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Nervous System Midway

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which following statement about neuroglia in CNS is not correct?

a)

Astrocytes can form brain-blood barrier

b)

Satellite cells can form glia limitans

c)

Oligodendrocytes can form myelin sheath in CNS

d)

Ependymal cells take part in choroid plexus

2.

Which organization of the cerebellum from superficial to deep is correct?

a)

white matter-› Molecular layer-> Purkinje cell layer-> Granular layer

b)

Granular layer-> Purkinje cell layer-> Molecular layer -> white matter

c)

Purkinje cell layer -> Molecular layer -> Granular layer-> white matter

d)

Molecular layer-> Purkinje cell layer-> Granular layer-> white matter

3.

Which following statement is not correct?

a)

Perineurium wraps a nerve fascicle

b)

Endoneurium surrounds an axon

c)

Epineurium surrounds the whole nerve

d)

Endoneurium can form a blood nerve barrier

4.

Which of the following does not belong to basal ganglia?

a)

Substantia nigra

b)

Globus pallidus

c)

Caudate nuclei

d)

Putamen

5.

Which of the following statements is wrong?

a)

The pre-ganglionic nuclei of sympathetic nervous system locate at the lateral horn of thoracic and lumbar spinal cord

b)

The pre-ganglionic nuclei of parasympathetic nervous system locate at cranial nuclei and sacral spinal cord

c)

The post-ganglionic nerves of parasympathetic nervous system terminate in the prevertebral ganglia

d)

The post-ganglionic nerves of sympathetic nervous system mostly release norepinephrine except in sweat glands and blood vessels of skeletal muscle

6.

The nerve fibers transmit the somatic sensation of our chin form the peripheral to the central region through

a)

Superior orbital fissure

b)

Foramen ovale

c)

Foramen rotundum

d)

Supraorbital foramen

7.

Which of the following descriptions is wrong?

a)

Superior sagittal sinus collects the venous blood forms superficial cerebral veins

b)

Corpus callosum is beneath the falx cerebri

c)

Tentorium cerebelli separates cerebellum and occipital lobe

d)

Internal carotid arteries are surrounded by the inferior sagittal sinus

8.

Which of the following contains only motor fibers?

a)

Dorsal root

b)

Dorsal ramus

c)

Ventral root

d)

Ventral ramus

9.

Which of the regions listed does not contain preganglionic autonomic neurons?

a)

Brainstem nuclei

b)

Cervical cord

c)

Thoracic Cord

d)

Sacral cord

10.

Which of the following is not the function of the facial nerve?

a)

Contraction of stapedius muscle

b)

Secretion of parotid gland

c)

Special sensation of anterior two-third of tongue

d)

Secretion of lacrimal gland

11.

The projection fibers (from the cerebral cortex to lower components e.g. spinal cord) in the cerebral white matter form the

a)

Internal capsule

b)

Corpus callosum

c)

Pyramidal tract

d)

Cerebellar peduncles

12.

Which of the nerve branches listed mainly form the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?

a)

Median nerve

b)

Ulnar nerve

c)

Musculocutaneous nerve

d)

Radial nerve

13.

Which structure is not from the neural tube?

a)

Trigeminal ganglion

b)

Trigeminal nucleus

c)

Dentate nucleus

14.

Cauda equine is formed by

a)

roots of spinal nerve

b)

Spinal nerve

c)

rami of spinal nerve

d)

pia mater

15.

Which item contains the structures that are not from the neural crest cells?

a)

rachnoid, Digastic muscle. Odontoblast

b)

Pia matter, ganglion satellite cells, Ependymal cells

c)

Sympathetic ganglion. Schwann cells, medulla of adrenal gland

d)

Incus, stylopharyngeus muscle, ciliary muscle

16.

A 36-year-old man visits his primary care physician for an annual physical. The patellar tendon reflex is tested during the course of a routine neurological examination. Which of the following statements accurately characterizes this reflex?

a)

monosynaptic reflex

b)

Polysynaptic reflex

c)

Activated by Golgi tendon organ

d)

Inhibited by gamma motor neurons

17.

In order to alleviate excruciating pain to the face, a surgical procedure of the fiber bundle mediating pain sensation from the face is made. Which structure is associated with the surgical procedure?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

18.

