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MBBS Multiple Choice Questions – Extraction

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Characteristics of fungi would include

a)

Heterotrophism

b)

Autotrophism

c)

Mostly pathogenic

d)

Possess chlorophyll

2.

Arthroconidia is typical to?

a)

Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

b)

Candida albicans

c)

E. coli

d)

Coccidioides immitis

3.

The histologic review of a biopsy of a bone of a migrant from Guatemala revealed a broad-based yeast. What is the likely pathogen?

a)

Blastomyces dermatitidis

b)

Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

c)

Candida albicans

d)

Coccidioides immitis

4.

A rusty red-currant jelly sputum from an alcoholic 42-year-old woman would suggest which of the pathogens

a)

E. coli

b)

Klebsiella pneumoniae

c)

Aspergillus spp.

d)

None of the above

5.

A 3-year-old with patchy fungating mass on the head. Which of the following conditions could be entertained except?

a)

Tinea capitis

b)

Favus

c)

Kerion

d)

Scutula

6.

Which of the following can be matched accordingly?

a)

Soft chancre — Candida albicans

b)

Hard chancre — Haemophilus ducreyi

c)

Tertiary syphilis — condyloma acuminata

d)

Latent syphilis — VDRL positive

7.

The following drugs are useful against MDR-TB in a 55-year-old female commercial sex worker

a)

Bedaquiline

b)

Ciprofloxacin

c)

Kanamycin

d)

Rifampicin

8.

The infection prevention protocol useful for MDR-TB in a 24-year-old school teacher would include

a)

Source isolation

b)

Protective isolation

c)

Bimodal isolation

d)

None of the above

9.

Mrs I. Z is an emigrant from Iran and presents with vitiligo-like skin infection. However, the Medical Microbiologist suspects a spirochaetal disease. What is the possible disease condition?

a)

Yaws

b)

Bejel

c)

Pinta

d)

Syphilis

10.

The most notable event of an invasive fungal infection is?

a)

Tissue damage and absence in sterile body site

b)

Presence in normally sterile site only

c)

Tissue damage only

d)

None of the above

11.

Serological identification of Candida spp. can include

a)

C-reactive protein

b)

Presepsin

c)

Mannan

d)

Procalcitonin

12.

Sepsis management would involve the following except:

a)

Oxygen administration

b)

Source control of infection

c)

Intravenous fluid administration

d)

Use of empiric enteral antibiotics

13.

A typical clinical picture of cryptococcal meningitis will be

a)

Headaches in 80% of cases

b)

Meningism in 50% of cases

c)

Headache, meningism and low mentation in 60–80% of cases

d)

Low mentation and headaches in 100% of cases

14.

The signal amplification method will include all except

a)

Use of nucleic acid probes

b)

Use of hybrid capture

c)

Fluorescent in-situ hybridization

d)

None of the above

15.

The known phases of pathology of Strongyloides stercoralis will include all but

a)

Skin

b)

Intestine

c)

Lungs

d)

Eyes

16.

Systemic mycoses can infect through the following routes

a)

Skin

b)

Eye

c)

Mucous membrane

d)

Visceral

17.

Pre-extensive drug resistant tuberculosis shall be defined as

a)

Resistance to isoniazid, rifampicin and moxifloxacin

b)

Resistance to isoniazid, kanamycin and moxifloxacin

c)

Resistance to isoniazid, rifampicin and rifampentine

d)

Resistance to isoniazid, rifampicin and linezolid

18.

Lyme’s disease can affect the nervous system to cause

a)

Encephalitis

b)

Neuroborreliosis

c)

Meningitis

d)

Subdural haematoma

19.

Enzymes responsible for anaerobiosis can include

a)

Catalase

b)

Dehydrogenase

c)

Elastase

d)

Collagenase

20.

A 3-year-old boy presenting with golden crust over the lower lips with a reddened slapped cheek. The following would be considered as the causation

a)

Staphylococcal skin infection

b)

Streptococcal lip infection

c)

Endotoxaemia

d)

Exotaemia

21.

