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Psychology Unit 1 (except 1.6)

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system results in which of the following?

a)

An increase in pupil dilation

b)

An increase in respiratory rate

c)

A decrease in digestion

d)

A decrease in heart rate

2.

The argument over the relative contributions of heredity and environment in the development of various behaviors and personality traits is known as which of the following controversies?

a)

Continuous versus discrete

b)

Nature versus nurture

c)

Active versus passive

d)

Critical period versus sensitive period

3.

The division of the nervous system that most directly allows voluntary muscle movement is the

(a)  

4.

Joel’s pupils become dilated, his digestion is reduced, and his skin becomes cold. Which system is controlling his bodily changes?

a)

Parasympathetic

b)

Sympathetic

c)

Somatic

d)

Endocrine

5.

A psychologist is writing a textbook chapter on the interaction of nature and nurture on human behavior. Which of the following examples should she include to emphasize the role that nurture plays on behavior?

a)

Pari’s parents read to her in infancy, so she easily and quickly learns to read when she starts school at age five.

b)

Sammi is six inches taller than his parents and siblings in his adoptive family.  

c)

Linda is a supertaster and intensely experiences the bitterness in certain foods. 

d)

Rosie has dichromatism and has difficulty distinguishing between red and green.

6.

Kara thinks she sees a spider on the floor of her bathroom. She is extremely afraid of spiders. Which of the following nervous systems would be responsible for her fearful reaction to the spider?

a)

Somatic nervous system

b)

Parasympathetic nervous system

c)

Sympathetic nervous system

d)

Central nervous system

7.

Select

a)

Reticular activating system

b)

Somatic nervous system

c)

Parasympathetic nervous system

d)

Sympathetic nervous system

8.

Select

a)

Breaking down food to process into energy

b)

Sending and receiving sensory and motor signals

c)

Receiving chemical signals from the outside world

d)

Secreting hormones that regulate body temperature

9.

Activation of the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system results in

a)

an increase in salivation

b)

an increase in digestion

c)

an increase in respiratory rate

d)

a decrease in heart rate

10.

Which of the following is the best evidence that environment plays a role in intelligence?

a)

Identical twins reared together are more similar than identical twins reared apart.

b)

Identical twins reared apart are more similar than fraternal twins reared together.

c)

Fraternal twins reared together are more similar than unrelated individuals reared together.

d)

Unrelated individuals reared together are less similar than siblings reared together.

11.

Kara thinks she sees a spider on the floor of her bathroom. She is extremely afraid of spiders. Upon further inspection, though, she realizes the “spider” is only a ball of hair. Which of the following nervous systems would be responsible for calming her down after she realizes the ball of hair is not a spider?

a)

Somatic nervous system

b)

Parasympathetic nervous system

c)

Sympathetic nervous system

d)

Central nervous system

12.

Nervousness can result in faster and more shallow breathing as well as a racing heart. This is due to activation of the

a)

somatic nervous system

b)

parasympathetic nervous system

c)

sympathetic nervous system

d)

corpus callosum

13.

The nature-nurture issue is best exemplified by which of the following questions?

a)

Is perception accomplished by passive detection of images in the environment or by active detection of information?

b)

Is language acquisition fairly complete by the early school years, or are most linguistic forms mastered only in adolescence?

c)

Is gender identity most influenced by parental upbringing or by interaction with same-sex peers?

d)

Is level of intelligence the result of one’s environment and specific learning, or is it a result of biological maturation?

14.

Which of the following research findings supports a strong biological basis for behavior?

a)

Presenting a loud sound just before presenting a neutral stimulus eventually produces fear of the neutral stimulus.

b)

Including misinformation in a question about an event decreases the accuracy of memory for the event.

c)

Observing an aggressive model leads to aggressive behavior by the observer.

d)

Identical twins who are reared apart have similar levels of intelligence.

15.

In their discussions of the process of development, the advocates of nature in the nature-nurture controversy emphasize which of the following?

a)

Socialization

b)

Cognition

c)

Maturation

d)

Experience

16.

The autonomic nervous system is most directly involved in

a)

driving a car

b)

sensing painful stimuli

c)

digesting food

d)

experiencing pain

17.

