WorksheetsCC-P9
Total questions: 107
Worksheet time: 54mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
▪ major excretory product of the metabolism of proteins and other nitrogen-containing chemicals
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
2.
– colorimetric, endpoint; non-specific; subject to positive bias due to ascorbic acid, glucose, glutathione, ketoacids, uric acid, cephalosporins
a)
Chemical (Jaffe)
b)
Kinetic
c)
use of adsorbents
3.
Creatinine + alkaline picrate = red-orange tautomer (aka Janovsky complex)
a)
Chemical (Jaffe)
b)
Kinetic
c)
use of adsorbents
4.
formed from creatine, a substance synthesized from methionine, arginine, glycine
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
5.
excreted into plasma at a constant rate proportional to an individual’s muscle mass; not affected by hydration status
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
6.
product of the catabolism of purines in nucleic acids or nucleoproteins
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
7.
▪ relatively insoluble in plasma; can be deposited in the joints and tissues at concentrations >6.8 mg/dL
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
8.
▪ produced from the catabolism of amino acids
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
9.
toxic compound metabolized exclusively in the liver (via the Krebs-Henseleit or urea cycle)
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
10.
removed from the circulation by glomerular filtration; concentration is inversely related to GFR
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
11.
▪ NPN present in highest concentration in the blood; formed in the liver from CO2 and ammonia
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
12.
▪ concentration is expressed in terms of nitrogen content (BUN): urea/2.14
Urea = BUN x 2.14
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
13.
From deamination of amino acids
a)
Biochemistry
b)
Biomimicry
c)
Biostatistics
14.
From bacterial metabolism in the lumen of the intestines
a)
Biochemistry
b)
Biomimicry
c)
Biostatistics
15.
Clinical significance of Ammonia include:
a. severe liver disease - hepatic coma (NH3 is neurotoxic) and Encephalopathy
b. Reye syndrome - aspirin ingestion
c. Neonate urea cycle defect
d. Monitor hyperalimentation therapy
e. Confirm the ability of kidney to produce ammonia
f. Acetaminophen poisoning
a)
True
b)
False
16.
Smoking
a)
False elevation
b)
False decrease (low)
17.
Prolonged specimen
a)
False elevation
b)
False decrease (low)
18.
Hemolyzed sample
a)
False elevation
b)
False decrease (low)
19.
Diphenhydramine
a)
False elevation
b)
False decrease (low)
20.
Lactobacillus acidophilus
a)
False elevation
b)
False decrease (low)
21.
Slows down deamination
a)
Venous blood
b)
Heparin
c)
Ice water
22.
Ammonia specimen centrifuge time
a)
15 mins
b)
20 mins
c)
25 mins
d)
30 mins
23.
Ammonia temp
a)
1 to4 c
b)
0 to 4 c
c)
37 c
24.
Removed during ammonia test processing
a)
serum
b)
plasma
25.
In ammonia testing, plasma is stable for how long in ice bath? (stable for several days when frozen)
a)
2 and 1/2 hr
b)
3 and 1/2 hr
c)
4 and 1/2 hr
26.
NH3 in Microdiffusion chamber -> NH3 gas + solution with pH indicator -> measured using titration
a)
Conway
b)
Potentiometry
c)
Spectrophotometric
d)
Berthelot reaction
e)
Glutamate dehydrogenase
27.
Direct measurement
a)
Conway
b)
Potentiometry
c)
Spectrophotometric
d)
Berthelot reaction
e)
Glutamate dehydrogenase
28.
NH3 + bromophenol blue -> blue color
a)
Conway
b)
Potentiometry
c)
Spectrophotometric
d)
Berthelot reaction
e)
Glutamate dehydrogenase
29.
Most common technique
a)
Conway
b)
Potentiometry
c)
Spectrophotometric
d)
Berthelot reaction
e)
Glutamate dehydrogenase
30.
Tumor markers are NOT useful for diagnosis, but for tumor staging, monitoring therapeutic responses, predicting patient outcomes, and detecting cancer recurrence
a)
True
b)
False
31.