An elderly female patient complains that she cannot taste the food she eats. A careful neurological examination reveals no evidence of peripheral damage to the taste receptors. The evidence suggests, instead, that there is selective damage to certain regions of the brainstem. Which of the following sites would include damage that could result in the selective loss of taste?

a)

Superior olivary nucleus

b)

Inferior salivatory nucleus

c)

Solitary nucleus

d)

Spinal nucleus of the trigeminal nerve

19.

A 55-year-old man was brought into the E-DA hospital with a severe burn on his left hand. The man had placed his hand on the burner of an electric stove but had not sensed anything wrong until he smelled burning flesh. Neurologic examination revealed loss of pain and temperature sensation over dermatomes C4 through T6 bilaterally: However, pain and temperature were perceived bilaterally both above C4 and below T6. Discriminative touch was present in unburned dermatomes on the left and in the right extremity. Although the left hand was too damaged to accurately assess muscle function, weakness and wasting of small muscles of the right hand were noted. Muscle strength and reflexes were otherwise normal, which following structure could be affected?

a)

fasciculus gracilis

b)

Caneate fasciculos

c)

Lateral spinothalamic tract

d)

rubosipinal tract

20.

A patient is referred to a neurologist after complaining that he cannot see out of the right half of each eye. Which site is most likely affected by the lesion?

a)

optic chiasma

b)

left optic tract

c)

right optic tract

d)

right lateral geniculate body

21.

The following auditory-related constructs.

a) Inferior colliculus

b) Cochlear nucleus

c) Medial geniculate nucleus

d) Trapezoid body

e) Lateral lemniscus

f) Auditory cortex

What is the order in the transmission of auditory messages?

a)

b-e-d-c-a-f

b)

b-d-e-a-c-f

c)

b-e-d-a-c-f

d)

b-d-e-c-a-f

22.

Which of the following structures provides output from the basal ganglia?

a)

caudate nucleus

b)

nucleus accumbens

c)

GPe

d)

GP internal segment (GPi)

23.

Select the incorrect statement concerning dopamine input to the striatum.

a)

D1 receptors of striatal neurons participate in the direct pathway

b)

D2 receptors of striatal neurons participate in the indirect pathway

c)

Both receptors participate in inhibition of movement

d)

The dopamine input comes from SNc (substantia nigra compacta)

24.

A 27-year-old was suffering from excruciating pain that could not be reduced or eliminated through drug treatment. A decision was made by the neurosurgeon to attempt to alleviate the pain by surgically cutting the pathway mediating pain impulses to the thalamus. In a case similar to that a patient was also suffering from excruciating pain. However, the neurosurgeon decided to try another approach to alleviate the pain. This approach involved the application of deep electrical stimulation to selected regions of the brain. Which of the following regions was selected for the application of stimulation in order to produce analgesia?

a)

anterior nucleus of thalamus

b)

Caudate nucleus

c)

ventral horn of spinal cord

d)

Periaqueductal gray

25.

A 30-year-old male suffers a serious injury of the CNS that results from an industrial accident. A neurological evaluation suggests that the major input to the Flocculonodular lobe is damaged. Which of the following structures provides the major input to the flocculonodular lobe that was damaged?

a)

Nucleus dorsalis of Clarke

b)

Red nucleus

c)

Vestibular nucleus

d)

Midbrain reticular formation

26.

An individual is referred to a neurologist because he is having difficulty moving his eyes horizontally to one side. The neurologist concludes that the individual has a vascular lesion. Which of the following structures were most likely affected by this lesion?

a)

Paramedian pontine reticular formation

b)

Ventrolateral medulla

c)

Cranial nerve IV

d)

Ventral posterolateral nucleus of thalamus

27.

A female patient experiences a significant disruption in the circadian rhythm for various sex hormones and corticosterone. A tumor is discovered in the forebrain of this patient. Which of the following structures most likely contains the tumor?

a)

posterior hypothalamic nucleus

b)

Lateral hypothalamus

c)

Ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus

d)

Suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus

28.

