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Worksheets

Pathway Practice - Part 1

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term is defined as an entry-level position in the film industry and for many it is their first industry job.

a)

Production Assistant

b)

Executive Producer

c)

Talent

d)

Floor Manager

2.

Which term refers to anything performing or appearing in front of the camera.

a)

Talent

b)

Sound Engineer

c)

Floor Manager

d)

Executive Producer

3.

Which role is in charge of making sure everyone is in place on a film set, making sure all equipment is ready during a live show, and making sure the talent is cued.

a)

Floor Manager

b)

Production Assistant

c)

Sound Engineer

d)

Executive Producer

4.

Which role operates the audio console during the live show and has creative duties during all phases of film production.

a)

Sound Engineer

b)

Switcher

c)

Production Assistant

d)

Camera Control Unit

5.

Which device is used to select different video sources and, in some cases, composite video sources together to create special effects for broadcasting or filmmaking. Tricaster by Vizrt and ATEM by Blackmagic Design are brand names for this device.

a)

Switcher

b)

Bus

c)

Camera Control Unit

d)

Audio Mixer

6.

Which term describes a row of buttons on a switcher with each button representing a video source, where pressing a button will select a video to play live or preview.

a)

Bus

b)

Switcher

c)

Camera Control Unit

d)

Ratings

7.

Which individual provides the financial backing for a production and has a role in controlling the creative decisions of a project with the director and department heads.

a)

Executive Producer

b)

Production Assistant

c)

Floor Manager

d)

Talent

8.

Which device regulates elements of the camera signal such as focus, white balance, and color balance.

a)

Camera Control Unit

b)

Switcher

c)

Bus

d)

Sound Engineer

9.

Which type of network programming depends on corporate advertising or public funding (donations and grants) and provides up-to-date information on the events of the day, sports, weather, and human interest.

a)

Broadcasting

b)

Subscription TV

c)

Commercials

d)

Shares

10.

Which platform depends on monthly fees from the audience to fund programming and can be delivered via cable, satellite, or streaming.

a)

Subscription TV

b)

Broadcasting

c)

Commercials

d)

Arbitron

11.

Which organization is a survey group that keeps track of who is watching what and at what time.

a)

Arbitron

b)

Ratings

c)

Focus Groups

d)

Executive Producer

12.

Which measure indicates how popular a television program is, expressed as the percentage of people who watched it compared with the number who could have watched it, where a single ratings point represents one percent of the total number of households in the US.

a)

Ratings

b)

Shares

c)

Demographics

d)

Arbitron

13.

Which process measures what type of people are watching a program based on race, age, gender, and similar characteristics.

a)

Demographics

b)

Shares

c)

Primetime

d)

Focus Groups

14.

Which measure is the number of households tuned in to a given program at a given time.

a)

Shares

b)

Ratings

c)

Demographics

d)

Commercials

15.

Which term refers to the period between 8 pm and 11 pm when most people are at home and watching TV, leading to the most successful shows and highest advertising rates.

a)

Primetime

b)

Broadcasting

c)

Subscription TV

d)

Outline

16.

Which short advertising tool is used to generate income for a network to pay for the cost of producing or acquiring its programming.

a)

Commercials

b)

Subscription TV

c)

Shares

d)

Arbitron

17.

Which process is used to screen a show and to discuss likes and dislikes of a group of people who could potentially watch the show.

a)

Focus Groups

b)

Demographics

c)

Ratings

d)

Storyboard

18.

Which term is the initial idea for a show.

a)

Concept

b)

Treatment

c)

Outline

d)

Storyboard

19.

Which term is a brief narrative description of what a program will be, but longer than a logline.

a)

Treatment

b)

Outline

c)

Concept

d)

Storyboard

20.

Which term is a visual representation of a film sequence that breaks down the action into individual panels with ordered drawings, camera direction, dialogue, or other pertinent details, sketching out how a video will unfold shot by shot.

a)

Storyboard

b)

Outline

c)

Concept

d)

Treatment

21.