Johnny often hits his brother even though his brother does not do anything to antagonize him. Johnny’s aggression is most likely due to a combination of which of the following factors?

a)

his genetic makeup, the fact that aggression can be evolutionarily adaptive, and a lack of neuroplasticity

b)

the environment he grew up in, developmental delays, and the fact that aggression can be evolutionarily adaptive

c)

his genetic makeup, developmental delays, and a lack of neuroplasticity

d)

his genetic makeup, the environment he grew up in, and the fact that aggression can be evolutionarily adaptive

18.

Mrs. Downing is 80 years old and lives in an assisted living facility. She often stops speaking in the middle of sentences because she can't remember the topic being discussed. She also tries on most days to leave the facility so she can get home to cook dinner for her family. The depletion of which of the following neurotransmitters is most closely associated with the symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease that Mrs. Downing is likely experiencing?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

d)

Norepinephrine

19.

Betty was just diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which of the following effects is she most likely to experience?

a)

The neurons in her body will not be able to reach threshold, leading to fatigue.

b)

Depolarization in her neurons will not occur, causing sensory impairment

c)

Neurotransmitters will remain in the synapse for an extended period, causing memory loss.

d)

Neural messages will travel slowly down the axon, leading to motor impairment.

20.

Which of the following is true of a neuron in the resting state?

a)

The inside of the cell membrane is negative compared to the outside.

b)

The outside of the cell membrane is negative compared to the inside.

c)

The charge of the neuron is equal inside and outside of the cell membrane. 

d)

The neuron is not polarized.

21.

A neuron receives an excitatory neurotransmitter and fires an action potential. Which of the following is the correct term for the time shortly after a neuron fires and before it fires again?

a)

the refractory period

b)

the reticular formation

c)

depolarization

d)

the neurotransmitter

22.

When excitatory neurotransmitters stimulate a single neuron, the neuron

a)

becomes more likely to produce an action potential

b)

becomes less likely to produce an action potential

c)

produces a stronger action potential

d)

becomes more polarized

23.

-out of 14 pairs of the fraternal twins were diagnosed with anorexia nervosa.

a)

Cognitive

b)

Psychodynamic

c)

Humanistic

d)

Biological

24.

Dopamine, norepinephrine, and acetylcholine are all

a)

hormones excreted by the endocrine glands

b)

secretions of the exocrine glands

c)

drugs used in the therapeutic treatment of memory disorders

d)

neurotransmitters that excite or inhibit a neural signal across a synapse

25.

Which of the following characteristics is generally associated with the use of hallucinogens?

a)

The experience of vivid, distorted images that are not based on sensory input

b)

Decreased pain sensation and decreased anxiety

c)

Slower bodily functions

d)

The experience of brief euphoria followed by a depressive state

26.

Mr. Berndt is teaching his AP Psychology class about the nervous system. Which of the following statements would best help students accurately differentiate between the primary roles of glial cells and neurons?

a)

Glial cells release chemicals known as neurotransmitters into the synapses, while neurons provide structural support. 

b)

Glial cells provide support, insulation, and waste removal functions for neurons, while neurons create and transmit electrical impulses between cells.

c)

Glial cells and neurons are both involved in processing sensory information, while primarily glial cells receive and process sensory input from the external environment.

d)

Glial cells are found in both the peripheral and central nervous systems, while neurons are only found in the central nervous system

27.

Johanna, a high school senior, starts experiencing disruptions in her movement when she cannot contract certain muscles. Which of the following neurotransmitters is most likely involved in this disruption of the muscle contraction?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

GABA

c)

Serotonin

d)

Endorphins

28.

Holly was injured in a car accident. Her doctor prescribed a medication that increases the action of endorphins to decrease pain. Which of the following statements best describes this medication?

a)

It functions as an agonist.

b)

It produces aphasia.

c)

It accelerates sensory interaction.

d)

It acts as an antagonist.

29.

The drugs that block the reabsorption of neurotransmitters in the synapse during neural transmission are best identified as which of the following concepts?

a)

reuptake inhibitors

b)

antipsychotics

c)

antihistamines

d)

stimulants

30.

Jeremy stubbed his toe when he was getting some water in the middle of the night. Within a few minutes, the pain in his toe began to ease. The painkilling substances produced by the brain are known as which of the following?

a)

acetylcholines

b)

endorphins

c)

leptins

d)

adrenalines

31.

