fit and then act in the manner laid down in Rule 15

c)

Forward the case to the inquiring authority

d)

Record a "guilty" plea and close the case

49.

When appearing before the inquiring authority, a Government servant may take the assistance of another Government servant posted at his headquarters to present the case. When is he permitted to engage a legal practitioner?

a)

Always

b)

Only if the charge involves financial fraud

c)

Only if the Presenting Officer appointed by the disciplinary authority is a legal practitioner, or if the disciplinary authority specifically permits it

d)

Never, under any circumstances

50.

A Government servant may take the assistance of any other Government servant to present his case. What is the limitation placed on that assisting Government servant regarding pending disciplinary cases?

a)

He shall not take assistance if he has one pending case

b)

He shall not take assistance if he has three pending disciplinary cases on hand in which he has to give assistance

c)

There is no limit mentioned in the rule

d)

He must not have any prior disciplinary action against him

51.

If the Government servant pleads guilty to any of the articles of charge, the inquiring authority shall:

a)

Impose the penalty

b)

Record the plea and return a finding of guilt in respect of those articles

c)

Refer the matter back to the disciplinary authority

d)

Cross-examine the Government servant

52.

If the Government servant fails to appear or refuses to plead, the inquiring authority shall require the Presenting Officer to produce evidence and adjourn the case to a later date not exceeding how many days?

a)

Fifteen days

b)

Twenty days

c)

Thirty days

d)

Forty-five days

53.

If the Government servant requests copies of the statements of witnesses mentioned in the list referred to in sub-rule (3), the inquiring authority shall furnish him with such copies not later than how many days before the commencement of the examination of the witnesses?

a)

Five days

b)

Three days

c)

Ten days

d)

Seven days

54.

What is the maximum time allowed for the authority having custody of requisitioned documents to produce them or issue a non-availability certificate before the Inquiring Authority?

a)

Ten days

b)

Fifteen days

c)

One month

d)

Ninety days

55.

When the case for the disciplinary authority is closed, the Government servant shall be required to state his defence. If the defence is made orally, what is required?

a)

The oral defence is noted in the inquiry report

b)

It shall be recorded and the Government servant shall be required to sign the record

c)

It must be signed by the Presenting Officer

d)

It must be recorded by the Disciplinary Authority

56.

When is the inquiring authority allowed to recall or re-examine a witness or call for new evidence not originally included?

a)

Only to fill up a gap in the evidence

b)

Only when there is an inherent lacuna or defect in the evidence originally produced

c)

At the request of the Presenting Officer only

d)

At any point before the conclusion of the inquiry

57.

If the Government servant fails to appear before the inquiring authority or otherwise fails to comply with the provisions of Rule 14, how may the inquiring authority proceed?

a)

It must terminate the proceedings

b)

It must immediately forward the case to the disciplinary authority

c)

It may hold the inquiry ex parte

d)

It must postpone the inquiry indefinitely

58.

If an inquiring authority ceases to exercise jurisdiction and is succeeded by another, the succeeding authority may act on the evidence recorded by its predecessor, provided that:

a)

The new authority must restart the inquiry from the beginning

b)

The new authority must re-examine all witnesses

c)

The new authority may recall and re-examine witnesses if deemed necessary in the interests of justice

d)

The new authority must obtain permission from the President

59.

Within what period should the Inquiring Authority conclude the inquiry and submit the report from the date of receipt of the order of appointment?

a)

Three months

b)

Six months

c)

Nine months

d)

One year

60.

If the Inquiring Authority cannot adhere to the six-month time limit, what is the maximum additional time the disciplinary authority may allow for completion of the inquiry at a time?

a)

Three months

b)

Six months

c)

Nine months

d)

Twelve months

61.

If the inquiry establishes an article of charge different from the original articles, findings on this new charge shall not be recorded unless the Government servant has either admitted the facts or had:

a)

An opportunity to appeal immediately

b)

A reasonable opportunity of defending himself against such article of charge

c)

Consultation with the Commission

d)

The advice of a legal practitioner

62.