Which term refers to the scene-by-scene development of the events in a teleplay or screenplay.

a)

Outline

b)

Treatment

c)

Storyboard

d)

Concept

22.

Identify the term that matches this description: An organization to license Radio and Television stations. They determine the standards and practices of what is viewed on air.

a)

Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

b)

Release Form

c)

American Society of Composer and Performers (ASCAP) and Broadcast Music Inc. (BMI)

d)

Copyrighted Material

23.

Identify the term that matches this description: Two organizations (full name and letters) that license music rights to show producers.

a)

American Society of Composer and Performers (ASCAP) and Broadcast Music Inc. (BMI)

b)

Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

c)

Release Form

d)

Copyrighted Material

24.

Identify the term that matches this description: All persons appearing in a film must sign this document which gives the filmmaker the right to use the face and likeness of the performer in the finished film.

a)

Release Form

b)

Copyrighted Material

c)

Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

d)

Synchronization Rights

25.

Identify the term that matches this description: Intellectual property belonging to the copyright holder whereby permission must be obtained before using their work.

a)

Copyrighted Material

b)

Release Form

c)

Lower Third

d)

Crawl

26.

Identify the term that matches this description: Permission granted by the music copyright holder for their intellectual property to use their music under a scene in a film or TV show. It is called synchronization because that is all it can be used for (run it under the film). You have no rights to the song (you cannot sell it as a record or soundtrack for radio etc.).

a)

Synchronization Rights

b)

Background Music

c)

Tones

d)

Copyrighted Material

27.

Identify the term that matches this description: A graphic used to identify an on-camera speaker's name appearing under the talent on screen covering the lower two thirds of the screen.

a)

Lower Third

b)

Crawl

c)

Roll

d)

Spotlight

28.

Identify the term that matches this description: Information moving along the bottom of the screen left to right giving the audience the opportunity to understand the program better.

a)

Crawl

b)

Roll

c)

Lower Third

d)

Floodlight

29.

Identify the term that matches this description: A stack of titles or information that runs up the screen.

a)

Roll

b)

Crawl

c)

Lower Third

d)

Background Music

30.

Identify the term that matches this description: This equipment creates sharp directional beams of light onto a controlled specific area of the subject.

a)

Spotlight

b)

Floodlight

c)

Fill light

d)

Fresnel Lights

31.

Identify the term that matches this description: This equipment creates even washes of light over the whole set.

a)

Floodlight

b)

Spotlight

c)

LED Lamp

d)

Gels

32.

Identify the term that matches this description: The type of lighting in a three point process that reduces shadows, and are usually positions from the sides of the set.

a)

Fill light

b)

Key light

c)

Spotlight

d)

Floodlight

33.

Identify the term that matches this description: The property of a display system, defined as the ratio of the luminance of the brightest shade (white) to that of the darkest shade (black) that the system is capable of producing, and is a desired aspect of any display.

a)

Contrast Ratio

b)

Synchronization Rights

c)

Tones

d)

Roll

34.

Identify the term that matches this description: This technique is accomplished with the use of lights configured from different angles; key (front), fill (sides), and hairline (back).

a)

Three Point Lighting

b)

Fill light

c)

Fresnel Lights

d)

Spotlight

35.

Identify the term that matches this description: Mechanical flaps on the sides of lighting instruments that open and close on hinges to control the shape of the light and where it falls.

a)

Barn Doors

b)

Gels

c)

Fresnel Lights

d)

LED Lamp

36.

Identify the term that matches this description: A light fixture with lenses in front of the bulb. These lenses have concentric rings etched into the glass and they smooth out the edge of the pool of light softening it.

a)

Fresnel Lights

b)

Spotlight

c)

Floodlight

d)

LED Lamp

37.

Identify the term that matches this description: Plastic sheets of specific colors that are placed over lighting instruments that tint the light to a specific hue or color.

a)

Gels

b)

Barn Doors

c)

Floodlight

d)

Contrast Ratio

38.

