wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Intravenous Medication Principles ch 7

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is one of the physiochemical considerations mentioned in the contents for intravenous medication principles?

a)

Osmolarity and Tonicity

b)

Drug Absorption Rate

c)

Oral Bioavailability

d)

Tablet Disintegration

2.

Which type of incompatibility involves the use of non-PVC containers for certain drugs?

a)

Container Incompatibility

b)

Chemical Incompatibility

c)

Physical Incompatibility

d)

Temperature Incompatibility

3.

If a drug must be mixed only in saline, under which incompatibility category would it be listed?

a)

Drugs to Mix in Saline Only

b)

Drugs to Mix in Dextrose Only

c)

Diluent Incompatibility

d)

Chemical Incompatibility

4.

Why might some intravenous drugs require protection from light during administration?

a)

To prevent degradation and maintain stability

b)

To enhance absorption

c)

To reduce viscosity

d)

To increase tonicity

5.

What is the purpose of using filters with certain intravenous drugs?

a)

To remove particulate matter and ensure safe administration

b)

To increase drug potency

c)

To change the drug’s color

d)

To reduce the drug’s pH

6.

Which section would you refer to for information on high-risk incompatibilities in intravenous medication principles?

a)

Incompatibilities

b)

Filters

c)

Temperature & Stability

d)

Venous Catheters

7.

What is a recommended storage instruction for some intravenous medications according to the contents?

a)

Do Not Refrigerate

b)

Store in direct sunlight

c)

Freeze before use

d)

Keep at room temperature only

8.

Which of the following is the preferred route for drug delivery?

a)

Enteral administration

b)

Intravenous administration

c)

Intramuscular administration

d)

Subcutaneous administration

9.

Which parenteral route is often used by anesthesiologists and for some chemotherapy, but is contraindicated for certain drugs?

a)

Intravenous

b)

Intramuscular

c)

Intrathecal

d)

Subcutaneous

10.

Why might oral drugs not be suitable for hospitalized patients who are NPO?

a)

They have high bioavailability

b)

The gut needs to be bypassed

c)

They are absorbed too quickly

d)

They are always safe for emergencies

11.

Which of the following is a reason to use a parenteral route of drug administration?

a)

When fast onset is needed

b)

When the drug is always stable

c)

When the drug is always cheap

d)

When the drug is always oral

12.

What does osmolarity reflect in a solution?

a)

The pressure gradient created by solutes

b)

The color of the solution

c)

The temperature of the solution

d)

The viscosity of the solution

13.

Which type of sodium chloride solution is considered hypertonic?

a)

Greater than 0.9% sodium chloride

b)

Less than 0.9% sodium chloride

c)

Exactly 0.9% sodium chloride

d)

0.45% sodium chloride

14.

What can happen if hypertonic saline injections are given erroneously into a peripheral vein?

a)

Water moves out of red blood cells, causing them to shrivel

b)

Red blood cells absorb water and burst

c)

No effect on red blood cells

d)

Red blood cells multiply rapidly

15.

Why is hypertonic saline often restricted to the pharmacy and only dispensed for administration in specific areas of the hospital?

a)

To avoid adverse outcomes and ensure safety

b)

Because it is cheap

c)

Because it is always stable

d)

Because it is always used for nutrition

16.

What is the lowest saline concentration that should be administered intravenously?

a)

0.45% sodium chloride

b)

0.9% sodium chloride

c)

3% sodium chloride

d)

23.4% sodium chloride

17.

What is the normal pH range of blood?

a)

7.35 – 7.45

b)

6.35 – 6.45

c)

8.35 – 8.45

d)

5.35 – 5.45

18.

What happens to blood pH when it becomes more basic?

a)

Hydrogen ions are released from carbonic acid

b)

Hydrogen ions are picked up

c)

Bicarbonate binds with protons

d)

The pH decreases

19.

Why must drugs administered intravenously be formulated to keep the pH within a narrow range?

a)

To avoid damaging the veins and other tissues

b)

To increase the color of the solution

c)

To make the drug taste better

d)

To reduce the cost of the drug

20.