The following organism cannot cause human infections

a)

Viroids

b)

Bacteria

c)

Helminthes

d)

Viruses

22.

This is not true about Viruses

a)

Made up of DNA and RNA

b)

Made up of DNA genome only

c)

Made up of RNA genome only

d)

Surrounded by a protein coat

23.

Resolving power of a microscope is

a)

To magnify images

b)

To view images

c)

To resolve objects

d)

To distinguish two closely spaced objects as separate

24.

Medically important bacteria that can be seen by Gram stain

a)

E. coli

b)

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

c)

M. tuberculosis

d)

Treponemapallidum

25.

The following an example of passive form of immunity

a)

Tetanus toxoid injection

b)

Anti-tetanus serum injection

c)

Ingestion of oral polio vaccine

d)

Family planning injection

26.

Components of adaptive immunity except

a)

Found only in jawed vertebrates

b)

Cell Mediated immunity

c)

Humoral immunity

d)

Gut E. coli

27.

The following is true of cultural characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus

a)

It is a strict anaerobe

b)

It is a strict aerobe

c)

It grows readily on simple media

d)

It does not tolerate PH of 7.4

28.

Toxin produced by staphylococcus aureus

a)

Nucleases

b)

Lipases

c)

Proteases

d)

Toxic shock syndrome toxin

29.

One of the following disease will not manifest with difficulty in swallowing

a)

Tetanus

b)

Pharyngitis

c)

Diphtheria

d)

Gastritis

30.

Complications of chlamydia genital infection does not include

a)

Higher risk of ectopic pregnancy

b)

Chronic abdominal pain

c)

Cervical cancers

d)

Sterility

31.

Diagnosis of chlamydial infections include the following except

a)

Detection of extra cytoplasmic inclusion bodies

b)

Geimsa stain

c)

Cell culture

d)

Antigen detection using ELISA

32.

The following is a diphtheroid

a)

Corynebacterium diphtheria

b)

C. gravis

c)

Non-diphtherial Corynebacteria

d)

C. mitis

33.

These are species of plasmodium except

a)

P pivax

b)

P ovale

c)

P malariae

d)

P malizeaser

34.

An individual infected with malaria parasite through blood transfusion does not have in his body

a)

Hypnozoite

b)

Trophozoite

c)

Schizont

d)

Gametocyte

35.

Causes cerebral malaria in children

a)

Plasmodium falciparum

b)

Plasmodium ovale

c)

Plasmodium malariae

d)

Plasmodium vivax

36.

The following is true of prion diseases except

a)

Prions are infectious proteinaceous material

b)

Scrapie is a prion disease of sheep

c)

Scrapie results from degeneration of the CNS

d)

Prion protein only has RNA but no DNA

37.

The following are prion diseases primary to humans except

a)

Kuru

b)

Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD)

c)

Gerstmann–Straussler–Scheinker syndrome (GSS)

d)

Scrapie

38.

HBV post‑vaccination screening test is

a)

HBsAg

b)

HBsAb

c)

HBcAb

d)

HBeAb

39.

The following is not true of bulbar poliomyelitis

a)

Associated with high mortality

b)

1st and 2nd cranial nerves are involved

c)

Paralysis is usually flaccid

d)

Can coexist with spinal paralysis

40.

Naked virus

a)

Include herpesviruses, adenoviruses, picornaviruses and hepadnaviruses

b)

Enveloped surrounding the virus is viral encoded

c)

Usually possess surface glycoprotein which are antigenic

d)

The surface layer is made up of protein

41.

True of Hepatitis B virus except

a)

Member of Hepadnaviridae family

b)

Small, hepatotropic DNA virus that infects only humans in nature

c)

The viral infection can be acute and self‑limited

d)

Extra‑hepatic manifestations is a cell‑mediated immune response

42.

The following is true

a)

Infection with HBV is defined by the presence of HBsAg

b)

About 150 million Hepatitis B virus chronic infections occur globally

c)

Hepatitis B virus belongs to the same family as Epstein–Barr virus

d)

Hepatitis D virus is a DNA virus

43.