Identify the term that matches this description: A light-emitting diode is a two-lead semiconductor light source. These lights are cooler in temperature and more efficient than halogen bulb lighting fixtures.

a)

LED Lamp

b)

Fresnel Lights

c)

Floodlight

d)

Spotlight

39.

Identify the term that matches this description: Frequency or pitch, used by audio engineers to adjust playback equipment so accompanying media is at a comfortable volume for the audience.

a)

Tones

b)

Background Music

c)

Synchronization Rights

d)

Roll

40.

Identify the term that matches this description: Helps to support the narrative and/or enhances the mood of the scene by design and to really create success... multiple tracks should be utilized.

a)

Background Music

b)

Tones

c)

Lower Third

d)

Crawl

41.

What is a transponder?

a)

A wireless communication, monitoring or control device that picks up and automatically responds to an incoming signal

b)

A manual switch used to route audio channels

c)

A camera attachment that stabilizes handheld shots

d)

A storage device for saving video footage

42.

Dollying refers to moving the camera and the tripod forward or away from an object on Z. Which camera movement is described?

a)

Dollying

b)

Tilting

c)

Trucking

d)

Pedestaling

43.

Which camera movement means moving the camera and the tripod from side to side on X parallel to the picture plane?

a)

Trucking

b)

Tilting

c)

Dollying

d)

Panning

44.

Which camera movement is defined as moving the camera lens up and down on Y without moving the tripod?

a)

Tilting

b)

Trucking

c)

Dollying

d)

Pedestaling

45.

Which description best matches pedestaling?

a)

Raising or lowering the camera vertically on the tripod column without tilting

b)

Moving the lens up and down while the tripod remains fixed

c)

Sliding the camera side to side parallel to the picture plane

d)

Rolling the camera toward or away from the subject on a track

46.

Head room is the blank space left between the top of the object or subject and the upper edge of the frame. What is this framing area called?

a)

Head room

b)

Lead room

c)

Nose room

d)

Foot room

47.

The term for the space left in front of a person moving on X toward the edge of the frame is called what?

a)

Lead room

b)

Head room

c)

Rack focus

d)

Dutch angle

48.

What does the abbreviation OTS stand for in shot composition?

a)

Over the shoulder

b)

On the spot

c)

Off-the-set

d)

Open tracking shot

49.

What does the abbreviation CU stand for?

a)

Close up

b)

Cut under

c)

Center unity

d)

Camera unit

50.

What does the abbreviation ECU stand for?

a)

Extreme close up

b)

Extended camera unit

c)

External clip utility

d)

Edge color uniformity

51.

What does the abbreviation ELS stand for?

a)

Extreme long shot

b)

Extended light source

c)

Electronic lens shift

d)

Edge-linked sound

52.

What does the abbreviation MS stand for?

a)

Medium shot

b)

Motion stabilization

c)

Manual shutter

d)

Masked scene

53.

Cutaway or insert shots are the type of shots used to avoid jump-cuts. Which statement is correct?

a)

Cutaway or insert shots help avoid jump-cuts

b)

Cutaway or insert shots increase camera shake

c)

Cutaway or insert shots reduce color saturation

d)

Cutaway or insert shots create audio crossfades

54.

Which cable is described as yellow, red, and white and carries both audio and video signals?

a)

RCA cable

b)

XLR cable

c)

BNC cable

d)

HDMI cable

55.

Which cable is a rubberized cable that carries audio signal and uses a three-pin connector?

a)

XLR cable

b)

RCA cable

c)

BNC cable

d)

USB cable

56.

Which connector is a 1/4 inch phone plug used to carry audio signal (commonly for headphones)?

a)

1/4 inch phone plug

b)

XLR connector

c)

RCA plug

d)

BNC connector

57.

Which cable is used to carry video signal only and locks with a bayonet-style connector?

a)

BNC cable

b)

RCA cable

c)

XLR cable

d)

Ethernet cable

58.

Streaming video is described as video viewed over the internet. Which option matches this description?

a)

Streaming video

b)

Analog broadcast

c)

Physical media playback

d)

Timecode

59.

