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Unit 001 - Working in Engineering Quiz

Total questions: 153

Worksheet time: 2hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Explain what is meant by the term batch production.

a)

A) A method where a group of identical products is produced simultaneously before moving on to make another group.

b)

B) A method where products are produced one at a time.

c)

C) A method where products are produced continuously without any interruptions.

d)

D) A method where products are produced in large quantities in a short amount of time.

2.

Explain the difference between a one-off and a prototype.

a)

A) A prototype is a draft version of a product. A one-off is the complete manufacture of a single bespoke product/item.

b)

B) A prototype is the complete manufacture of a single bespoke product/item. A one-off is a draft version of a product.

c)

C) A prototype is a method of producing large quantities of high tech products. A one-off is a method of producing small quantities of low tech products.

d)

D) A prototype is a method of producing small quantities of a product. A one-off is a method of producing large quantities of a product.

3.

Which of the following is an advantage of mass production?

a)

High production costs

b)

Low precision rate

c)

Standardisation of products

d)

High flexibility in product lines

4.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of mass production?

a)

Low production costs

b)

High flexibility in product lines

c)

Low investment in machinery

d)

Capital intensive

5.

A small bakery produces 50 white loaves, 50 brown loaves, 100 croissants, and 100 doughnuts each morning. The same workers make all the products one after the other, cleaning and adjusting the equipment between each batch. This is an example of:

a)

Mass production

b)

Continuous production

c)

Batch production

d)

Flow production

6.

What is a key characteristic of flow production?

a)

A) Production is carried out in small batches.

b)

B) Production is continuous and products move from one stage to the next without interruption.

c)

C) Production is done on a one-off basis.

d)

D) Production involves high customisation of each product.

7.

Which of the following is an example of mass production?

a)

A) Custom-made furniture

b)

B) Handcrafted jewellery

c)

C) Assembly line manufacturing of cars

d)

D) Small batch baking

8.

What is a disadvantage of batch production?

a)

A) High set-up costs for each batch

b)

B) Low flexibility in product lines

c)

C) High production costs

d)

D) Low standardisation of products

9.

Which process fits this description – molten metal is forced into a mould to cool and solidify?

a)

Sand Casting

b)

Die Casting

c)

Injection Moulding

d)

Rotational Moulding

10.

Which of the following is an advantage of sand casting?

a)

It allows fairly complex models to be cast

b)

It is quick to do

c)

It is fully automated

d)

It is very accurate

11.

Choose the correct advantage of rotational moulding.

a)

It has fast production rates

b)

It will provide a uniform wall thickness

c)

It can provide detailed and complex parts

d)

It is inexpensive

12.

Why might die casting be selected for manufacturing a product? Choose two correct answers.

a)

It can produce very large parts

b)

It is extremely accurate

c)

It provides a smooth surface finish

d)

It is inexpensive to set up

13.

How might you identify that a product has been injection moulded? Choose two correct answers.

a)

Ribs

b)

Rounded corners

c)

Mould split lines

d)

Injection marks

14.

What types of products are manufactured using rotational moulding?

a)

Balls & hollow plastic toys

b)

Balls & plastic baskets

c)

Plastic baskets & hollow plastic toys

d)

Candle holders & balls

15.

What is rapid prototyping?

a)

Getting a product from the design stage to manufacturing as quickly as you can

b)

Creating CAD drawings in large quantities

c)

Manufacturing products very quickly on a production line

d)

A quick method of producing 3D models directly from a CAD drawing

16.

Choose two advantages of using 3D printing.

a)

It is inexpensive to set up and operate

b)

You can print any design, no matter how complex it is

c)

Products can be created as required

d)

You can use any material with a 3D printer

17.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of rapid prototyping?

a)

The surface finish on the product can be rough

b)

The methods are limited in which designs they can produce

c)

It takes longer to design and manufacture products this way

d)

They are really expensive to use

18.

Why might a company choose to use laser cutting? Select two correct answers.

a)

It can produce detailed and complex designs

b)

It is highly accurate – each product is an exact copy of the previous one

c)

It has a very consistent production rate

d)

It does not require a lot of energy to operate the machinery

19.

Which process fits this description: molten metal is forced into a mould to cool and solidify?

a)

Casting

b)

Extrusion

c)

Turning

d)

Rotational Moulding

20.

Which manufacturing process is depicted in the image above, and is required whenever intricate shaping is necessary, demanding precision?

a)

separating

b)

jumping

c)

rolling

d)

milling

21.

A hole is produced within a workpiece or enlarged by a rotating end-cutting tool.

a)

cutting

b)

drilling

c)

milling

d)

finishing

22.