The disciplinary authority (if not the inquiring authority) must forward a copy of the inquiry report to the Government servant along with which other information?

a)

Its own tentative reasons for disagreement, if any, with the findings of the inquiring authority

b)

A copy of the advice received from the Commission

c)

A requirement for the Government servant to submit his written representation within fifteen days

d)

The final order of penalty

63.

The report prepared after the conclusion of the inquiry must contain which of the following elements?

a)

The articles of charge and the statement of imputations

b)

The defence of the Government servant

c)

An assessment of the evidence

d)

The findings on each article of charge and the reasons therefor

64.

If the disciplinary authority (competent only to impose minor penalties) inquires into a case and is of the opinion that a major penalty should be imposed, what steps must it take?

a)

Forward the records of the inquiry to such disciplinary authority as is competent to impose major penalties

b)

Impose the maximum minor penalty permitted

c)

The authority to which records are forwarded may act on the evidence on the record

d)

The authority to which records are forwarded may recall witnesses for further examination in the interests of justice

65.

Statement 1: If the Disciplinary Authority disagrees with the findings of the Inquiring Authority, it must record its tentative reasons for disagreement and forward them to the Government servant. Statement 2: The Government servant is required to submit a written representation on the inquiry report only if the report is unfavorable to him.

a)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are True

b)

Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is False

c)

Statement 1 is False; Statement 2 is True

d)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are False

66.

Statement 1: When consultation with the Commission is necessary, the Disciplinary Authority must forward a copy of the Commission's advice to the Government servant. Statement 2: The Government servant shall be required to submit his written representation on the advice of the Commission within twenty-one days.

a)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are True

b)

Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is False

c)

Statement 1 is False; Statement 2 is True

d)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are False

67.

Statement 1: The oral and documentary evidence by which the articles of charge are proposed to be proved shall be produced by or on behalf of the disciplinary authority. Statement 2: The Presenting Officer is entitled to re-examine witnesses on any new matter, provided he seeks leave of the inquiring authority.

a)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are True

b)

Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is False

c)

Statement 1 is False; Statement 2 is True

d)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are False

68.

When imposing a minor penalty, when is it mandatory to hold an inquiry in the manner laid down in Rule 14 (3) to (24)?

a)

In every case involving Censure

b)

If the withholding of increments is likely to affect adversely the pension or is for a period exceeding three years, or with cumulative effect

c)

If the disciplinary authority is of the opinion that such inquiry is necessary

d)

Only when the penalty is reduction to a lower stage without cumulative effect

69.

When imposing a minor penalty, the disciplinary authority must inform the Government servant in writing of the proposal to take action and of the imputations of misconduct, and provide him with:

a)

The inquiry report

b)

Reasonable opportunity of making such representation as he may wish to make against the proposal

c)

A copy of the Commission's advice

d)

A final order of penalty

70.

In the case of common proceedings involving two or more Government servants, the order for common proceeding may be made by the highest of the authorities competent to impose the penalty of dismissal, provided what condition is met?

a)

The proceedings are restricted to minor penalties

b)

The consent of the others (lower authorities) is obtained

c)

The President has specified the procedure

d)

All Government servants belong to the same service group

71.

Notwithstanding Rules 14 to 18, the disciplinary authority may consider the circumstances of the case and make orders it deems fit, without a formal inquiry, if:

a)

The charge is related to misappropriation of funds

b)

It is satisfied, for reasons recorded in writing, that it is not reasonably practicable to hold an inquiry

c)

The penalty proposed is only Censure

d)

The Government servant is promoted

72.

If a penalty is imposed on a Government servant based on conduct that led to his conviction on a criminal charge (Rule 19), must the Government servant be given an opportunity to make a representation?

a)

No, because the facts are established by conviction

b)

Yes, on the penalty proposed to be imposed, before any order is made

c)

Yes, on the findings of the criminal court

d)

Only if the penalty is removal or dismissal

73.

If the services of a Government servant are lent to a borrowing authority (e.g., State Government), the borrowing authority shall have the powers of the appointing authority for the purpose of:

a)

Imposing major penalties.

b)

Placing the servant under suspension.

c)

Revising the penalty imposed by the lending authority.

d)

Transferring the servant permanently.

