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Unit 4 AP Exam

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which structure is primarily responsible for gas exchange in the lungs?

a)

Trachea

b)

Bronchi

c)

Alveoli

d)

Diaphragm

2.

Which event occurs during inspiration?

a)

Diaphragm relaxes and moves upward

b)

Thoracic cavity volume decreases

c)

Air pressure inside lungs increases

d)

Diaphragm contracts and moves downward

3.

What is the primary function of the respiratory system?

a)

Transport of nutrients

b)

Exchange of gases between the body and the environment

c)

Production of digestive enzymes

d)

Pumping blood throughout the body

4.

Which part of the brain controls the rate and depth of breathing?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Medulla oblongata

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Cerebellum

5.

What term describes the maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after a maximal inhalation?

a)

Tidal volume

b)

Residual volume

c)

Vital capacity

d)

Inspiratory reserve volume

6.

What factor most directly affects respiratory capacity?

a)

Eye color

b)

Skin temperature

c)

Physical fitness and lung elasticity

d)

Digestive efficiency

7.

What causes normal breath sounds such as vesicular and bronchial sounds?

a)

Air moving through the respiratory passages

b)

Heart beating near the lungs

c)

Blood flowing through pulmonary veins

d)

Vibrations from the vocal cords

8.

During external respiration, which gas moves from the alveoli into the blood?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Helium

9.

What happens to carbon dioxide during internal respiration?

a)

It binds to hemoglobin only

b)

It diffuses from body cells into the blood plasma

c)

It moves from alveoli to capillaries

d)

It is stored in the lungs

10.

Which factor can increase respiratory rate?

a)

Decreased CO₂ levels in blood

b)

Increased carbon dioxide or hydrogen ion concentration

c)

Low body temperature

d)

Alkaline blood pH

11.
What is the main function of the respiratory system?
a)
to provide oxygen and remove carbon dioxide from the body
b)
to bring oxygen to the body
c)
to break down food and absorb nutrients
d)
to remove oxygen from the body and deliver carbon dioxide
12.

What is the scientific name for the human windpipe?

a)

Trachea

b)

Medulla Oblongata

c)

Adam's Apple

d)

Aorta

13.
The lungs are located within this cavity
a)
pleural
b)
mediastinum
c)
brachial
d)
pelvic
14.
Label D is...
a)
Trachea
b)
Diagphragm
c)
Bronchus
d)
Alveolus
15.
The air sacs that are covered with capillaries that separate gases we need from gases we don't need.
a)
bronchi
b)
lungs
c)
oxygen
d)
alveoli
16.

Which structure serves as the main passageway for air entering the respiratory system?

a)

Nasal cavity

b)

Esophagus

c)

Pharynx

d)

Epiglottis

17.

The larynx functions primarily to:

a)

Produce sound and protect the trachea from food entry

b)

Exchange gases between blood and air

c)

Transport oxygen in the bloodstream

d)

Store carbon dioxide temporarily

18.

Which of the following correctly describes the functional zones of the respiratory system?

a)

Circulatory and respiratory zones

b)

Conducting and respiratory zones

c)

Internal and external zones

d)

Upper and lower zones

19.

The conducting zone includes all of the following structures except:

a)

Bronchi

b)

Alveoli

c)

Trachea

d)

Nasal cavity

20.

What is the main function of the respiratory zone?

a)

Warming and humidifying air

b)

Gas exchange between air and blood

c)

Filtering out pathogens

d)

Regulating air pressure

21.

What is D?

a)

Trachea

b)

Oropharynx

c)

Epiglottis

d)

Nasopharynx

22.

Which muscle plays a key role in expanding the thoracic cavity during inhalation?

a)

Deltoid

b)

Quadriceps

c)

Biceps

d)

Diaphragm

23.

What is the name of the tiny hair-like structures that help filter and move particles out of the respiratory tract?

a)

Bronchioles

b)

Cilia

c)

Capillaries

d)

Alveoli

24.