Reuptake of a neurotransmitter refers to

a)

absorption of the neurotransmitter into the dendrites of the receiving neuron

b)

absorption of the neurotransmitter into the terminal buttons of the sending neuron

c)

release of the neurotransmitter by the soma of the originating neuron

d)

the rate at which a neurotransmitter is created for use by a neuron

32.

Which psychological principle is represented in the area highlighted in the graph?

a)

The variable-interval schedule of reinforcement.

b)

The forgetting curve.

c)

The refractory period of the neural transmission process.

d)

Spontaneous recovery of a classically conditioned response

33.

The graph depicts which of the following?

a)

Long-term potentiation

b)

Brain plasticity

c)

The sleep/wake cycle

d)

The process of neural transmission

34.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the reflex arc of events set in motion by an environmental stimulus?

a)

Receptors, sensory neurons, interneurons, motor neurons

b)

Receptors, motor neurons, interneurons, sensory neurons

c)

Interneurons, receptors, sensory neurons, motor neurons

d)

Receptors, sensory neurons, motor neurons, interneurons

35.

Curare blocks action at acetylcholine synapses and causes paralysis. This drug is an example of an

a)

antagonist

b)

agonist

c)

inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)

d)

excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)

36.

As part of her review for a test, Adley is labeling a diagram that illustrates how neurons communicate. Which of the following labels should she apply just before the generation of an action potential?

a)

Threshold

b)

Refractory period

c)

Resting potential

d)

Reuptake

37.

Label the following

4 lines
38.

A person with damage to Broca's area would most likely demonstrate which of the following symptoms?

a)

Forgetfulness

b)

Hearing difficulties

c)

Difficulty controlling balance and coordination

d)

Difficulty with speech production

39.

When people consume large amounts of alcohol, they are often unable to recall what they did and said while they were drinking. This occurs because alcohol interferes with the brain’s ability to form new memories in the

(a)  

40.

Researchers presented a picture of four stimuli to a group of college students and measured their heart rate by counting how many beats occurred in one minute. Which of the following brain structures would be most responsible for the emotional reaction as measured by heart rate after seeing the spider and the snake?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Amygdala

d)

Hippocampus

41.

Beth received a surgery in which half of her cortex was removed to treat a seizure disorder when she was two years old. However, by the time she was five years old, her cognitive abilities were the same as those of a neurotypical five year old. Which of the following best explains her abilities?

a)

Reuptake

b)

Dual processing

c)

Accommodation

d)

Brain plasticity

42.

The brain’s ability to adapt after it is damaged is known as

a)

integration

b)

plasticity

c)

polarization

d)

lateralization

43.

In terms of the effect on the central nervous system, alcohol is most accurately classified as which of the following types of drug?

a)

Depressant

b)

Narcotic

c)

Psychoactive

d)

Stimulant

44.

A certain drug reduces the activity of the central nervous system, including the hippocampus and cerebellum. It affects several neurotransmitters, most notably gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA). Which of the following is most like the drug in question ?

a)

Methamphetamine

b)

Cocaine

c)

Alcohol

d)

MDMA (Ecstasy)

45.

The neurotransmitter that is primarily associated with the feeling of wanting something is

(a)  

46.

Information is relayed to the spinal cord or the brain by which of the following?

a)

sensory neurons

b)

dopamine neurons

c)

refractory neurons

d)

motor neurons

47.

Which of the following is a disease in which the immune system attacks the insulated covering of neurons in the central nervous system?

a)

Alzheimer's disease

b)

Multiple sclerosis

c)

Schizophrenia

d)

Epilepsy

48.

Damage to Wernicke’s area is most likely to be associated with difficulty in

a)

hearing

b)

seeing

c)

understanding language

d)

moving arms and legs

49.

Damage to which of the following brain structures may cause the inability to detect the emotional significance of facial expressions, especially those demonstrating fear?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Thalamus

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Amygdala

50.

Xi Bai was injured in a car accident and sustained damage to the cerebellum. Which of the following would Xi Bai anticipate to be disrupted by this injury? 

a)

forming explicit and spatial memories

b)

judgment, higher-order cognition, and personality

c)

sensory processing and relaying

d)

motor learning

51.