Used for prostate cancer detection
a)
Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
b)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
c)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
d)
CA15-3
32.
Hepatocellular CA, testicular and ovarian teratocarcinomas, pancreatic carcinoma, gastric and colonic carcinomas
a)
Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
b)
AFP
c)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
d)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
e)
CA15-3
33.
Digestive tract and colorectal carcinoma
a)
Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
b)
AFP
c)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
d)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
e)
CA15-3
34.
Increased secretion is associated with trophoblastic tumors, choriocarcinoma, nonseminomatous testicular tumors, and ovarian tumors.
a)
Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
b)
AFP
c)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
d)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
e)
CA15-3
35.
Monitoring and detecting breast cancer
a)
Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
b)
AFP
c)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
d)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
e)
CA15-3
36.
Marker for ovarian and endometrial cancer
a)
CA125
b)
CA19-9
c)
CYFRA
d)
Her2/neu
37.
Pancreatic, colorectal, lung, and gastric carcinomas
a)
CA125
b)
CA19-9
c)
CYFRA
d)
Her2/neu
38.
Lung cancer marker
a)
CA125
b)
CA19-9
c)
CYFRA
d)
Her2/neu
39.
Breast cancer marker
a)
CA125
b)
CA19-9
c)
CYFRA
d)
Her2/neu
40.
older term
a)
Ammonia
b)
Blood urea nitrogen
c)
Creatinine
d)
Creatine
41.
major end product of protein and amino acid
a)
Ammonia
b)
Blood urea nitrogen
c)
Creatinine
d)
Creatine
42.
has nitrogen but doesn't have proteins
a)
Ammonia
b)
Blood urea nitrogen
c)
Creatinine
d)
Creatine
43.
uses end point jaffe method before and after it is heat in acid solution
a)
Ammonia
b)
Blood urea nitrogen
c)
Creatinine
d)
Creatine
44.
clinical significance include muscular dystrophy, poliomyelitis, hyperthyroidism, trauma, and remember!!! it is NOT ELEVATED IN RENAL DISEASE
a)
Ammonia
b)
Blood urea nitrogen
c)
Creatinine
d)
Creatine
45.
Chronic renal disease
a)
Increased BUN
b)
Decreased BUN
46.
Burns
a)
Increased BUN
b)
Decreased BUN
47.
Dehydration
a)
Increased BUN
b)
Decreased BUN
48.
Poor nutrition
a)
Increased BUN
b)
Decreased BUN
49.
Celiac disease
a)
Increased BUN
b)
Decreased BUN
50.
Repeated dialysis
a)
Increased BUN
b)
Decreased BUN
51.
Acute tubular necrosis
a)
Increased BUN
b)
Decreased BUN
52.
most frequently used
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
53.
alkaline picrate
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
54.
alkaline picrate = SATURATED picric acid and 10% NaOH
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
55.
creatinine + picric acid (alkaline solution) yields red-orange color
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
56.
interferences AGAPA
acetoacetate
glucose
acetone
pyruvate
ascorbate
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
57.
More accurate and specific
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
58.
Includes Fuller's earth = aluminum magnesium silicate, LLoyd's reagent = sodium aluminum silicate; TIME CONSUMING AND NOT READILY AUTOMATED
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
59.
TIME CONSUMING AND NOT READILY AUTOMATED
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
60.
Requires automated equipment for precision
popular inexpensive rapid and easy to perform
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
61.
Requires automated equipment for precision
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
62.
Isotope dilution mass spectrometry is the reference method for NPNs
a)
True
b)
False
63.
popular inexpensive rapid and easy to perform
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
64.
specific than jaffe test
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
65.
Fuller's earth
a)
Sodium aluminum silicate
b)
Aluminum magnesium silicate
66.
Lloyd's reagent
a)
Sodium aluminum silicate
b)
Aluminum magnesium silicate
67.
Elevated level of urea and creatinine
a)
Azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
68.
Azotemia with renal damage
a)
Azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
69.