In editing and animation, what is a keyframe?

a)

A point at which something changes (speed, direction, scale, color, exposure)

b)

A file containing camera metadata

c)

A preset for audio equalization

d)

A mark used to slate a scene

60.

What do ALPHA channels determine, compared to RGB color channels?

a)

Transparency rather than color value

b)

Brightness of the red channel

c)

Hue rotation for all channels

d)

Compression level of the image

61.

Which description defines an RGB color space?

a)

Any additive color space based on the RGB color model defined by three chromaticities of the red, green, and blue additive primaries

b)

A subtractive model used exclusively for print

c)

A thermal mapping space for infrared imaging

d)

A grayscale space based on luminance only

62.

What is chrominance?

a)

The quality of color

b)

The intensity of light

c)

The amount of compression

d)

The speed of motion

63.

What is luminance?

a)

The intensity of light

b)

The quality of color

c)

The level of audio

d)

The sharpness of focus

64.

Interactive video gives viewer control over how and what is seen when viewing a program. Which statement matches this definition?

a)

Interactive video allows the viewer to control viewing choices

b)

Interactive video is a fixed linear playback with no user input

c)

Interactive video only refers to live television

d)

Interactive video is limited to audio-only content

65.

Teleprompter — Identify the equipment described as a monitor with lines written on it for the talent to read from.

a)

A device that records ambient sound

b)

A monitor that displays scripted lines for on‑camera reading

c)

A camera attachment that softens focus

d)

A light used to illuminate the subject

66.

Three camera — What does a three‑camera setup do during a live studio shoot?

a)

Feeds three live camera streams to the switcher so the anchor can look into whichever camera is live while speaking

b)

Uses one camera with two backup cameras that are turned off

c)

Combines three lenses onto a single camera body

d)

Captures still photos from three angles only

67.

Watts = Volts × Amps — Which formula expresses electrical power in terms of volts and amps?

a)

W=A×VW = A \times V

b)

W=VAW = V - A

c)

W=VAW = \frac{V}{A}

d)

W=V+AW = V + A

68.

Character Generator — What machine allows texts and graphics to be superimposed live over the talent during a three‑camera shoot?

a)

Audio mixer

b)

Character generator operated by a CG operator

c)

Telephoto lens

d)

Tripod head

69.

Slates — What tool is used at the beginning of each shot to identify the take?

a)

Timecode display

b)

Clapperboard or sticks

c)

Lens cap

d)

Battery pack

70.

Electronic News Gathering (ENG) — What does ENG refer to?

a)

Studio‑only scripted programming

b)

Sports or news items captured live in the field

c)

Animated graphics created in post‑production

d)

Archival footage from previous broadcasts

71.

Shot Logs — What are shot logs used for during a shoot?

a)

To schedule actors’ arrival times

b)

To list camera takes written down on location

c)

To adjust lens aperture settings

d)

To manage catering orders

72.

Raw Footage — What does raw footage consist of?

a)

Color‑graded and edited scenes

b)

Unedited takes stored on the camera roll or SD card

c)

Storyboard sketches

d)

Compressed files exported for broadcast

73.

Striking — In production terminology, what does striking mean after wrapping?

a)

Setting up additional lights

b)

Refers to disassembling a set

c)

Recording final voice‑over

d)

Backing up media to the cloud

74.

Floor Plan — What is a floor plan used for by the director?

a)

To design costumes

b)

To block camera shots and positions

c)

To edit sound effects

d)

To schedule meal breaks

75.

Set Dressing — Which items count as set dressing?

a)

Props handled by performers

b)

Items like pictures, lamps, and decor that performers don’t handle

c)

Lighting stands and cables

d)

Camera tripods

76.

Production Schedule — What does a production schedule list?

a)

Only the cast list

b)

Start times for major production events such as shoot dates, locations, wrap dates, and editorial dates

c)

Lens focal lengths for each scene

d)

Weather forecasts for the week

77.