74.

If a borrowing authority conducts a disciplinary proceeding and forms the opinion that a major penalty (v to ix) should be imposed, what is the required action?

a)

It may impose the penalty after consulting the lending authority.

b)

It shall replace his services at the disposal of the lending authority and transmit the inquiry proceedings.

c)

It must impose the penalty itself if it is the highest authority.

d)

It must remit the case for further inquiry.

75.

The record of proceedings for a minor penalty case must include which of the following?

a)

A copy of the intimation to the Government servant of the proposal to take action.

b)

His representation, if any.

c)

The findings on each imputation of misconduct or misbehavior.

d)

A copy of the disciplinary authority's own tentative reasons for disagreement.

76.

When orders made by the disciplinary authority are communicated to the Government servant, he must also be supplied with a copy of which documents?

a)

Its finding on each article of charge.

b)

A statement of the findings of the disciplinary authority, if it disagreed with the inquiring authority.

c)

A copy of the advice, if any, given by the Commission.

d)

The General Financial Rules relevant to the case.

77.

Statement 1: If a borrowing authority wishes to impose a minor penalty (i to iv) on a lent officer, it must do so after consultation with the lending authority. Statement 2: If there is a difference of opinion between the borrowing authority and the lending authority regarding imposing a minor penalty, the services of the Government servant shall be replaced at the disposal of the lending authority. Which option is correct?

a)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are True.

b)

Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is False.

c)

Statement 1 is False; Statement 2 is True.

d)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are False.

78.

What is the period of limitation for preferring an appeal under this Part?

a)

Thirty days from the date of the order.

b)

Sixty days from the date the order is received.

c)

Forty-five days from the date on which a copy of the order appealed against is delivered to the appellant.

d)

Ninety days from the date of the order.

79.

If a Group ‘A’ Government servant prefers an appeal against an order made by an authority subordinate to the appointing authority, to whom does the appeal lie?

a)

The President.

b)

The Head of the Department.

c)

The appointing authority.

d)

The authority immediately subordinate to the President.

80.

If an Appellate Authority proposes to enhance a penalty to one of the Major Penalties (v to ix of Rule 11), and an inquiry under Rule 14 has not already been held, what must the Appellate Authority do (subject to Rule 19)?

a)

Immediately impose the enhanced penalty.

b)

Remit the case for further inquiry.

c)

Itself hold such inquiry or direct that such inquiry be held in accordance with Rule 14.

d)

Consult the Head of the Office.

81.

In considering an appeal against an order imposing a penalty, the appellate authority must consider:

a)

Whether the findings of the disciplinary authority are warranted by the evidence on the record.

b)

Whether the procedure laid down in these rules has been complied with and, if not, whether such non-compliance resulted in a failure of justice.

c)

Whether the penalty is adequate, inadequate, or severe.

d)

All of the above.

82.

Which of the following authorities is explicitly listed as a revising authority under Rule 29 in the case of a Government servant serving in the Indian Audit and Accounts Department?

a)

The President

b)

The Comptroller and Auditor-General

c)

The Secretary to the Government of India

d)

The Head of the Department directly under the Central Government

83.

A proceeding for revision shall not be commenced until after which event?

a)

The expiration of the period of limitation for an appeal, or the disposal of the appeal

b)

The final appeal is decided by the court

c)

The Government servant submits a written representation

d)

The disciplinary authority modifies the original order

84.

Which orders listed in Rule 22 are explicitly stated as orders against which no appeal lies?

a)

Any order made by the President

b)

Any order of an interlocutory nature

c)

An order of suspension

d)

Any order passed by an inquiring authority in the course of an inquiry under Rule 14

85.

Statement 1: The President may review any order passed under these rules if new material or evidence, which could not be produced earlier and has the effect of changing the nature of the case, has come to notice. Statement 2: The authority which made the order appealed against shall give effect to the orders passed by the appellate authority.

a)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are True

b)

Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is False

c)

Statement 1 is False; Statement 2 is True

d)

Both Statements 1 & 2 are False

86.