Which buffer system helps maintain blood pH?

a)

Carbonic acid-bicarbonate system

b)

Sodium chloride system

c)

Potassium buffer system

d)

Calcium buffer system

21.

Why is it important for a pharmacist to understand the aspects of intravenous administration, such as compatibility and stability issues?

a)

To ensure safe and effective drug delivery

b)

To make drugs taste better

c)

To reduce the cost of drugs

d)

To increase the color of drugs

22.

How does tonicity differ from osmolarity in terms of intravenous drug administration?

a)

Tonicity reflects the pressure gradient created by solutes that do not cross biological membranes, while osmolarity reflects all solutes per liter of solution

b)

Tonicity measures the color of the solution, while osmolarity measures the taste

c)

Tonicity is only important for oral drugs, while osmolarity is for intravenous drugs

d)

Tonicity and osmolarity are exactly the same

23.

What is the consequence of administering a hypotonic solution intravenously?

a)

Red blood cells will absorb fluid and may burst (hemolysis)

b)

Red blood cells will shrivel

c)

No effect on red blood cells

d)

Red blood cells will multiply

24.

A patient requires rapid onset of drug action in an emergency. Which route of administration would be most appropriate and why?

a)

Intravenous, because it allows for immediate drug effect

b)

Oral, because it is always the fastest

c)

Intramuscular, because it is always slow

d)

Subcutaneous, because it is always delayed

25.

If a hospital pharmacist is preparing a parenteral nutrition solution, what factors must be considered to avoid adverse effects related to osmolarity?

a)

Ensure the osmolarity is appropriate to prevent damage to red blood cells and restrict hypertonic solutions to safe administration areas

b)

Only consider the color of the solution

c)

Ignore the osmolarity and focus on taste

d)

Use only hypotonic solutions

26.

Explain why maintaining blood pH is critical when administering intravenous drugs and how buffer systems help achieve this.

a)

Maintaining blood pH prevents tissue damage, and buffer systems like the carbonic acid-bicarbonate system help stabilize pH

b)

Blood pH is not important for drug administration

c)

Buffer systems only affect drug color

d)

Buffer systems are not present in blood

27.

Which type of catheter is inserted into a vein and used for drug delivery?

a)

Venous catheter

b)

Urinary catheter

c)

Arterial catheter

d)

Nasogastric catheter

28.

What is the main difference between peripheral lines and central lines?

a)

Peripheral lines are inserted into smaller veins, while central lines are inserted into larger veins.

b)

Peripheral lines are used for urinary catheterization, while central lines are used for drug delivery.

c)

Peripheral lines are only used in the legs, while central lines are only used in the arms.

d)

Peripheral lines require X-ray confirmation, while central lines do not.

29.

Which vein is commonly used for peripheral venous catheters in the arm?

a)

Cephalic vein

b)

Femoral vein

c)

Jugular vein

d)

Brachiocephalic vein

30.

What is phlebitis?

a)

Vein irritation

b)

Blood clot formation

c)

Drug dilution

d)

Catheter dislodgement

31.

Which of the following is a benefit of central lines compared to peripheral lines?

a)

Ability to administer higher volumes and infuse at faster rates

b)

Lower risk of infection

c)

No need for X-ray confirmation

d)

Used only for short-term drug delivery

32.

Which type of drug is most likely to require administration through a central line due to risk of severe tissue damage?

a)

Vesicants

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Analgesics

d)

Antihistamines

33.

Why are vesicants safer when administered through a central line?

a)

The line is less likely to become dislodged from the vein

b)

The drug is more concentrated

c)

The catheter is shorter

d)

The vein is smaller

34.

Which of the following is NOT a reason for using a central line?

a)

Administration of highly concentrated drugs

b)

Administration of drugs with high osmolarity

c)

Administration of drugs with a pH close to blood pH

d)

Administration of long-term antibiotics

35.

What is the purpose of confirming central line placement with an X-ray?

a)

To ensure the tip has reached the right location

b)

To check for blood clots

c)

To measure drug concentration

d)

To monitor infusion rate

36.

Which of the following is a potential complication of administering drugs through a peripheral line?

a)

Phlebitis, thrombosis, and extravasation

b)

Severe tissue damage from vesicants

c)

High osmolarity tolerance

d)

Long-term vascular access

37.