One of the following pairs are synonymous

a)

Measles and fifth’s disease

b)

Rubeolla and rubella

c)

Chicken pox and zoster

d)

Roseola infantum and exanthema subitum

44.

The following except one is true of measles

a)

Paramyxoviridae

b)

Morbilli

c)

Inactivated vaccine

d)

Ribavirin

45.

True of chicken pox except

a)

Caused by varicella‑zoster virus

b)

Is highly contagious

c)

Can be best treated with acyclovir after 48 hours of onset of rashes

d)

Lesion is extremely pruritic

46.

Endotoxins are

a)

Toxoidable

b)

Typical of all pathogenic bacteria

c)

Strongly antigenic

d)

Somewhat antigenic

47.

Not true of pathogenic bacteria

a)

Adhesive forces could be nonspecific

b)

Lysogenicity is a common feature

c)

Host cell induced invasiveness is possible

d)

Antigenic heterogeneity is a phenomenon

48.

Most conserved genetic element of bacterial cells

a)

16S rRNA

b)

Plasmid

c)

Episome

d)

Gene

49.

Pathological bases of lipids in the mycobacterial cell except

a)

Granuloma formation

b)

Acid‑fastness

c)

Resistance

d)

Peptidoglycan

50.

ZN stain positive except

a)

Mycobacterium bovis

b)

Streptomyces sp

c)

Nocardia spp.

d)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

51.

Causative agent of Madura foot

a)

Streptomycetes

b)

Actinomycetes

c)

Peptostreptococcus

d)

Acinetomycetes

52.

Differentiating criteria of Moraxellae from Neisseriae except

a)

DNA base composition

b)

Fatty acid composition

c)

Inability to produce acid from carbohydrates

d)

Haemolysis on blood agar

53.

Antigenic and virulence factor not relevant for Neisseria meningitidis infection

a)

Capsule

b)

Outer membrane proteins

c)

Lipooligosaccharides

d)

Cell wall proteins I and II

54.

Definitive of Neisseria gonorrhoeae urethritis diagnosis

a)

Positive Gram‑negative stain

b)

Positive Gram‑negative diplococci stain

c)

Positive Gram‑negative intracellular biconcave diplococci stain

d)

Positive Gram‑negative extracellular biconcave diplococci stain

55.

Descriptive of the meningitides belt of Africa

a)

Latitudes 4° N to 16° N

b)

Latitudes 4° S to 16° S

c)

Latitudes 4° E to 16° E

d)

Latitudes 4° N to 16° S

56.

Antibiotics stewardship strategy associated with perceived loss of autonomy

a)

Formulary restriction and pre-authorization

b)

Prospective audit with intervention and feedback

c)

Enforcement of antimicrobial order forms use

d)

Streamlining of antimicrobial use

57.

Not correct about both Vibrio cholerae and Helicobacter pylori

a)

Gram negative reaction

b)

Urease production

c)

Motile by flagellation

d)

Oxidase positive

58.

Not true about Pox viruses

a)

Largest known virus

b)

Bricked shape

c)

Non-enveloped

d)

Nearly visible under compound light microscopy

59.

Classic features of adenoviral infections except

a)

Secondary viraemia

b)

Cell mediated and humoral immunity

c)

Latent infection

d)

Transforming infection

60.

Correct about exotoxins secreted by capable Enterobacteriaceae

a)

Polysaccharide in nature

b)

Poor antigenicity

c)

Dose independent effect

d)

Specificity of effects on host cell

61.

Dependoviruses are not

a)

Poxviruses

b)

Defective viruses

c)

Adenoviruses associated

d)

Capable of causing infection in man

62.

Parvovirus B19

a)

Is a positive stranded RNA virus

b)

Notorious for lytic infections

c)

Replicates in the cytoplasm of infected cells

d)

Cause infection with transient low level viraemia

63.