Uses force to cause materials to permanently take a shape.

a)

casting

b)

additive

c)

drilling

d)

forming

23.

These products have been manufactured by...

a)

Injection moulding

b)

Vacuum forming

c)

Extrusion

d)

Blow moulding

24.

These products have been manufactured by...

a)

Binder jetting

b)

Extrusion

c)

Casting

d)

Blow moulding

25.

This component has been manufactured using...

a)

3D Powder Bed Fusion

b)

3D Photopolymerisation

c)

3D Material Extrusion

d)

3D Grandma's Recipe

26.

What is the name of this process?

(a)  

27.

A manufacturing process involving the shaping of material through hammering, pressing, or rolling.

a)

forming

b)

casting

c)

moulding

d)

joining

e)

machining

28.

A manufacturing process in which liquid material is poured into a mould containing a hollow cavity of the required shape, and then allowed to solidify.

a)

forming

b)

casting

c)

moulding

d)

joining

e)

machining

29.

A manufacturing process that shapes liquid raw material by applying pressure to force it into a fixed mould.

a)

forming

b)

casting

c)

moulding

d)

joining

e)

machining

30.

A manufacturing process in which two or more materials are assembled together.

a)

forming

b)

casting

c)

moulding

d)

joining

e)

machining

31.

A manufacturing process that produces the required shape by removing excess material from a larger workpiece.

a)

forming

b)

casting

c)

moulding

d)

joining

e)

machining

32.

What manufacturing process is illustrated here?

Forging process

a)

forging

b)

extrusion

c)

rolling

d)

die casting

33.

What manufacturing process is illustrated?

a)

Forging

b)

Extrusion

c)

Rolling

d)

Die casting

34.

Which manufacturing process is depicted?

a)

forging

b)

extrusion

c)

rolling

d)

die casting

35.

What manufacturing process is depicted?

a)

forging

b)

extrusion

c)

rolling

d)

die casting

36.

What manufacturing process is illustrated?

a)

injection moulding

b)

compression moulding

c)

die casting

d)

welding

37.

What manufacturing process is illustrated?

a)

Injection moulding

b)

Compression moulding

c)

Die casting

d)

Welding

38.

What manufacturing process is depicted?

a)

injection moulding

b)

compression moulding

c)

die casting

d)

welding

39.

What manufacturing process is depicted?

a)

Turning

b)

3D printing

c)

Extrusion

d)

Rolling

40.

Laser beam machining is not commonly used for

a)

Grinding

b)

Drilling

c)

Trepanning

d)

Cutting

41.

What is the primary purpose of the forming process in manufacturing?

a)

Changing the shape

b)

Turning liquid to solid

c)

Separating materials

d)

Connecting materials

42.

Which of the following is a manufacturing process shown in the picture?

a)

Painting

b)

Cutting

c)

Polishing

d)

Sanding

43.

What is the main advantage of using a shaper rather than a file?

a)

It is more precise

b)

It is faster

c)

It is cheaper

d)

It is quieter

44.

What is a common tool used in manual metal removal?

a)

Lathe

b)

Shaper

c)

File

d)

Drill

45.

What is a brake press used for?

a)

Cutting materials

b)

Producing many identical pressed shapes

c)

Welding metals together

d)

Painting surfaces

46.

Which cutting technique is most suitable for cutting intricate shapes in metal sheets?

a)

Flame cutting

b)

Laser cutting

c)

Plasma cutting

d)

Spark erosion

47.

Which of the following is NOT shown as a joining method in the image?

a)

Riveting

b)

Nuts and bolts

c)

Welding

d)

Soldering

48.

What is a common method for permanently joining two metal parts?

a)

Bolting

b)

Welding

c)

Clamping

d)

Gluing

49.

What is the main purpose of using a CNC machine in manufacturing?

a)

To automate the production process

b)

To manually shape materials

c)

To paint surfaces

d)

To join components

50.

The function of something is________.

a)

its purpose

b)

its value

51.

Something that is sustainable________.

a)

can be made from any type of material

b)

does little harm to the environment

52.

A series of steps engineers use to solve problems

a)

Drag

b)

Engineering Design Process

c)

Parachute

d)

Aerospace Engineer

53.

Jerry has created a prototype of his design solution to address the issue of his bicycle falling over. What should he do next?

a)

Define the problem and goal

b)

Improve

c)

Create and test prototype

54.

What is the first step in the Design Process?

a)

Define the Problem and Goal

b)

Research

c)

Imagine Possible Solutions

55.

A person who uses their creativity and understanding of materials, tools, mathematics, and science to design things that solve problems.

a)

Engineering Design Process

b)

Engineer

c)

Scientist

56.