A vesicant drug can cause which of the following if the catheter tip comes out of the vein?

a)

Severe tissue damage

b)

Blood pressure drop

c)

Increased drug absorption

d)

Reduced drug efficacy

38.

Which of the following is a vesicant drug?

a)

Doxorubicin

b)

Paracetamol

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Ibuprofen

39.

What should be done if IV promethazine is used to reduce the risk of severe tissue injury?

a)

Dilute the drug, limit the dose, and monitor

b)

Administer the drug rapidly

c)

Use intra-arterial route

d)

Avoid monitoring the patient

40.

What does "incompatible" mean in the context of intravenous medication principles?

a)

Substances are unsuitable for use together

b)

Substances are always safe to use together

c)

Substances are always chemically identical

d)

Substances are always physically identical

41.

Which of the following is an example of chemical incompatibility?

a)

Drug degradation due to hydrolysis

b)

Drug stored in a glass container

c)

Mixing two drugs in the same syringe

d)

Using a non-PVC container

42.

Physical incompatibility can occur between a drug and which of the following?

a)

The container, the diluent, or another drug

b)

Only the container

c)

Only the diluent

d)

Only another drug

43.

What is the main risk associated with DEHP leaching from PVC containers?

a)

Toxicity that can harm the liver and possibly male fertility

b)

Increased drug potency

c)

Reduced drug absorption in the body

d)

Enhanced drug stability

44.

Which of the following drugs requires a non-PVC container?

a)

Amiodarone

b)

Ceftriaxone

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Metronidazole

45.

Why might clinicians use non-PVC containers for certain drugs?

a)

To prevent leaching, absorption, or adsorption issues

b)

To increase the drug's color

c)

To make the drug taste better

d)

To reduce the cost of administration

46.

Which solution is acceptable for most drugs when diluted for IV administration?

a)

5% dextrose (D5W) or 0.9% sodium chloride (NS)

b)

Only sterile water

c)

Only 10% dextrose

d)

Only 0.45% sodium chloride

47.

Which of the following drugs should be mixed in dextrose only?

a)

Amphotericin B (all)

b)

Lorazepam

c)

Insulin

d)

Nitroglycerin

48.

If a drug is known to adsorb to PVC, what is a suitable alternative container material?

a)

Polyolefin, polypropylene, or glass

b)

Cardboard

c)

Aluminum foil

d)

Paper

49.

A patient requires an IV infusion of insulin. What considerations should you make regarding the choice of container and tubing, and why?

a)

Use non-PVC containers and tubing because insulin adsorbs to PVC, which can affect glucose control

b)

Use any container, as insulin is stable in all materials

c)

Use only glass containers to prevent oxidation

d)

Use PVC containers to enhance insulin absorption

50.

Which of the following drugs should be mixed in saline only, according to the mnemonic "A DIabetic Can't Eat Pie"?

a)

Ampicillin

b)

Vancomycin

c)

Gentamicin

d)

Ceftriaxone

51.

What is the main reason for confirming additive compatibility when mixing drugs in the same container?

a)

Drugs will be in contact for a longer period of time, which may affect compatibility.

b)

It is required by law for all IV medications.

c)

It reduces the cost of medication administration.

d)

It increases the potency of the drugs.

52.

Which combination is considered high-risk and should be avoided due to the risk of precipitate formation?

a)

Ceftriaxone and calcium-containing solutions

b)

Ampicillin and saline

c)

Daptomycin and dextrose

d)

Phenytoin and water

53.

What is the purpose of a Y-site in IV administration?

a)

To join fluids from different IV containers before entering the patient

b)

To filter out bacteria from IV fluids

c)

To increase the speed of drug infusion

d)

To monitor the patient's blood pressure

54.

Which reputable resource can be used to check for drug compatibility information?

a)

ASHP Injectable Drug Information

b)

World Health Organization (WHO) website

c)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines

d)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recall list

55.