A 69-year-old female suffered an infarction on the left side of her brain and presented with the following signs. Sensory loss on the right side of her body, parenthesis, and thalamic pain. Which of the following regions were affected by the infarctions?

a)

Posterior thalamic nuclei

b)

Anterior thalamic nuclei

c)

Medial hypothalamic nuclei

d)

Intralaminar thalamic nuclei

29.

An investigator sought to determine the primary neuronal target structure in the brain which receives inputs from the inferior olivary nucleus. In order to complete this study, the investigator microinjected a tracer substance into the inferior olivary nucleus which was then transported from the cell bodies in the inferior olivary nucleus down the axons to their target structures. Which of the following structures would contain the tracer substance indicating that it constitutes a principal projection target of the inferior olivary nucleus?

a)

cerebral cortex corticospinal tract

b)

Cerebral cortex/inferior cerebellar peduncles

c)

Cerebellar cortex/corticospinal tract

d)

Cerebellar cortex/ inferior cerebellar peduncles

30.

A patient presents with quite limited spontaneous speech, and an inability to repeat statements made by the examiner. yet an ability to follow instructions provided by the examiner. This patient may be suffering from:

a)

Conduction Aphasia

b)

Wemicko's Aphasia

c)

Global Aphasia

d)

Broca's Aphasia

31.

Which of the following statements regarding the labeled structures in the diagram below is TRUE?

a)

cells marked by B are innervated by axons that travel in a superior trajectory loop

b)

cells marked by A are innervated by axons that travel in Meyer's loop

c)

the receptive field of a cell located at C is closer to the foveal representation than the receptive field of a cell located at B

d)

all above are correct

32.

A 78-year-old man is found on the ground unconscious one morning and taken to the emergency room of E-Da hospital. After regaining consciousness he is unable to move his right hand or leg. Which of the regions shown in the illustration was most likely directly affected by the stroke?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

33.

Which structure receives major GABAergic input from neurons originating in the neostriatum?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

34.

Which of the following cranial nerves serve both sensory and motor functions?

a)

Cranial nerve III, VII, XI, XII

b)

Cranial nerve V, X, XI, XII

c)

Cranial nerve III, V, VII, X

d)

Cranial nerve V, VII, IX, X

35.

Which of the following statements about cranial nerves is TRUE?

a)

The olfactory cells synapse with mitral cells in the olfactory bulbs

b)

Most of the fibers in the optic tract terminate in the medial geniculate body

c)

Trochlear nerve supplies the inferior oblique muscle

d)

Parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland is supplied by the facial nerve

36.

Which of the following statements is true of the pupillary light reflex?

a)

Its efferent limb is carried in the optic nerve

b)

It is mediated by the inferior colliculi in the midbrain

c)

it's a consensual reflex

d)

Its afferent limb is carried in the oculomotor nerve

37.

The dorsal columns are organized:

a)

Somatotopically with the medial fibers representing the cervical regions

b)

Somatotopically with medial fibers representing sacral regions

c)

With the medial fibers representing thoracic regions

d)

There is NO somatotopic organization of the dorsal columns

38.

Cell body of the first order neuron of lateral spinothalamic tract is located in

a)

dorsal root ganglion

b)

substsantia gelatinosa

c)

nucleus cuneatus

d)

nucleus dorsalis

39.

Which of the following tracts send proprioceptive information from the upper extremities to the cerebellum?

a)

Anterior spinocerebellar tracts

b)

Lateral spinocerebellar tracts

c)

Posterior spinocerebellar tracts

d)

Medial spinocerebellar tracts

40.

The summation of EPSPs from numerous presynaptic nerve fibers converging onto one postsynaptic neuron is called

a)

spatial summation

b)

long-term potentiation

c)

temporal summation

d)

synaptic plasticity

41.

A drug that inactivates acetylcholinesterase

a)

inhibits the release of ACh from presynaptic endings

b)

inhibits the attachment of ACh to its receptor protein

c)

increases the ability of ACh to stimulate muscle contraction

d)

does all of the above

42.

The consolidation of short-term memory into long-term memory appears to be a function of

a)

the substantia nigra

b)

the hippocampus

c)

the cerebral peduncles

d)

the arcuate fasciculus

43.

Which of the following acts as a relay center for somatesthetic sensation?

a)

The thalamus

b)

The hypothalamus

c)

The red nucleus

d)

The cerebellum

44.