Ted is hiking along a mountain trail when he sees a large snake slithering across the path ahead of him. Which of the following brain structures is most closely associated with Ted’s fear response?

a)

Medulla

b)

Occipital lobe

c)

Hippocampus

d)

Amygdala

52.

Which of the following is the lobe most likely represented by the activity in “Lobe C”?

a)

Frontal Lobe

b)

Parietal Lobe

c)

Occipital Lobe

d)

Temporal Lobe

53.

Which of the following best describes a major role of the thalamus?

a)

It regulates body temperature.

b)

It regulates hunger.

c)

It regulates the autonomic nervous system.

d)

It relays most sensory signals to the cortex.

54.

Some psychoactive drugs increase neurotransmitter availability along the reward center pathway by trapping neurotransmitters in the synapse, the gap between neurons. This process creates a sense of well-being. Which of the following processes is most likely occurring?

a)

The drug acts as a reuptake inhibitor.

b)

The drug acts as an antagonist.

c)

The drug no longer works effectively because the body has developed a tolerance to it.

d)

The drug only works because of the placebo effect.

55.

Which of the following is a testable hypothesis using operational definitions about people who have undergone split-brain surgery to help control severe epilepsy?

a)

Split-brain patients will not be able to name an object placed in their left visual field.

b)

Split-brain patients will no longer appreciate art following the surgery.

c)

Split-brain patients will have very vivid dreams following the surgery.

d)

Split-brain patients will be more amused by jokes following the surgery.

56.

Which of the following is true of the reticular activating system?

a)

It is the major system in the brain for controlling emotions.

b)

It functions primarily in the control of motor responses.

c)

It regulates levels of arousal.

d)

It controls the uptake of pituitary hormones.

57.

An individual was admitted to the hospital after experiencing a mild tingling on the right side of the face and a sudden inability to speak. Using magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), a doctor would likely find which of the following?

a)

An abnormality in the brain tissue of the left hemisphere

b)

An increase in brain activity in the left frontal lobe

c)

An abnormal growth in the right frontal lobe

d)

A pattern of red and yellow highlighting activity in Broca’s area

58.

An image projected to the left visual field of a split-brained person will be processed in the

a)

left visual cortex

b)

right visual cortex

c)

right side of the left retina

d)

left side of the right retina

59.

Brain damage that leaves a person capable of understanding speech but with an impaired ability to produce speech most likely indicates injury to which of the following?

a)

The limbic system 

b)

Wernicke’s area

c)

Broca’s area

d)

The occipital lobe

60.

The thalamus processes information for all of the following senses EXCEPT

a)

smell

b)

taste

c)

vision

d)

touch

61.

Darnell is trying to decide which college to attend. Which of the following parts of the brain is most active in decision-making?

a)

Reticular formation

b)

Corpus callosum

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Cerebral cortex

62.

A participant in a study of music perception listens to music with electrodes attached to her scalp while data are collected on the activity of her brain. This technique is called

a)

electroencephalography (EEG)

b)

computed tomography (CT)

c)

positron-emission tomography (PET)

d)

functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

63.

A research team lesioned the lateral hypothalamus of a rat and then monitored the rat’s activity when it recovered from the surgery. Their hypothesis is likely to be that the rat would do which of the following?

a)

Experience impaired short-term memory in learning a maze

b)

Form extreme fear responses to nonthreatening stimuli

c)

Show reduced eating behavior

d)

Display increased sociability toward other rats

64.

When a person is suffering from severe pain, the type of drug that will best help alleviate that pain is

a)

an opiate

b)

an amphetamine

c)

a depressant

d)

a stimulant

65.

The result of the evolutionary process that preserves traits that enhance the adaptation of an organism and suppresses traits that do not is called which of the following?

a)

Habituation

b)

Accommodation

c)

Natural selection

d)

Eugenics

66.

Researchers measured changes in neural firing in the frontal lobes for ten rats that were exposed to stimulants. The researchers used an MRI that indicates brain activity with colors. Normal brain activity is indicated by greens and yellows. High brain activity is indicated by reds and oranges. Low brain activity is indicated by grays and blues. All the rat’s brains showed normal activity prior to being exposed to the stimulant. What type of study was being conducted by the researcher?

a)

Correlational

b)

Experiment

c)

Case

d)

Longitudinal

67.