A patient is prescribed both ceftriaxone and Lactated Ringer’s solution. What should the pharmacist do?

a)

Avoid mixing them due to the risk of precipitate formation

b)

Mix them together for faster administration

c)

Dilute both drugs in dextrose before mixing

d)

Administer both drugs orally

56.

Why is it important to ensure drugs are compatible with Y-site administration?

a)

Because drugs mix briefly in the common portion of the IV tubing

b)

Because it increases the drug's effectiveness

c)

Because it reduces the need for monitoring

d)

Because it prevents the need for refrigeration

57.

What is a potential fatal risk when mixing calcium and phosphate in intravenous fluids?

a)

Formation of precipitates leading to emboli and fatality

b)

Increased drug absorption

c)

Reduced drug potency

d)

Development of antibiotic resistance

58.

Which of the following statements best describes additive compatibility?

a)

It refers to the compatibility of drugs mixed in the same container or syringe.

b)

It refers to the compatibility of drugs given orally.

c)

It refers to the compatibility of drugs stored in the same pharmacy.

d)

It refers to the compatibility of drugs with food.

59.

A nurse is preparing to administer two IV medications using a Y-site. What should be checked before administration?

a)

Y-site compatibility of the drugs

b)

The color of the IV fluids

c)

The patient's age

d)

The time of day

60.

Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of a reference table in intravenous medication principles?

a)

To check drug compatibility between a reference drug and a tested drug.

b)

To determine the cost of medications.

c)

To identify the manufacturer of a drug.

d)

To calculate the dosage of a drug.

61.

What does the remark "cloudiness" indicate when mixing cefepime and gentamicin in D5W or NS?

a)

The solution is safe to use.

b)

A precipitate has formed.

c)

The drugs are fully compatible.

d)

The solution is sterile.

62.

According to the reference table, what is the compatibility status of cefepime and gentamicin when mixed in D5W, NS at the concentrations listed in the first table?

a)

Compatible

b)

Incompatible

c)

Unknown

d)

Partially compatible

63.

Which filter size is most commonly used to remove particulates from IV solutions?

a)

0.22 micron

b)

1.2 micron

c)

5 micron

d)

10 micron

64.

For which purpose is a 1.2 micron filter typically used in IV administration?

a)

To catch calcium-phosphate particulates and for injectable lipid emulsions.

b)

To remove bacteria from solutions.

c)

To filter out viruses.

d)

To sterilize the IV tubing.

65.

Why must large molecule drugs, including many liposomal formulations of chemotherapy, not be filtered during IV administration?

a)

The filter may remove the active drug particles.

b)

The filter increases the risk of infection.

c)

The filter makes the drug more potent.

d)

The filter changes the color of the drug.

66.

Which of the following drugs requires a filter when administered by continuous infusion, but not by IV push?

a)

Phenytoin

b)

Amiodarone

c)

Golimumab

d)

Mannitol

67.

What is the main reason for using an in-line filter when administering IV medications?

a)

To remove particulates, precipitates, crystals, and contaminants.

b)

To increase the speed of drug administration.

c)

To reduce the cost of medication.

d)

To improve the taste of the solution.

68.

Which of the following drugs listed in the "Key Drugs" box requires a 1.2 micron filter?

a)

Lipids

b)

Golimumab

c)

Infliximab

d)

Abatacept

69.

If compounding IV medications packaged in glass ampules, which tool should be used to prevent glass particulates from entering the IV bag?

a)

Filter needle or filter straw

b)

Syringe without a filter

c)

Regular needle

d)

Cotton swab

70.

Which of the following statements best describes a drug that is considered "stable"?

a)

It remains unchanged at any concentration, temperature, and light exposure.

b)

It is stable only at select concentrations, for a certain time, at a certain temperature, and with a certain degree of light exposure.

c)

It is stable only when refrigerated.

d)

It is stable only in solid form.

71.

What effect does higher temperature have on drugs in solution?

a)

It slows down chemical reactions and increases drug stability.

b)

It speeds up chemical reactions and breaks down proteins, reducing drug stability.

c)

It has no effect on drug stability.

d)

It only affects solid drugs, not solutions.

72.