Which category of personnel is explicitly excluded from the application of these rules under Rule 3?

a)

A civilian Government servant in the Defence Services

b)

A Government servant whose services are temporarily placed at the disposal of a State Government

c)

Any person in casual employment

d)

A Government servant temporarily transferred to a railway post

87.

A Government servant shall be deemed to have been placed under suspension by the appointing authority if detained in custody (on a criminal charge or otherwise) for a period exceeding:

a)

Twenty-four hours

b)

Forty-eight hours

c)

Seventy-two hours

d)

Ninety days

88.

In the case of deemed suspension due to conviction for an offence, the 48-hour period shall be computed from:

a)

The date of conviction

b)

The date the sentence is pronounced

c)

The commencement of the imprisonment after the conviction

d)

The date the appeal is rejected

89.

An order of suspension made or deemed to have been made under Rule 10 shall not be valid after a period of ninety days unless what occurs?

a)

The charge sheet is filed

b)

It is revoked by the disciplinary authority

c)

It is extended after review, for a further period before the expiry of ninety days

d)

The Government servant is released from custody

90.

What is the maximum period for which an extension of suspension can be granted at a time, following a review?

a)

Ninety days

b)

One hundred and twenty days

c)

One hundred and eighty days

d)

Three months

91.

Which of the following major penalties is specifically defined as not being a disqualification for future employment under the Government?

a)

Reduction to a lower time-scale of pay

b)

Compulsory retirement

c)

Removal from service

d)

Dismissal from service

92.

If the charge of acceptance of any gratification, other than legal remuneration, as a motive or reward for doing an official act is established, which penalty (or higher) shall ordinarily be imposed?

a)

Withholding of increments

b)

Reduction to a lower stage of pay

c)

Removal from service or dismissal from service

d)

Censure

93.

Who is the competent authority to impose on a probationer undergoing training at the Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration any of the penalties specified in clauses (i) and (iii) of rule 11?

a)

The Secretary to the Government of India

b)

The Appointing Authority

c)

The Director of the said Academy

d)

The President

94.

If the disciplinary authority proposes to hold an inquiry, it must draw up the substance of the imputations of misconduct into definite and distinct:

a)

Statements of facts

b)

Articles of charge

c)

List of witnesses

d)

Preliminary inquiry report

95.

What is the maximum overall extension period permissible for a Government servant to submit his written statement of defence from the date of receipt of articles of charge?

a)

Fifteen days

b)

Thirty days

c)

Forty-five days

d)

Sixty days

96.

If the Government servant fails to appear or refuses to plead, the inquiring authority shall adjourn the case to a later date not exceeding how many days?

a)

Fifteen days

b)

Twenty days

c)

Thirty days

d)

Forty-five days

97.

During the inquiry, the Presenting Officer is entitled to re-examine the witnesses on any points on which they have been cross-examined, but not on any new matter, without what?

a)

Permission from the disciplinary authority

b)

The leave of the inquiring authority

c)

The consent of the Government servant

d)

A written brief

98.

If the disciplinary authority is not the inquiring authority, it shall forward a copy of the report to the Government servant who shall be required to submit his written representation or submission within how many days?

a)

Seven days

b)

Fifteen days

c)

Thirty days

d)

Forty-five days

99.

If consultation with the Commission is necessary, the Government servant shall be required to submit his written representation or submission on the advice of the Commission within how many days?

a)

Seven days

b)

Fifteen days

c)

Thirty days

d)

Forty-five days

100.

The Appointing Authority for Mr. M, a Group B officer, is the Head of Department (HOD). The Disciplinary Authority (DA) conducting the inquiry is an officer immediately subordinate to the HOD. The DA concludes the inquiry and finds grounds to impose the major penalty of Reduction to a Lower Time-Scale of Pay (Rule 11(vi)). Can the subordinate Disciplinary Authority legally impose this Major Penalty?

a)

Yes, because it is the DA conducting the inquiry under Rule 14.

b)

Yes, provided the HOD approves the penalty.

c)

No, because no penalty specified in clauses (v) to (ix) of Rule 11 shall be imposed by any authority subordinate to the appointing authority

d)

No, unless the case involves a member of the Indian Audit and Accounts Service.