Zebra Stripes — What do zebra stripes indicate in a viewfinder or monitor?

a)

Low battery warning

b)

Maximum exposure reached in the striped portion of the frame

c)

Sound clipping on the audio meter

d)

White balance locked

78.

Auditions — What do auditions help determine for a performer?

a)

Wardrobe size

b)

Skills and capabilities

c)

Preferred filming location

d)

Daily rate

79.

Proper Z Blocking — What is proper Z‑axis blocking in a scene?

a)

Placing all subjects side‑by‑side at the same distance

b)

Arranging people and props along the z‑axis in close proximity and toward/away from the camera

c)

Only moving actors left to right across frame

d)

Keeping the background completely static

80.

Moire Effect — When can the moire effect occur during production?

a)

On low‑contrast backgrounds only

b)

On costumes or set elements with high‑contrast stripes and delicate patterns

c)

Only when using a prime lens

d)

During audio recording in a quiet room

81.

Body, Lens, and Viewfinder — What are the three major parts of studio cameras?

a)

Sensor, battery, and memory card

b)

Body, lens, and viewfinder

c)

Tripod, dolly, and jib

d)

Mic, mixer, and monitor

82.

Aperture — In a lens, what is the aperture?

a)

A focusing motor

b)

The hole in the iris of a lens

c)

A lens mount type

d)

A filter attached to the front

83.

F‑stop — What does the f‑stop indicate on a lens?

a)

Shutter speed setting

b)

Calibrated ring indicating the aperture setting

c)

Zoom level

d)

Image stabilization mode

84.

Charged Couple Device (CCD) — What is the CCD in a video camera?

a)

A lens cleaning tool

b)

The most common light‑sensitive imaging surface that splits white light into red, green, and blue components

c)

A battery charger

d)

An external microphone

85.

Spreader — What is a spreader used for on a tripod?

a)

To attach the camera to the head

b)

To stabilize tripod legs at the bottom and prevent them from moving too far apart under heavy load

c)

To mount a microphone

d)

To level the head without adjusting legs

86.

Jib Arm — What does a jib arm allow an operator to do?

a)

Change lenses faster

b)

Pedestal, pan, and tilt the camera during the move (also called a crane)

c)

Record audio wirelessly

d)

Add a teleconverter

87.

Quick Release Plate or Shoe — What is the function of a quick release plate or shoe on a tripod?

a)

To store memory cards

b)

To facilitate quick and accurate mounting and dismounting of the camera to the tripod head

c)

To control aperture

d)

To power external lights

88.

Deep Depth of Field — What does deep depth of field mean in a scene?

a)

Only the foreground is sharp

b)

All objects along the z‑axis are rendered in sharp focus

c)

The background is blurred while the subject is sharp

d)

Focus changes during zoom

89.

In cinematography, which setting produces only a thin band along the z-axis in sharp focus while the foreground and background appear blurred?

a)

Deep depth of field

b)

Shallow depth of field

c)

Wide-angle perspective

d)

High dynamic range

90.

Before shooting, which camera control is set to ensure colors are recorded correctly?

a)

ISO

b)

Shutter angle

c)

White balance

d)

Frame rate

91.

Which device synchronizes a tape source to house sync so all cameras and recorders are taking frames at the same time?

a)

Time-Base Corrector

b)

Distribution amplifier

c)

Frame grabber

d)

Audio mixer

92.

Which microphone is designed to be highly directional, hearing very little to its left and right, little behind it, and most sound in front?

a)

Lavalier microphone

b)

Shotgun microphone

c)

Omnidirectional microphone

d)

Bidirectional ribbon microphone

93.

Which microphone pattern records in a heart-shaped pickup pattern?

a)

Figure-8

b)

Cardioid

c)

Omnidirectional

d)

Super-wide

94.

What audio issue happens when an audio loop occurs between a speaker and the microphone attached to it?

a)

Phase cancellation

b)

Feedback

c)

Compression

d)

Clipping

95.

Which tool is used to monitor audio recording levels and quality?

a)

AVU Meter

b)

Waveform monitor

c)

Color bar generator

d)

Timecode reader

96.