The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

a)

utilizes norepinephrine as a postganglionic neurotransmitter

b)

has a relatively short preganglionic neuron

c)

utilizes acetylcholine as a preganglionic neurotransmitter

d)

includes the adrenal medulla

45.

Sympathetic preganglionic neurons exit the spinal cord via the____root and then Join the spinal nerve and enter the ganglion via the______ramus. Most of the postganglionic fibers return to the spinal nerve via the____ramus

a)

ventral: gray: white

b)

ventral: white: gray

c)

dorsal: gray: gray

d)

dorsal: white: gray

46.

People who have done a lot of endurance training can have a resting heart rate of 50 beats per minute compared to the normal resting heart rate of 70-80 beats per minute. This decreased heart rate in trained individuals is the partial result of

a)

increases in both sympathetic and parasympathetic activity

b)

decreases in both sympathetic and parasympathetic activity

c)

parasympathetic activity becoming more active and sympathetic activity becoming less active at rest

d)

sympathetic activity becoming more active and parasympathetic activity becoming less active at rest

47.

Which statement about the parasympathetic system drugs is not correct?

a)

Bethanechol is a direct nicotinic receptor agonist and used to treat postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention

b)

Edrophonium is a short-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that is use for diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

c)

Physostigmine is an intermediate-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor with significant CNS adverse effect

d)

Atropine is antimuscarinic agent which has the adverse effect such as dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, and blurred vision

48.

Which statement about the sympathetic system drugs is not correct?

a)

Epinephrine is an endogenous catecholamine and used to treat anaphylaxis

b)

Prazosin is a alpha-receptor antagonist and used primarily in men with concurrent hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia

c)

Propranolol is a B-receptor antagonist an id cannot be used for patients with asthma

d)

Metoprolol is a B-receptor antagonist and provides a prophylactic effect for migraine

49.

Which statement about the drugs used in parkinsonism is not correct?

a)

Levodopa which is a dopamine precursor enters the brain and converts to dopamine

b)

Entacapone inhibits dopa decarboxylase in peripheral tissues and is given with Levodopa

c)

Pramipexol which is a dopamine agonist is used a s monotherapy in mild parkinsonism and can be used together with Levodopa in more advanced disease

d)

Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase B Inhibitors and is used adjunctively with Levodopa

50.

Which statement about the sedative-hypnotic Drug Bezodiaepines is not correct?

a)

The drugs may depress respiratory and vasomotor centers in the medulla and lead to coma and death in overdoses

b)

Bind to the GABA(A) receptor in neuronal membranes in the CNS, which functions as a chloride ion channel

c)

Have sedation, hypnosis, anticonvulsant , and muscle relaxation actions

d)

Physiologic dependence leads to a withdrawal state when the drug is abruptly discontinued

51.

Which statement about the antidepressant is not correct?

a)

The drugs have effects that enhance the CNS actions of norepinephrine, serotonin, or both

b)

Patients typically vary in their responsiveness to individual agents

c)

SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors) are effective in patients with neuropathic pain and fibromyalgia

d)

SSRIs have gastrointestinal and sexual adverse effects

52.

Which statement about the drugs for psychoses and bipolar drugs is not correct?

a)

The first generation antipsychotic drugs block brain dopamine receptors (especially D4 receptors)

b)

The second generation antipsychotics drugs have greater affinity for serotonin 5-HT(2) receptors

c)

The first generation antipsychotic drugs have extrapyramidal, tardive dyskinesias, hyperprolactinemia adverse effects

d)

Lithium is effective in the treatment of the manic phase of bipolar disorder

53.

Which disease is Not an X-linked disease?

a)

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

b)

Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy

c)

adrenoleukodystrophy

d)

Type X Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

54.

Which statement about adrenoleukodystrophy is Not true?

a)

Mutations in the ABCD1 gene cause X-linked genetic disorder that occurs primarily in males

b)

mainly affects the nervous system and the adrenal glands

c)

accumulation of VLCFAs triggers an inflammatory response in the brain

d)

Many affected neurons show cytoskeletal disease with accumulations of intermediate filaments in the cell body and in axons

55.