Which process describes the movement of oxygen from the lungs into the blood?

a)

External respiration

b)

Internal respiration

c)

Cellular respiration

d)

Ventilation

25.

What is hematopoiesis?

a)

The breakdown of red blood cells

b)

The process of blood clot formation

c)

The destruction of bone marrow

d)

The formation of blood cells in the bone marrow

26.

During hematopoiesis, which type of stem cell gives rise to all blood cell types?

a)

Epithelial stem cell

b)

Hematopoietic stem cell

c)

Myocyte stem cell

d)

Osteogenic stem cell

27.

What is hemostasis?

a)

Oxygen transport through hemoglobin

b)

The process of stopping blood loss after vessel injury

c)

Destruction of platelets in the spleen

d)

Exchange of gases between capillaries and tissues

28.

Which of the following lists the correct sequence of events in hemostasis?

a)

Platelet plug → coagulation → vascular spasm

b)

Coagulation → vascular spasm → platelet plug

c)

Vascular spasm → platelet plug → coagulation

d)

Platelet plug → fibrin breakdown → vasoconstriction

29.

Which blood type is considered the universal donor?

a)

A+

b)

AB+

c)

O−

d)

B−

30.

The name of the membrane that covers the heart is _____.

a)

parietal

b)

pericardial

c)

pleural

d)

visceral

31.

Type of circulation that refers to blood flow from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart again?

a)

Systemic circulation

b)

Renal circulation

c)

Portal circulation

d)

Pulmonary circulation

32.
What is the name of the circulation between the heart and the body?
a)
Diastolic
b)
Systemic
c)
Pulmonary
d)
Coronary
33.

Types of cells in the blood that causes blood clots to form

a)

Platelets

b)

Blood

c)

Plasma

d)

Hemoglobin

e)

White blood cells

34.
Veins that empty blood from the lungs into the upper left heart chamber
a)
Inferior Vena Cava
b)
Superior Vena Cava
c)
Pulmonary Veins
d)
Veins
35.
What is the average human blood pressure? 
a)
200/100
b)
100/10
c)
80/120
d)
120/80
36.

Blood enters the right atrium is ________.

a)

oxygen rich

b)

deoxygenated

c)

oxygenated

d)

all of the above

37.

What is the primary role of blood in the human body?

a)

Lubricating joints and bones

b)

Transporting gases, nutrients, hormones, and waste products

c)

Generating electrical impulses for muscle movement

d)

Producing enzymes for digestion

38.

What is the average blood volume in a healthy adult?

a)

1–2 liters

b)

3–4 liters

c)

5–6 liters

d)

8–10 liters

39.

In the fetus, blood cells are primarily formed in the:

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Liver and spleen

c)

Lungs

d)

Heart

40.

In adults, the majority of blood cell formation occurs in the:

a)

Red bone marrow of flat and long bones

b)

Yellow bone marrow

c)

Spleen

d)

Thymus

41.

Which of the following correctly lists the main components of blood?

a)

Plasma, enzymes, and water

b)

Plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets

c)

Serum, oxygen, and carbon dioxide

d)

Water, proteins, and electrolytes only

42.

At any given time, only about ________ of your body's blood is in your arteries.

a)

10% to 15%

b)

20% to 30%

c)

30% to 40%

d)

40% to 45%

43.
The smallest type of blood vessel is the:
a)
nerve
b)
vein
c)
capillary
d)
artery
44.
This type of vessel carries blood TO the heart:
a)
vein
b)
nerve
c)
muscle
d)
artery
45.
Name of the valve that separates left atrium from left ventricle.
a)
mitral valve
b)
tricuspid
c)
pulmonary valve
46.
Arteries carry blood ______ from the heart.
a)
Away
b)
To
c)
Across
d)
Around
47.