In audio, what term describes fading one sound down while simultaneously fading another sound in to replace it?

a)

Hard cut

b)

Crossfading

c)

Looping

d)

Equalization

97.

In picture editing, what term describes fading one image while replacing it with another image?

a)

Jump cut

b)

L-cut

c)

Cross dissolving

d)

Keyframing

98.

In post-production, what is the process of transferring digital video from tape or SD card to a hard drive?

a)

Rendering

b)

Capturing

c)

Color grading

d)

Exporting

99.

In editing software, what is the process of bringing an audio or graphic file into the project?

a)

Importing

b)

Batch rendering

c)

Encoding

d)

Archiving

100.

What system is used to number and identify each frame on a camera roll or editing timeline?

a)

Waveform ID

b)

Barcode

c)

Timecode

d)

Keycode

101.

Which film element do finished films begin with that contains color bars, test tone, slate, and countdown?

a)

End credits

b)

Leader ortest pattern

c)

Opening montage

d)

Trailer

102.

In analogue workflows, what is the name given to each successive copy when images or projects are dubbed?

a)

Instance

b)

Generation

c)

Edition

d)

Take

103.

Which non-volatile memory card format is commonly used in portable devices?

a)

CompactFlash (CF)

b)

Secure Digital (SD)

c)

xD-Picture Card

d)

Memory Stick

104.

In imaging, what term refers to the smallest change in a measured value that an instrument can detect?

a)

Precision

b)

Resolution

c)

Bit depth

d)

Sampling rate

105.

In digital images, what does each pixel’s numerical value represent?

a)

Sensor size

b)

How bright the pixel is and what color it is

c)

Lens focal length

d)

File compression ratio

106.

Which ratio describes how the width of a pixel compares to its height in a digital image?

a)

Aspect ratio of frame

b)

Pixel Aspect Ratio

c)

Bit rate

d)

Gamma

107.

Which microphone type picks up sound evenly from all directions?

a)

Unidirectional microphone

b)

Omnidirectional microphone

c)

Cardioid microphone

d)

Boundary microphone

108.

Which microphone type picks up sound predominantly from one direction?

a)

Omnidirectional microphone

b)

Unidirectional microphone

c)

Bidirectional microphone

d)

Shotgun microphone only

109.

Which microphone type picks up sound from two opposite directions?

a)

Omnidirectional microphone

b)

Shotgun microphone

c)

Bidirectional microphone

d)

Boundary microphone

110.

During a studio production, who operates the switcher?

a)

Technical Director

b)

Audio Engineer

c)

Floor Manager

d)

Graphics Operator

111.

What device is used to select between different video sources and, in some cases, composite sources to create special effects; operated by the Technical Director?

a)

Time-Base Corrector

b)

The SWITCHER or Vision Mixer

c)

Sync generator

d)

Playback server

112.

In a production that records to tape, who operates the record/playback option during the production?

a)

Camera operator

b)

Videotape operator

c)

Technical director

d)

Grip

113.

Who owns intellectual property such as music, graphics, and imagery?

a)

Producer

b)

Copyright Holder

c)

Distributor

d)

Licensee

114.

In RGB mode, which are the three additive primary colors?

a)

Cyan, Magenta, Yellow

b)

Red, Green, Blue

c)

Red, Yellow, Blue

d)

Cyan, Yellow, Black

115.

In videography, what is the term for the difference between the brightest and darkest areas of the frame?

a)

Saturation

b)

Contrast

c)

Hue

d)

Gain

116.

Which audio clips, recorded at approximately 1000 Hz and around -20 dB, are used by engineers and videotape operators to adjust playback equipment and are often accompanied by color bars; also used as a "bleep" tone for censoring?

a)

Pink noise

b)

Tones or Reference Tones

c)

Room tone

d)

White noise

117.

What title format displays a stack of titles that run up the screen?

a)

Crawl

b)

Lower third

c)

Roll or Rolling Title

d)

Superimposed card

118.