Attributes not unique to poxviruses

a)

Production of more than 100 polypeptide

b)

Replication in the cytoplasm

c)

Naked DNA infectivity

d)

Highly species-specificity

64.

Urethritis pathogen not routinely diagnosed with direct urine microscopy

a)

Chlamydia trachomatis

b)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

c)

Herpes simplex virus II

d)

Trichomonas vaginalis

65.

Not related to antimicrobial resistance emergence and spread among Enterobacteriaceae

a)

ESBL production

b)

Carbapenemases production

c)

Horizontal genetic element spread by conjugation

d)

Lysosomal enzyme productivity

66.

Which of the following serological test should be performed for the diagnosis of Rickettsia rickettsii from skin biopsy specimen of a rash?

a)

Agglutination test

b)

Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

c)

Indirect immunofluorescence assay

d)

Complement fixation

67.

A 32-year-old woman visited a primary care clinic with complaints of persistent fatigue, weight loss, recurrent fever and night sweats. She also had frequent yeast infection and upper respiratory tract infections. HIV infection is suspected. Which of the following test is the screening test usually done for HIV?

a)

Western blot

b)

VDRL

c)

PCR or viral load

d)

Enzyme immunoassay

68.

The role of human in the life cycle of Yersinia pestis is

a)

Secondary reservoir

b)

Primary transmission vector

c)

Primary host

d)

Accidental intruder in rat flea cycle

69.

Which is correctly matched

a)

Megaoesophagus — T gambiense

b)

Winterbottom sign — T. cruzi

c)

Romania sign — T rhodesiense

d)

Visceromegaly — L. donovani

70.

Man is intermediate host for

a)

Taenia solium

b)

Malaria

c)

Filarial

d)

Guinea worm

71.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the cultural characteristics of Yersinia pestis?

a)

The bacteria can cause pneumonia in humans through airborne droplets

b)

The suitable bacterial growth temperature is room temperature using MacConkey agar

c)

The bacteria are lactose positive

d)

The common source of transmission to humans is through rats

72.

All of the statements given below are correct about the possible clinical presentations of Yersinia pseudotuberculosis infection in humans, EXCEPT

a)

Typhoidal-like illness

b)

Mesenteric lymphadenitis

c)

Erythema nodosum

d)

Arthritis

73.

Bacillus anthracis is a medically important spore-forming rod that may cause the disease anthrax in animals and humans. What are the two important virulence factors of the bacteria?

a)

Capsule and enterotoxins

b)

Exotoxins and enterotoxins

c)

Endotoxins and capsule

d)

Capsule and exotoxins

74.

All of the statements given below about the Yersinia enterocolitica is correct, EXCEPT

a)

The bacteria are gram-negative, non-motile

b)

Consist of bipolar staining property

c)

The most common serotypes causing human gastroenteritis is O:1

d)

Transmission to humans may occur via contaminated food and water

75.

Which of the following Rickettsia spp can cause the following symptoms: Fever, flu, and papulovesicular rash similar to varicella infection?

a)

Rickettsia australis

b)

Rickettsia akari

c)

Rickettsia prowazekii

d)

Rickettsia rickettsii

76.

Acute chagas disease is characterised by

a)

Bubo

b)

Megaintestine

c)

Mega oesophagus

d)

Lymphadenopathy

77.

For swine flu to replicate in the host cell it must carry an enzyme for nucleic acid replication. Which enzyme is this?

a)

RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

b)

DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

c)

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

d)

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

78.

All of the following statements regarding Trichomoniasis are true, Except

a)

It is a sexually transmitted disease

b)

Found to be more common in women than in men

c)

The drug for treatment is mebendazole.

d)

A common protozoal infection in the USA

79.

Biological false reaction in VDRL is related to

a)

Lepra bacilli

b)

Corynebacterium diphtheria

c)

Cl.welchi

d)

None of these

80.

Diphtheria toxins are produced from the strains of C.diphtheriae, which are

a)

Encapsulated

b)

Lysogenic for β prophase

c)

Glucose fermenters

d)

Sucrose fermenters