Azotemia with renal damage
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
70.
Dehydration
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
71.
Shock
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
72.
Congestive heart failure
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
73.
Diet
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
74.
Stress
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
75.
Fever
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
76.
Corticosteroid
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
77.
Acute chronic renal disease
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
78.
Glomerulonephritis
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
79.
Striking high urea level but slowly rising creatinine value
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
80.
Effects: coma, neuropsychiatric changes, anemia, and electrolyte imbalance
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
81.
Chronic glomerulonephritis = lengthy glomerular inflammation, gradual uremia, loss of function of nephrons
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
82.
stone
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
83.
Cancer or tumor of genitourinary tract
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
84.
severe infection of the bladder
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
85.
acidemia
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
86.
hyperkalemia
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
87.
anemia
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
88.
burr cell or cremated cell
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
89.
ammoniacal odor or breath
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
90.
urine-like sweat
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
91.
In chronic glomerulonephritis, glomerular inflammation is..
a)
Lengthy
b)
Gradual
c)
Nephrons
d)
Neptune
92.
In chronic glomerulonephritis, uremia is..
a)
Lengthy
b)
Gradual
c)
Nephrons
d)
Neptune
93.
In chronic glomerulonephritis, there is loss of function in..
a)
Lengthy
b)
Gradual
c)
Nephrons
d)
Neptune
94.
Dehydration
a)
Pre-renal azotemia; reduced excretion
b)
Increased proteins which leads to increased urea
95.
Shock
a)
Pre-renal azotemia; reduced excretion
b)
Increased proteins which leads to increased urea
96.
Congestive heart failure
a)
Pre-renal azotemia; reduced excretion
b)
Increased proteins which leads to increased urea
97.
Diet
a)
Pre-renal azotemia; reduced excretion
b)
Increased proteins which leads to increased urea
98.
Stress
a)
Pre-renal azotemia; reduced excretion
b)
Increased proteins which leads to increased urea
99.
Fever
a)
Pre-renal azotemia; reduced excretion
b)
Increased proteins which leads to increased urea
100.
Corticosteroid
a)
Pre-renal azotemia; reduced excretion
b)
Increased proteins which leads to increased urea
101.
What is the GFR of a person who has Kidney damage with normal or ↑ GFR
a)
<15 mL/min/1.73 m^2
b)
15 to 29 mL/min/1.73 m^2
c)
30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m^2
d)
60 to 89 mL/min/1.73 m^2
e)
>= 90 mL/min/1.73 m^2
102.
What is the GFR of a person who has Moderate ↓ GFR
a)
<15 mL/min/1.73 m^2
b)
15 to 29 mL/min/1.73 m^2
c)
30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m^2
d)
60 to 89 mL/min/1.73 m^2
e)
>= 90 mL/min/1.73 m^2
103.
What is the GFR of a person who has stage 5 kidney failure?
a)
<15 mL/min/1.73 m^2
b)
15 to 29 mL/min/1.73 m^2
c)
30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m^2
d)
60 to 89 mL/min/1.73 m^2
e)
>= 90 mL/min/1.73 m^2
104.
Chronic nephritis, alcoholism, gout, leukemia, chemotherapy, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
a)
Hyperuricemia
b)
Hypouricemia
105.
: Fanconi syndrome, severe liver disease, purine inhibitors, allopurinol
a)
Hyperuricemia
b)
Hypouricemia
106.
What is the GFR of a person who has Severe ↓ GFR
a)
<15 mL/min/1.73 m^2
b)
15 to 29 mL/min/1.73 m^2
c)
30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m^2
d)
60 to 89 mL/min/1.73 m^2
e)
>= 90 mL/min/1.73 m^2
107.
What is the GFR of a person who has Kidney damage with normal or ↓ GFR
a)
<15 mL/min/1.73 m^2
b)
15 to 29 mL/min/1.73 m^2
c)
30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m^2
d)
60 to 89 mL/min/1.73 m^2
e)
>= 90 mL/min/1.73 m^2
100 %