In broadcasting, what does ENG (Electronic News Gathering) refer to?

a)

Studio-produced scripted segments

b)

Computer-generated graphics

c)

Sport/news items captured live in the field

d)

Animated features

119.

Wireless microphones have a small transmitter that sends a signal wirelessly to a receiver attached to the camera or audio recorder so no wires restrict movement. What is the primary advantage described?

a)

Freedom of movement

b)

Higher audio fidelity than wired mics

c)

Built-in noise cancellation

d)

Automatic volume leveling

120.

Live remotes are examples of electronic news gathering done on location, including sports and news. What do live remotes exemplify?

a)

Electronic News Gathering (ENG)

b)

Studio-only production

c)

Animated graphics creation

d)

Audio post‑production

121.

Background or incidental music is used during a dramatic scene to underscore the mood and usually does not contain lyrics because lyrics distract and compete with spoken dialogue. Why are lyrics typically avoided in background music?

a)

They distract from dialogue

b)

They are harder to license

c)

They reduce recording quality

d)

They slow down scene pacing

122.

Music in a scene should only be used to support the narrative and/or enhance the mood; content dictates everything. What is the stated purpose of music in a scene?

a)

To support the narrative or enhance mood

b)

To showcase the composer

c)

To increase volume levels

d)

To replace dialogue

123.

In TV lighting, soft flat lights make subjects appear flat; performers on newscasts wear makeup in the studio because the lighting removes shadows and flattens faces. What do performers wear in the studio to counteract flat lighting?

a)

Makeup

b)

Headphones

c)

Polarizing filters

d)

Reflective clothing

124.

A zoom lens may be designated a "6X lens" (6:1), meaning it can enlarge the image by 600%. What does a 6X lens indicate?

a)

It enlarges the image by 600%

b)

It reduces focal length by 6 mm

c)

It only supports 6 apertures

d)

It records at 6 frames per second

125.

White light entering a camera lens passes through a prism block, which splits the light into red, green, and blue components that are each sent to a different chip or sensor. What component performs this split?

a)

Prism block

b)

Polarizer

c)

Diffusion filter

d)

Aperture iris

126.

In script notation, LS is the abbreviation for long shot. What does LS stand for?

a)

Long shot

b)

Lens shift

c)

Low sensitivity

d)

Lateral scan

127.

Zooming increases focal length. What effect does zooming have on focal length?

a)

It increases focal length

b)

It decreases focal length

c)

It keeps focal length constant

d)

It changes aperture only

128.

Component video, labeled Y, R‑Y, B‑Y, is described as the best quality video signal format in this context. Which labeling corresponds to component video?

a)

Y, R‑Y, B‑Y

b)

RGB only

c)

Composite (one cable)

d)

HDMI

129.

Panning is to swivel (pivot) or rotate the camera horizontally on the X axis. What is panning?

a)

Horizontal rotation of the camera

b)

Vertical tilt of the camera

c)

Moving the camera forward

d)

Changing the lens aperture

130.

Headphones permit an audio professional to monitor the volume and quality of the recorded signal. What is their primary purpose in production?

a)

Monitoring audio levels and quality

b)

Reducing room echo

c)

Recording ambient sound

d)

Mixing multiple camera feeds

131.

A VU meter is used to monitor audio recording levels and quality. What does the VU meter measure?

a)

Audio levels for recording quality

b)

Color saturation

c)

Frame rate

d)

Battery voltage

132.

In linear editing, camera rolls are re‑recorded from a video player to a video recorder. What characterizes linear editing here?

a)

Re‑recording from a video player to a video recorder

b)

Editing by rearranging clips on a timeline

c)

Live switching between multiple cameras

d)

Applying visual effects using nodes

133.

Non‑linear editing is arranging digital media into a sequence. What is the defining feature described?

a)

Arranging digital media into a sequence

b)

Recording directly to tape

c)

Using only analog mixers

d)

Capturing footage without timecode

134.