Which statement best describes the anatomy of arteries?

a)

Thick, muscular, and elastic walls that carry blood away from the heart

b)

Thin walls with valves to prevent backflow

c)

Single-cell-thick walls for diffusion

d)

Walls made mostly of connective tissue with little muscle

48.

What is the main function of veins?

a)

Carry blood away from the heart

b)

Exchange gases and nutrients

c)

Return blood to the heart and prevent backflow using valves

d)

Regulate blood pressure through muscle contraction

49.

Capillaries are specialized to:

a)

Store blood for later use

b)

Transport only oxygen-rich blood

c)

Allow exchange of gases, nutrients, and wastes between blood and tissues

d)

Pump blood through the circulatory system

50.

Blood pressure is most commonly measured using which device?

a)

Electrocardiogram

b)

Thermometer

c)

Sphygmomanometer and stethoscope

d)

Pulse oximeter

51.

Which of the following factors can increase blood pressure?

a)

Dehydration and relaxation

b)

Stress, increased blood volume, and arterial stiffness

c)

Sleep and vasodilation

d)

Low sodium intake and exercise training

52.

Name part N.

a)

Right atrium

b)

left atrium

c)

right ventricle

d)

left ventricle

53.

Name part I.

a)

pericardium

b)

mediastinum

c)

septum

d)

unknownum

54.
The arrow indicates the 
a)
Left ventricle
b)
Pulmonary artery
c)
Right atrium
d)
Pulmonary veins
55.
The arrow indicates the
a)
Left ventricle
b)
Vena cava
c)
Right atrium
d)
Right ventricle
56.

#7

a)

Left atrium

b)

Right ventricle

c)

Right atrium

d)

Aorta

57.
18?
a)
Aorta
b)
Apex
c)
Cardiac muscle
d)
Coronary artery
58.

Identify the structure labeled at 1

a)

Pulmonary Vein

b)

Superior Vena Cava

c)

Inferior Vena Cava

d)

Pulmonary Artery

59.

Identify the structure at 6

a)

Superior Vena Cava

b)

Aorta

c)

Pulmonary Vein

d)

Pulmonary Artery

60.

What is the correct pathway of blood through the heart and vascular system?

a)

Right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary veins → lungs → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta → body

b)

Right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary arteries → lungs → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta → body

c)

Left atrium → left ventricle → body → right atrium → lungs → right ventricle

d)

Right atrium → lungs → left atrium → body → left ventricle

61.

Which of the following lists the correct order of the heart’s conduction system?

a)

SA node → Purkinje fibers → AV node → Bundle of His

b)

SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers

c)

AV node → SA node → Bundle branches → Purkinje fibers

d)

SA node → Bundle branches → AV node → Purkinje fibers

62.

Which heart structure separates the right and left sides to prevent mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood?

a)

Septum

b)

Atrium

c)

Valve

d)

Aorta

63.

During the cardiac cycle, which event occurs during ventricular systole?

a)

Atria contract and fill the ventricles

b)

Ventricles contract, forcing blood into the arteries

c)

The AV valves open and semilunar valves close

d)

Blood flows passively from veins into atria

64.

What causes the characteristic “lub-dub” heart sounds?

a)

Movement of blood through the vessels

b)

Closure of the heart valves during the cardiac cycle

c)

Opening of the semilunar valves

d)

Contraction of the myocardium

65.

The structure indicated by the red arrow is the

a)

aorta.

b)

coronary arteries.

c)

pulmonary arteries.

d)

pulmonary veins.

e)

superior vena cava.

66.

Where is the sinoatrial node?

(a)  

67.

What is Number 8

(a)  

68.

Where is the atrioventricular node?

a)
4
b)

6

c)

1

d)

5

69.

Where is the Bundle of His?

a)
4
b)

6

c)

3

d)

2

70.

What is Number 6

(a)  

71.

How are efferent nerves best described?

a)

Nerves that originate in the periphery and carry signals to the spinal cord

b)

Nerves that originate in the brain and carry signals to the spinals cord

c)

Nerves that originate in the periphery and carry signals to the brain

d)

Nerves that originate in the central nervous system and carry signals to the periphery

72.