Which statement of Ataxia-telangiectasia is Not true?

a)

Affected individuals tend to have high C-reactive protein in their blood

b)

is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, which means both copies of the ATM gene in each cell have mutations

c)

Affected children typically develop difficulty walking. problems with balance and hand coordination, involuntary jerking movements (chorea), muscle twitches (myoclonus), and disturbances in nerve function (neuropathy)

d)

Affected individuals tend to have high alpha fetal protein in their blood

56.

Which statement of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is Not true

a)

is a group of progressive disorders that affect the central nerves

b)

Type X Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (CMTX): is caused by mutations in a gene on the X chromosome, one of the two sex chromosomes

c)

symptom is foot drop, wasting of muscle tissue of the lower parts of the legs, and High-arched feet

d)

abnormalities in myelin and/or fiber

57.

The causes of Multiple sclerosis (MS)

a)

Autoimmune Disorder • antibodies attack ACh receptors at NMJ

b)

Protrusion of nucleus pulposus

c)

Demyelination of nerves

d)

Decreased dopamine

58.

Which of the following is not involved in responses of brain injury?

a)

astrogliosis

b)

microgliosis

c)

demyelination

d)

all of above is involved

59.

Which of the following descriptions is wrong?

a)

Cerebral edema is the accumulation of excess fluid within the brain parenchyma

b)

Neural tube defects are associated with failure to close or inappropriate reopening of the developing neural tube

c)

Rapid displacement of the head and brain can tear axons (diffuse axonal injury)

d)

Regional ischemia is the most common type of ischemia stroke

60.

Which of the following description is wrong?

a)

Alzheimer's disease is the most common type of dementia caused by deposition of beta-amyloid

b)

Parkinson's disease induces motor defects that is caused by substantia nigra degeneration

c)

Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease caused by remyelination

d)

SOD gene mutation is involved in ALS pathogenesis

61.

Which of the following is derived from the Basal plate?

a)

olivary nucleus

b)

cuneate nucleus

c)

tectum

d)

tegmentum

62.

Which of the following adult brain structures develops from the metencephalon?

a)

cerebellum

b)

hypothalamus

c)

tectum

d)

Pyramid

63.

Which of the following adult brain structures is not developed from rhombencephalon?

a)

cerebellum

b)

pons

c)

tectum

d)

Pyramid

64.

What is the earliest area appearing of ​​the cerebellum?

a)

paleocerebellum

b)

anterior lobe

c)

posterior lobe

d)

flocculonodular lobe

65.

Which of the following pair of cranial nerves is derived from the prosencephalon?

a)

optic nerve

b)

oculomotor nerve

c)

trigeminal nerve

d)

vestibulocochlear nerve

66.

At the age of 30, a male postal worker reported weakness in his right leg. Within a year the weakness had spread to his entire right side. A neurologic examination revealed flaccid paralysis, muscular atrophy, fasciculations, hypotonia, and hyporeflexia of muscles in the right arm and leg. Sensory and cognitive function tests were normal. Which of the following diagnosis is likely?

a)

cerebral infarct in the region of the corona radiate

b)

vestibulocerebellar tumor

c)

Damage to the basal ganglia

d)

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

67.

Diabetic autonomic neuropathy was diagnosed a few years ago in a 53-year-old woman with diabetes. She recently noted abdominal distension and a feeling of being full after eating only a small portion of food, suggesting the neuropathy had extended to her enteric nervous system to cause gastroparesis. Which of the following statements about the enteric nervous system is correct?

a)

The myenteric plexus is a group of motor neurons located within circular layer of muscle in a portion of the gastrointestinal tract.

b)

The submucosal plexus is a group of sensory neurons located between the circular muscle and the luminal mucosa of the gastrointestinal tract

c)

Neurons comprising the enteric nervous system are located only in the stomach and intestine

d)

The enteric nervous system can function independent of the autonomic innervation to the gastrointestinal tract

68.

Childhood absence epilepsy was diagnosed in a 10-year-old boy. His EEG showed a bilateral synchronous, symmetric 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge. Absence seizures

a)

are a form of nonconvulsive generalized seizures accompanied by momentary loss of consciousness

b)

are a form of complex partial seizures accompanied by momentary loss of consciousness

c)

are a form of nonconvulsive generalized seizures without a loss of consciousness

d)

are a form of simple partial seizures without a loss of consciousness

69.