Blacked videotape is empty space with timecode applied to enable frame accuracy for insert shots. What is blacked videotape used for?

a)

Frame‑accurate insert shots using pre‑applied timecode

b)

Reducing tape noise during playback

c)

Storing color bars for calibration

d)

Archiving finished programs

135.

An Edit Decision List (EDL) is a text file listing IN and OUT points of source material (picture, audio, graphic) and the frame counts at which they appear in the timeline. What does an EDL contain?

a)

IN/OUT points and frame counts for source materials

b)

Audio equalization presets

c)

Camera exposure settings

d)

Legal clearance documents

136.

In linear tape editing, inserts must have a control track. What must inserts include?

a)

A control track

b)

Closed captions

c)

Color bars

d)

A chroma key

137.

Logging is capturing or transferring footage to a drive; timecode (electronic frame counts) helps keep track of logged footage. In this context, timecode helps track what kind of footage?

a)

Logged footage

b)

Interlaced footage

c)

Compressed footage

d)

Public domain footage

138.

720p (720 progressive) means a resolution of 720 pixels across, displayed progressively. What does 720p indicate?

a)

720 pixels across, displayed progressively

b)

720 pixels along the vertical only

c)

Interlaced display at 720 lines

d)

A frame rate of 72.0 fps

139.

720i (720 interlaced) means a resolution of 720 pixels across, displayed interlaced. What does 720i indicate?

a)

720 pixels across, displayed interlaced

b)

720 pixels vertically, progressive

c)

A 720 mm focal length

d)

A bitrate of 720 kbps

140.

During digital playback or broadcast, sync means color information must be synchronized with brightness information for each pixel of each frame. What does sync mean in this context?

a)

Color info synchronized with brightness info

b)

Audio synchronized with subtitles

c)

Camera shutters synchronized with lights

d)

Files synchronized with backups

141.

In digital media, sound and light are converted into 1s and 0s. What are they converted into?

a)

Binary code (1s and 0s)

b)

Analog waveforms

c)

Hexadecimal colors

d)

Morse code

142.

Vector graphics are resolution independent until one is assigned and are preferred for scaling up and down. What property makes vector graphics preferred for scaling?

a)

Resolution independence

b)

Fixed pixel grid

c)

Lossy compression

d)

Embedded color profiles

143.

Raster images are a fixed resolution. What defines raster images here?

a)

Fixed resolution

b)

Infinite scalability

c)

Math‑based paths

d)

Lossless compression only

144.

.PICT is described as a graphics file format. What is .PICT?

a)

A graphics file format

b)

An audio compression format

c)

A video container

d)

A font file type

145.

.JPEG/.JPG uses lossy compression where some original image information is lost and cannot be restored, possibly affecting image quality. What is a key characteristic of .JPEG/.JPG?

a)

Lossy compression that may affect image quality

b)

Lossless compression with full restoration

c)

Vector‑based drawing only

d)

Animated image support by default

146.

.PNG stands for Portable Network Graphics. What does .PNG represent?

a)

Portable Network Graphics

b)

Programmed Network Graphics

c)

Portable Numeric Graphics

d)

Public Network Graphics

147.

.GIF stands for Graphics Interchange Format. What does .GIF represent?

a)

Graphics Interchange Format

b)

General Image File

c)

Geometric Inline Frames

d)

Graphic Indexed File

148.

.BMP stands for Bitmap. What does .BMP represent?

a)

Bitmap

b)

Binary Media Package

c)

Basic Motion Picture

d)

Bitrate Multi‑Pass

149.

.MPEG is a movie format determined by the Moving Picture Experts Group. What does .MPEG refer to?

a)

A movie format standardized by the Moving Picture Experts Group

b)

A still image format used for cameras

c)

A text subtitle file

d)

A vector‑based animation format

150.

Secure Digital (SD) is a non‑volatile memory card format for use in portable devices. What is Secure Digital (SD)?

a)

A non‑volatile memory card format for portable devices

b)

A video cable for high‑definition displays

c)

An audio compression standard

d)

A secure network protocol