What is the location and function of a dendrite?

a)

Is found on the neuron and functions to receive impulses from other nerves

b)

Is found in the hypothalamus and functions to send signals to the pituitary

c)

Is found in the medulla oblongata and functions to send signals to the spinal cord

d)

A. Is found at the terminus of the axon and functions to connect to muscle

73.

A dog is startled by a gunshot. Which of the following sympathetic effects are most likely to occur?

a)

Constriction of the pupils, increased heart rate, and urination

b)

Dilation of the pupils, increased heart rate, and urination

c)

Dilation of the pupils, increased heart rate, and lack of urination

d)

Constriction of the pupils, decreased heart rate, and lack of urination

74.

The neurotransmitter norepinephrine stimulates fight or flight reactions in what system?

a)

Parasympathetic system

b)

Sensory neuron system

c)

Somatic motor neuron system

d)

Sympathetic system

75.

Where is the autonomic division of the nervous system found?

a)

As a part of the peripheral nervous system

b)

As a part of the central nervous system

c)

In the spinal cord

d)

In the brain

76.

The autonomic nervous system is divided into what branches?

a)

Somatic and sympathetic branches

b)

Somatic and parasympathetic branches

c)

Sympathetic and parasympathetic branches

d)

Sympathetic and sensory branches

77.

What are the two general regions the nervous system can be divided into?

a)

Upper and lower

b)

Central and peripheral

c)

Sympathetic and parasympathetic

d)

Somatic and autonomic

78.

What does the CNS consist of?

a)

Heart and lungs

b)

Nerves throughout the body

c)

Brain and spinal cord

d)

Stomach and intestines

79.

What is the main function of the sympathetic nervous system?

a)

Digestion

b)

Movement coordination

c)

Fight or flight response

d)

Rest and digest

80.

What is the role of myelin in the nervous system?

a)

Regulating blood pressure

b)

Insulating axons

c)

Releasing histamine

d)

Producing stomach acid

81.

What happens during an action potential?

a)

Digestive system activation

b)

Neurons rest

c)

Glial cells release neurotransmitters

d)

Rapid change in charge along the neuron's axon

82.
Thinking, problem solving, "executive functioning," happen here. 
a)
cerebellum
b)
cerebrum
c)
amygdala
d)
hypothalamus
83.

Found at the posterior base of the cerebrum and is in charge of balance and coordinating movements:

a)

Thalamus

b)

Reticular Formation

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Cerebellum

84.
Which letter on the illustration represents the temporal lobe? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
85.
Which letter on the illustration represents the occipital lobe? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
86.
Receives sensory information and relays it to the proper part of brain for further processing
a)
Hypothalamus
b)
Reticular Formation
c)
Cerebellum
d)
Thalamus
87.
Possesses the Motor Cortex
a)
Temporal Lobe
b)
Parietal Lobe
c)
Occipital Lobe
d)
Frontal Lobe
88.
a)
Cerebrum
b)
Thalamus
c)
Cerebellum
d)
Pons
89.
The thin, web-like membrane between the outer and inner layer of meninges
a)
dura mater
b)
pia mater
c)
arachnoid mater
90.
The fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord
a)
pia mater
b)
CSF
c)
lymph 
d)
tissue fluid
91.
Responsible for heart rate, body temperature, and blood pressure
a)
medulla olongata
b)
hypothalamus
c)
thalamus
d)
pons
92.

What part of a neuron includes the nucleus and cell organelles?

a)

cell body

b)

myelin sheath

c)

axon

d)

nodes of Ranvier

93.

Which cells produce myelin sheath?

a)

Schwann cells

b)

interneurons

c)

astrocytes

d)

satellite cells

94.

What chemicals are stored in and released from axon terminals?

a)

neurotransmitters

b)

Schwann cells

c)

dendrites

d)

astrocytes

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