Which of the following drugs should NOT be refrigerated because they crystallize or precipitate?

a)

Acetaminophen, Acyclovir, Deforoxamine, Levetiracetam, Pentamidine

b)

Furosemide, Phenytoin, Dexmedetomidine, Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim, Metronidazole

c)

Epoprostenol, Doxycycline, Anthracyclines, Dacarbazine

d)

Albumin, Insulin, Monoclonal antibodies

73.

Which process destroys some drugs and can increase a drug’s toxicity when exposed to light?

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Photodegradation

c)

Oxidation

d)

Crystallization

74.

Which of the following drugs require protection from light during administration?

a)

Acetaminophen, Acyclovir, Deforoxamine

b)

Epoprostenol, Nitroprusside, Micafungin, Doxycycline

c)

Albumin, Insulin, Monoclonal antibodies

d)

Furosemide, Phenytoin, Dexmedetomidine

75.

Why should some drugs not be shaken or agitated during transport or reconstitution?

a)

Shaking increases their potency.

b)

Shaking destroys easily damaged drugs, such as proteins and hormones.

c)

Shaking improves their stability.

d)

Shaking is required for proper mixing.

76.

Which of the following is a correct procedure for reconstituting drugs that foam, such as alteplase, etanercept, rasburicase, and caspofungin?

a)

Shake vigorously until foam disappears.

b)

Swirl gently and wait for foam to dissolve.

c)

Heat the solution to dissolve foam.

d)

Add ice to reduce foaming.

77.

A pharmacy technician is preparing an IV drug that is listed as "DO NOT REFRIGERATE." What is the most likely reason for this instruction?

a)

The drug is more stable at higher temperatures.

b)

The drug crystallizes or precipitates when refrigerated.

c)

The drug loses potency at room temperature.

d)

The drug is sensitive to light.

78.

Which of the following is NOT a reason why drugs may require protection from light?

a)

Light exposure can cause photodegradation.

b)

Light exposure can increase drug toxicity.

c)

Light exposure can improve drug efficacy.

d)

Light exposure can cause drug degradation.

79.

A nurse is about to administer a medication that is sensitive to light. What is the best practice to ensure drug stability?

a)

Store the drug in clear vials.

b)

Protect the drug from light using amber vials or light-protective covers.

c)

Refrigerate the drug at all times.

d)

Shake the drug before administration.

80.

Which color change in nitroprusside indicates nearly complete dissociation to cyanide?

a)

Blue

b)

Orange

c)

Brown

d)

Pink

81.

What is the normal color of tigecycline IV solution?

a)

Green/black

b)

Yellow/orange

c)

Blue

d)

Red

82.

Which IV drug can cause discoloration of teeth if used during teeth development?

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Anthracyclines

c)

Tigecycline

d)

IV Iron

83.

If a parenteral solution contains particulates, what should be done?

a)

Shake the solution

b)

Discard the drug

c)

Warm the solution

d)

Add more solvent

84.

Which drug should not be used if the solution is darker than slight yellow, but is okay to use if it is only slightly yellow?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Morphine

c)

Dacarbazine

d)

Isoproterenol

85.

Explain why oxidation in dobutamine solution does not result in loss of potency, even though the solution turns slightly pink.

a)

The pink color indicates complete decomposition.

b)

The potency is retained despite the color change.

c)

The solution should be discarded if pink.

d)

The color change is due to contamination.

86.

A patient’s urine turns red after receiving an IV drug. Which drug is most likely responsible?

a)

Mitoxantrone

b)

Anthracyclines

c)

Methotrexate

d)

Multivitamins for Infusion (MVI)

87.

What is the recommended action if a solution of isoproterenol appears pink or darker?

a)

Use the solution as normal

b)

Discard the solution

c)

Add more isoproterenol

d)

Heat the solution

88.

Which IV drug is associated with blue colored skin, eyes, and urine?

a)

Rifampin

b)

Mitoxantrone

c)

Anthracyclines

d)

IV Iron

89.

Why is it important for clinicians to check intravenous solutions for color changes and particulates before administration?

a)

To ensure the solution is at room temperature

b)

To prevent administration of degraded or unsafe medication

c)

To confirm the medication is effective

d)

To reduce the cost of treatment