101.

Ms. S, a Central Civil Services Group A officer, is lent to a local authority (Borrowing Authority). The Borrowing Authority conducts a disciplinary inquiry and decides that the penalty of Removal from Service (Rule 11(viii)) must be imposed. What is the mandatory immediate action required of the Borrowing Authority under Rule 20(2)(ii)?

a)

It must impose the removal order after consulting the Lending Authority.

b)

It shall replace the services of Ms. S at the disposal of the Lending Authority and transmit the inquiry proceedings to it.

c)

It must impose the maximum minor penalty and then return Ms. S.

d)

It must appeal to the President for directions.

102.

Following his suspension, Mr. E, a Group A officer, receives an order determining the subsistence and other allowances payable to him for the suspension period. Mr. E believes the amount determined is incorrect and wishes to appeal. According to Rule 23, against which action listed below may Mr. E prefer an appeal?

a)

An order passed by the Inquiring Authority during the proceedings.

b)

An order determining the subsistence and other allowances to be paid to him for the period of suspension.

c)

Any order made by the President.

d)

Non-promotion after consideration of his case.

103.

Mr. V, a Group B officer, is on loan to a State Government (Borrowing Authority). The State Government conducts proceedings and proposes to impose Censure (Rule 11(i)). The Central Government (Lending Authority) disagrees with the proposal during mandatory consultation. What is the consequence of the difference of opinion between the Borrowing Authority and the Lending Authority regarding this Minor Penalty?

a)

The Borrowing Authority may impose the penalty, as it conducted the inquiry.

b)

The services of the Government servant shall be replaced at the disposal of the Lending Authority.

c)

The matter must be referred to the President for a final decision.

d)

The penalty is automatically enhanced to a major penalty.

104.

Disciplinary proceedings are contemplated against Ms. F, a Group B officer, but the President is satisfied that, in the interest of the security of the State, it is not expedient to hold any inquiry in the manner provided in Rules 14 to 18. What action may the disciplinary authority take in this case, notwithstanding the normal procedure rules?

a)

The DA must hold a limited inquiry only on documentary evidence

b)

The DA may consider the circumstances of the case and make such orders thereon as it deems fit.

c)

The DA must refer the case to the Supreme Court.

d)

The DA must consult the Commission immediately and implement the advice.

105.

Inquiry as laid down in CCS (CCA) Rules should be held in the following cases:

a)

To impose major penalties (in respect of charges not accepted by GS)

b)

To withhold increment for 2 years

c)

To withhold increment which is likely to affect pension adversely

d)

When DA decides the inquiry should be held, even if the penalty is minor

106.

The delinquent official has a right:

a)

to Inspect documents referred to in the charge-sheet

b)

to engage any other official serving or retired to assist him

c)

tp engage a legal practitioner if the presenting officer is also a legal practitioner

d)

all of these

107.

Statement 1: The defendant may examine himself as a witness in his own behalf, if he so desires.

Statement 2: The Inquiry Officer may generally question him to explain circumstances cited in the evidence against him.

a)

Both Statements are True

b)

Both Statements are False

c)

Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False

d)

Statement 2 is True, Statement 1 is False

108.

Ex parte inquiry can be resorted only when:

Statement 1: Articles of charge should have been delivered.

Statement 2: The charged officer had failed to submit the written statement of defense on or before the specified date.

a)

Both Statements are True

b)

Both Statements are False

c)

Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False

d)

Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True

109.

If DA who initiated the case is competent to award only minor penalty and is in the opinion that major penalty to be imposed, He should send the entire records and findings, and record his opinion with regard to the imposition of penalty to the competent DA which will record its findings and pass order

a)

True

b)

False

110.

The maximum time limit for the Disciplinary Authority to take final decision on the enquiry report is:

a)

30 days

b)

45 days

c)

3 months

d)

6 months

111.