Which statement of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is Not true?

a)

is a X-linked genetic disorder

b)

abnormally high levels of these short-chain fatty acids in the body

c)

affects the nervous system

d)

affects the adrenal glands

70.

Which statement of Alzheimer disease is Not true?

a)

usually appears in people older than age 65

b)

is a degenerative disease of the muscle

c)

affected individuals usually survive 8 to 10 years after the appearance of symptoms

d)

late-onset Alzheimer disease is probably related to variations in one or more genes in combination with lifestyle and environmental factors and APOE gene

71.

Depolarization of an axon is produced by

a)

inward diffusion of Na+

b)

active extrusion of K+

c)

outward diffusion of K+

d)

inward active transport of Na+

72.

As the strength of a depolarizing stimulus to an axon is increased,

a)

the amplitude of action potentials increases

b)

the duration of action potentials increases

c)

the speed with which action potentials are conducted increases

d)

the frequency with which action potentials are produced increases

73.

The absolute refractory period of a neuron

a)

is due to the high negative polarity of the inside of the neuron

b)

occurs only during the repolarization phase

c)

occurs during the depolarization phase

d)

occurs during depolarization and the first part of the repolarization phase

74.

The conduction of action potentials in a myelinated nerve fiber is

a)

saltatory

b)

without decrement

c)

faster than in an unmyelinated fiber

d)

all of the above

75.

The summation of EPSPs from numerous presynaptic nerve fibers converging onto one postsynaptic neuron is called

a)

spatial summation

b)

long-term potentiation

c)

temporal summation

d)

synaptic plasticity

76.

A drug that inactivates acetylcholinesterase

a)

inhibits the release of ACh from presynatic endings

b)

inhibits the attachment of ACh to its receptor protein

c)

increases the ability of ACh to stimulate muscle contraction

d)

does all of the above

77.

Which of the following statements about the precentral gyrus is true?

a)

It is involved in motor control

b)

It is involved in sensory perception

c)

It is located in the frontal lobe

d)

Both a and c are true

e)

Both b and c are true

78.

Which of the following statements about the basal nuclei is true?

a)

They are located in the cerebrum

b)

They contain the caudate nucleus

c)

They are involved in motor control

d)

They are part of the extrapyramidal system

e)

All of the above

79.

In most people, the right hemisphere controls movement of

a)

The right side od the body primarily

b)

The left side of the body primarily

c)

Both the right and left side of the body equally

d)

The head and neck only

80.

Comprehension poor; speech is fluent but meaningless

a)

damage to Broca's area

b)

damage to Wernicke's area

c)

damage to angular gyrus

d)

damage to precentral gyrus

81.

In the control of emotion and motivation, the limbic system works together with

a)

The pons

b)

The thalamus

c)

The hypothalamus

d)

The cerebellum

e)

The basal nuclei

82.

The consolidation of short-term memory into long-term memory appears to be a function of

a)

the substantia nigra

b)

the hippocampus

c)

the cerebral peduncles

d)

the arcuate fasciculus

e)

the precentral gyrus

83.

Which of the following acts as a relay center for somatesthetic sensation?

a)

The thalamus

b)

The hypothalamus

c)

The red nucleus

d)

The cerebellum

84.

The superior colliculi are twin bodies within the corpora quadrigemina of the midbrain that are involved in

a)

visual reflexes

b)

auditory reflexes

c)

relaying of cutaneous information

d)

release of pituitary hormones

85.

Which of the following does not have organelles?

a)

dendrites

b)

axon

c)

axon hillock

d)

cell body

86.

Nissl body is similar to the following organelles

a)

mitochondria

b)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Golgi body

87.

Myelin sheath is mainly composed of which of the follwing substance?

a)

Lipid

b)

Protein

c)

Glycoprotein

d)

Glycerol

88.

Schmidt-Lanterman clefts are mainly composed of which of the following?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Schwann cells

d)

Astrocyte

89.

Which of the following cells surround the neuronal cell body in the ganglion?

a)

Oligodendrocyte

b)

Satellite cells

c)

Schwann cells

d)

Astrocyte