A sample product that is used to represent the actual product

a)

Constraints

b)

Trade-off

c)

Engineering Design Process

d)

Prototype

57.

What is the development of an entirely new technology, never previously known or seen?

a)

Innovation

b)

Invention

c)

Engineering

58.

Improvements to an invention are referred to as: (choose the best answer)

a)

Innovations

b)

Technology

c)

Engineering

59.

In which stage of the Engineering Design Process do you learn from your mistakes and enhance your design?

a)

ASK

b)

IMPROVE

c)

IMAGE

d)

CREATE

60.

In which stage of the Engineering Design Process would you check to see if your design is functioning correctly?

a)

PRESENT

b)

TEST

c)

CREATE

d)

IMPROVE

61.

A person who designs, builds, or maintains engines, machines, or public works is an ______________. There are more than four different types.

a)

client

b)

designer

c)

engineer

d)

builder

62.

1. What is the Engineering Design Process?

a)

A computer programme about engineering

b)

An assembly line that manufactures car parts

c)

An examination that professional engineers take annually to assess their knowledge

d)

A series of steps that engineers follow to develop a solution to a problem

63.

The testing stage of the Engineering Design Process typically involves multiple rounds of testing and redesigning before arriving at the final design.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

The final step of the Design Process is to

a)

communicate results

b)

iterate

c)

create a prototype

d)

analyse data

65.

Design solutions may include brainstorming, doodling, and creating sketches.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

This is the phase where you use your design to construct your experiment.

a)

design

b)

create

c)

test

d)

present

67.
Engineers are people who design and build things to solve _____
a)
riddles
b)
puzzles
c)
crosswords
d)
problems
68.

A series of steps that engineers use to guide them as they solve problems is called _____

a)

the engineering method

b)

the engineering process

c)

the engineering problem

d)

the scientific method

69.

When an engineer identifies a problem they hope to solve, the first thing they do is _____

a)

define the problem

b)

design your solution

c)

build a prototype

d)

test your solution

70.
Once you've figured out what problem you want to tackle, you need to _____
a)
do your research
b)
design your solution
c)
build a prototype
d)
test your solution
71.

What is the FIRST step in the Engineering Design Process?

a)

Define the problem.

b)

Identify constraints on your solution.

c)

Brainstorm solutions for the problem.

d)

Communicate your results.

72.

Once you have defined the problem and identified the constraints and requirements for success, you must...

a)

Define the problem.

b)

Determine which solution will be the best.

c)

Brainstorm multiple solutions.

d)

Brainstorm one possible solution.

73.

It is not important to iterate to improve your prototype.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

A group of students are designing a solar cooker. As part of the design process, the students must test a prototype to see if it is able to boil water. What should the students do just before they test it?

a)

Test and evaluate the prototype.

b)

Imagine possible solutions.

c)

Change the prototype and retest it.

d)

Plan and make a prototype.

e)

Identify and research a need.

75.

A group of students is designing a solar cooker. What should the students do immediately after they test and evaluate their solar cooker?

a)

Test and evaluate the prototype.

b)

Imagine possible solutions.

c)

Modify the prototype and retest it (iterate).

d)

Plan and construct a prototype.

e)

Identify and research a need.

76.

Which of the following is most likely part of the testing and evaluation stage of designing a mobile phone?

a)

Writing an advertisement for the phone.

b)

Figuring out the features of the phone.

c)

Finding the material to be used for the case.

d)

Using electrical volts to try to make the phone fail.

77.

Which describes the "Identify the Problem" part of the Engineering Design Process?

a)

Identification occurs when someone realises that a problem exists that needs to be solved.

b)

Definition occurs when someone realises exactly what the problem is.

c)

The requirements the solution must meet, such as what it must do.

d)

The limitations on the solution, such as a maximum size or budget.

78.

Which describes the "Constraints" part of the Engineering Design Process?

a)

Identification occurs when someone realises that a problem exists that needs to be solved.

b)

Definition occurs when someone realises exactly what the problem is.

c)

the requirements the solution must meet, such as what it must do.

d)

the limitations on the solution, such as a maximum size or budget.

79.

_________________________ is how people change the world around them to meet their needs or to solve problems

a)

Systems

b)

Processes

c)

Technology

d)

Science

80.

A flawed prototype is considered a(n) _____ the engineering design process.

a)

a. Failure of

b)

b. Rare occurrence in

c)

c. Argument against

d)

d. Normal part of

81.

The Engineering Design Process begins by considering three key questions about the problems you observe. Which of the following is NOT one of the three questions that assist you in defining the problem during the initial stage of the Engineering Design Process?

a)

What is the problem or need?

b)

What materials do I need?

c)

Who has the problem or need?

d)

Why is the problem important to solve?