All ministries/ departments should ensure that all major penalty proceedings against GS and final order are passed by DA within _______ from the date of delivery of charge-sheet on the charged GS.

a)

6 months

b)

12 months

c)

18 months

d)

24 months

112.

Under what conditions, the prescribed procedure need not be followed:

a)

Conviction on a criminal charge

b)

where DA is satisfied that it is not reasonably practicable to hold an enquiry in the manner provided

c)

where the President is satisfied that in the interest of security of the state, it is not expedient to hold an enquiry in the manner provided.

d)

All of these

113.

If the delinquent GS dies during the pendency of the disciplinary proceedings, the proceedings should be dropped.

a)

True

b)

False

114.

The departmental Officer appointed as Inquiry Officer is relieved from other normal duties for a period of ___________ for completion of enquiry on full time basis and submit report.

a)

upto 20 days in two spells

b)

upto 30 days in two spells

c)

upto 40 days in a sibgle spell

d)

upto 60 days in a single spell

115.

When there is a disagreement with the advice of UPSC in a disciplinary matter, a reference shall be made to:

a)

The President

b)

DoPT

c)

Secretary of the concerned Ministry

d)

Director of concerned Department

116.

Besides penalty, the Right of Appeal can also be provided for

a)

Suspension

b)

Payment of Subsistence allowance

c)

Regulation of pay on reinstatement

d)

withholding of pension

117.

The power of Revision is vested with:

a)

The President

b)

The Comptroller & Auditor-General

c)

The Head of Department

d)

The relevant Appellate Authority

118.

Suspension may be defined as:

a)

temporary withdrawal of duties without pay

b)

removal from dutiies

c)

dismissal from duties

d)

temporary withdrawal of duties with reduction in pay

119.

Reason(s) of suspension:

a)

disciplinary proceedings

b)

activities prejudicial to security of state

c)

proceedings against criminal offence

d)

absence from duty without information directly lead to suspension

120.

A DA may consider a GS under suspension intended to guidance but not mandatory: Cases where the continuance of GS

a)

will prejudice the investigation

b)

will subvert the discipline in office

c)

will be against the public interest

d)

preliminary inquiry revealed that the prima facie case is made, likely to end in major penalty..

121.

Reason of suspension, if not indicated in the suspension order itself, should be communicated within __________

a)

3 months

b)

6 months

c)

1 month

d)

10 days

122.

Statement 1: Subsistence allowance during suspension is equivalent to leave salary which the GS would have drawn if he had been on leave on half average pay and in addition to dearness allowance if admissible

Statement 2: The subsistence allowance also includes HRA on half pay basis

a)

Both are True

b)

Both are False

c)

Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False

d)

Statement 2 is True, Statement 1 is False

123.

Statement 1: The Subsistence allowance is reviewed in after 3 months and may be increased by maximum 50%

Statement 2: The Subsistence allowance is reviewed in after 3 months and may be reduced by maximum 50%.

a)

Both are True

b)

Both are False

c)

Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False

d)

Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True

124.

The HQ of the GS during suspension s the last place of Duty, which cannot be changed under any circumstance on request of GS, if the change will put extra expenditure on government or other complications.

a)

True

b)

False

125.

Choose the correct option(s) regarding promotion during suspension

a)

GS under suspension is not considered by DPC for promotion.

b)

GS under suspension is not considered by DPC for promotion.

c)

The recommendation is placed in sealed cover, which is opened/ not acted upon, depending on the outcome of disciplinary proceedings

d)

If GS is suspended subsequent to meeting of DPC but before the actual promotion, the recommendation is declared.

126.

Compulsory deductions in Subsistence allowance:

a)

Income tax

b)

CGHS/ CGEGIS contribution

c)

Repayment of Loans/ advance taken from Govt.

d)

Amount due to Co-operative stores/ society

127.

Optional deductions in Subsistence allowance:

a)

Amount due to Co-operative stores/ society

b)

PLI Premia

c)

House Rent (Licence Fee)

d)

Recovery of Loss to Govt.

128.

Deduction(s) NOT to be made in Subsistence allowance:

a)

GPF Subscription

b)

Amount due to Court attachments

c)

Recovery of loss to Govt.

d)

Refund of GPF advance

129.