Researchers measured changes in neural firing in the frontal lobes for ten rats that were exposed to stimulants. The researchers used an MRI that indicates brain activity with colors. Normal brain activity is indicated by greens and yellows. High brain activity is indicated by reds and oranges. Low brain activity is indicated by grays and blues. All the rat’s brains showed normal activity prior to being exposed to the stimulant. What is the operational definition of neural activity in the rats?

a)

The amount of stimulant given to each rat.

b)

Random selection of the rats from a large population to be part of the stimulant group.

c)

The color presented in the MRI images.

d)

The size of the rats’ frontal lobes.

68.

Banya is taking an AP Psychology class where his teacher gives short quizzes for each unit. During the unit on biological bases of behavior, Banya earned the following quiz scores: 2, 3, 17, 10, 2, 3, 8, 2, 7. What’s the mode?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

6

d)

17

69.

Mary participates in an exercise program because she experiences an increase in energy and feelings of well-being at the end of each exercise session. The best explanation for Mary’s perseverance in the program is that exercise

a)

reduces her level of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

b)

reduces her level of acetylcholine

c)

reduces her level of glutamate

d)

increases her level of endorphins

70.

Pierce had surgery and was prescribed a painkiller that mimicked endorphins in his body. He experienced some intense, uncomfortable pain for a day or two after he was finished taking his medicine as prescribed. Pierce's painful experience associated with termination of the use of an addictive substance is known as which of the following?

a)

discontinuance

b)

tolerance

c)

withdrawal

d)

forced independence

71.

  1. During which stage of sleep does the deepest sleep occur?

a)

NREM 1

b)

NREM 2

c)

NREM 3

d)

REM

72.

  1. What happens during REM sleep?

a)

  1. Heart rate and breathing slow down greatly

b)

  1. Brain activity becomes very low

c)

  1. Rapid eye movement and vivid dreaming occur

d)

  1. Muscles are highly active and moving

73.

  1. A full sleep cycle in adults usually lasts about:

a)

20mins

b)

90mins

c)

3hrs

d)

5hrs

74.

  1. Which theory states that sleep helps repair and rejuvenate the body?

a)

  1. Memory consolidation theory

b)

  1. Restoration theory

c)

  1. Activation-synthesis theory

d)

  1. Energy conservation theory

75.

  1. Memory consolidation theory suggests that sleep helps:

a)

  1. Heal muscles

b)

  1. Remove toxins from the brain

c)

  1. Process and store new information

d)

  1. Release unconscious desires

76.

  1. What does the energy conservation theory say about sleep?

a)

  1. Sleep stores memories

b)

  1. Sleep saves and reduces energy use

c)

  1. Sleep expresses hidden wishes

d)

  1. Sleep repairs body tissues

77.

  1. According to Freud, dreams are mainly about:

a)

  1. Random neuron firing

b)

  1. Problems with breathing during sleep

c)

  1. Unconscious desires and wishes

d)

  1. The body conserving energy

78.

  1. Activation-synthesis theory claims that dreams are:

a)

  1. The brain trying to make sense of random neural activity

b)

  1. Messages from the unconscious mind

c)

  1. Body restoration signals

d)

  1. The brain rehearsing memories on purpose

79.

  1. Which disorder is characterized by difficulty falling or staying asleep?

a)

Insomnia

b)

Narcolepsy

c)

RBD

d)

Sleepwalking

80.

  1. A person suddenly falls asleep during the day and may lose muscle control. This is:

a)

Sleep apnea

b)

Narcolepsy

c)

Somnabulism

d)

Insomnia

81.

  1. What happens in sleep apnea?

a)

  1. The person acts out their dreams

b)

  1. Breathing repeatedly stops during sleep

c)

The person walks around while asleep

d)

  1. The person dreams excessively

82.

  1. In REM Behavior Disorder (RBD), a person:

a)

  1. Sleeps too much

b)

  1. Stops breathing during sleep

c)

  1. Acts out dreams due to lack of muscle paralysis

d)

  1. Falls asleep suddenly

83.

  1. Somnambulism refers to:

a)

  1. Sleepwalking during deep sleep

b)

  1. Sudden daytime sleep attacks

c)

  1. Difficulty breathing at night

d)

  1. Acting out dreams in REM