Vigilance clearance under suspension may not be granted to GS for:

(i) deputation

(ii) empanelment

(iii) Obtaining Passport

a)

(iii) only

b)

(ii) & (iii)

c)

(i), (ii) & (iii)

d)

(i) & (ii)

130.

Suspension may be desirable in the circumstances indicated:

(i) any offence/ conduct involving moral turpitude

(ii) serious negligence/ dereliction of duty resulting in loss of govt..

(iii) desertion of duty

(iv) corruption of govt. money

(v) refusal to carry out written orders by superior officers

a)

(ii) only

b)

(i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

c)

(ii), (iii) & (iv)

d)

all of these

131.

Statement 1: A GS who retires while under suspension receives provisional pension equal to maximum pension on the basis of qualifying service up to the date immediately preceding the date on which he was placed under suspension

Statement 2: Gratuity to such retired GS will not be paid in case of minor penalty is imposed

a)

Both are True

b)

Both are False

c)

Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False

d)

Statement 2 is True, Statement 1 is False

132.

On conclusion of proceedings, if the GS is exonerated:

a)

GS will be paid full pay & allowance if competent authority is in view of suspension as unjustified

b)

GS will be paid reduced pay & allowance, if competent authority is in view of suspension that the delay in proceeding is attributable to GS

c)

Time period of suspension is treated as period spent on duty

d)

all of these

133.

In case of minor penalty to GS:

  1. 1. The suspension period shall not be treated as duty period unless specified by competent authority.

  2. 2. The competent authority will determine the amount to be paid.

  3. 3. No representation is accepted on amount to be paid.

  4. 4. If the GS so desires the suspension period may be converted to leave of any kind due & admissible

a)

1, 2 & 3

b)

1, 2 & 4

c)

1 & 2

d)

1, 2, 3 & 4

134.

If the GS under suspension dies before the disciplinary proceeding or court proceedings

a)

The proceedings are concluded.

b)

period of suspension till date of death shall be treated as duty for all purpose.

c)

Family shall be paid full pay & allowances to which the GS was entitled had he not been suspended.

d)

The subsistence allowance already paid may not be adjusted in pay & allowances

135.

During suspension of GS

a)

Casual leave is admissible

b)

LTC is admissible to GS

c)

LTC is admissible to family only

d)

CEA is admissible

136.

Full pay & allowances are admissible when

a)

minor penalty is awarded

b)

GS dies during suspension

c)

GS is acquitted from court proceeding with no departmental enquiry after.

d)

in case of arrest for debt, where the liability proved circumstances beyond the control of GS

137.

Period of suspension is treated as duty when

a)

minor penalty is awarded

b)

GS dies during suspension

c)

GS is acquitted from court proceeding with no departmental enquiry after.

d)

in case of arrest for debt, where the liability proved circumstances beyond the control of GS

138.

The pension withhold/withdraw should not be reduced below the minimum pension of

a)

₹9000 pm

b)

₹9500 pm

c)

₹3500 pm

d)

No limit

139.

If the applicant is not satisfied with Tribunal Judgement, he may seek review of judgement by filling a petition within ______days of communication of order.

a)

7

b)

15

c)

30

d)

45

140.

Choose the correct option:

  1. 1. Warning is not a punishment and cannot be equated to censure.

  2. 2. Warning amounts to penalty to GS and will constitute a bar for promotion.

  3. 3. Warning should not be issued as a outcome of disciplinary proceeding, at least censure to be imposed if some blame attaches to the GS.

a)

3 Only

b)

1 & 2

c)

2 & 3

d)

1 & 3

141.

An employee under suspension cannot be allowed for departmental examination.

a)

True

b)

False

142.

An employee under suspension is entitled to:

a)

leave of any kind admissible to him

b)

LTC for himself

c)

act as defense counsel for another employee in disciplinary proceedings against that employee.

d)

leave the headquarters.

143.

A retired government employee can handle as defense assistant at any point of time maximum ________ number of cases.

a)

3

b)

4

c)

6

d)

7