82.

If you wanted to design a new and improved type of trainer, a good way to conduct background research and specify requirements for your new shoe would be to

a)

Visit a shoe shop and make notes about the key features of the trainers

b)

Observe at your school and make notes about which types of trainers are the most popular

c)

Discuss with your friends what they like and dislike about the trainers they own

d)

All of these

83.

The engineering design process is an iterative process. This means

a)

The engineering design process cannot be used in all areas of engineering.

b)

New ideas or information may require an engineer to repeat parts of the process multiple times.

c)

An engineer must go through every step of the process twice before the solution is satisfactory.

84.

What is the primary objective of Preventive Maintenance?

a)

To address problems as they occur

b)

To carry out maintenance only when equipment is not operational

c)

To ensure equipment remains operational and to prevent unexpected downtime

d)

To record and schedule maintenance activities

85.

Which type of maintenance requires documentation and scheduling?

a)

Planned Maintenance

b)

Reactive Maintenance

c)

Preventive Maintenance

d)

Shutdown Maintenance

86.

What is the primary focus of Reactive Maintenance?

a)

Preventing equipment failure

b)

Addressing problems when they arise

c)

Scheduling maintenance activities

d)

Performing maintenance during shutdowns

87.

Which type of maintenance is intended to prevent unexpected equipment failure?

a)

Planned Maintenance

b)

Reactive Maintenance

c)

Preventive Maintenance

d)

Shutdown Maintenance

88.

What is a critical task for machine operators regarding machine capacity?

a)

Reducing machine capacity

b)

Ensuring machines are working at full capacity

c)

Limiting machine usage

d)

Increasing machine downtime

89.

What additional devices do maintenance engineers use apart from computerised systems?

a)

Control and monitoring devices

b)

Communication devices

c)

Entertainment devices

d)

Navigation devices

90.

In what type of settings do maintenance engineers primarily work?

a)

Retail settings

b)

Industrial settings

c)

Educational settings

d)

Residential settings

91.

What effect do maintenance engineers have on costly breakdowns?

a)

They increase the frequency

b)

They reduce the incidence

c)

They have no impact

d)

They document them

92.

What is the purpose of arranging specialist procurement of fixtures, fittings, or components?

a)

To ensure the correct parts are available for maintenance

b)

To increase sales revenue

c)

To improve customer satisfaction

d)

To enhance employee training

93.

What is the role of writing maintenance strategies?

a)

To assist with installation and commissioning guidelines

b)

To develop new product lines

c)

To manage customer relationships

d)

To conduct market analysis

94.

What does dealing with unplanned problems involve?

a)

Handling emergencies and repairs

b)

Creating advertising campaigns

c)

Conducting training sessions

d)

Managing social media accounts

95.

Why is it important for maintenance managers to resolve minor problems?

a)

To save time

b)

To prevent them from becoming larger, more costly issues

c)

To avoid hiring more staff

d)

To increase production speed

96.

What is a key responsibility related to equipment inventory?

a)

Designing new equipment

b)

Monitoring equipment inventory and placing orders when necessary

c)

Conducting training workshops

d)

Developing marketing materials

97.

What does solving minor repair issues typically involve?

a)

Designing new repair tools

b)

Carrying out troubleshooting to resolve minor repair issues

c)

Conducting training workshops

d)

Developing marketing materials

98.

Which type of maintenance involves repairing equipment after a failure has occurred?

a)

Preventive Maintenance

b)

Predictive Maintenance

c)

Corrective Maintenance

d)

Condition-Based Maintenance

99.

Which type of maintenance is determined by the actual condition of the equipment, rather than following a fixed schedule?

a)

Preventive Maintenance

b)

Predictive Maintenance

c)

Corrective Maintenance

d)

Condition-Based Maintenance

100.

What is the primary benefit of condition-based maintenance?

a)

It reduces the need for spare parts

b)

It eliminates the need for maintenance

c)

It ensures maintenance is only performed when necessary

d)

It increases the frequency of maintenance tasks

101.

What does Reliability Centred Maintenance mean in a manufacturing context?

a)

A maintenance strategy focusing on non-essential components.

b)

A maintenance strategy focusing on critical components to ensure reliability and prioritise tasks.

c)

Randomly assigning maintenance tasks without prioritisation.

d)

Ignoring critical components in maintenance planning.

102.

What does CMMS stand for when working with maintenance strategies?

a)

Controlled Maintenance Management Software

b)

Complete Management and Maintenance System

c)

Computerised Maintenance Management System

d)

Centralised Maintenance Monitoring System

103.

What are the specific advantages of using a CMMS in a maintenance programme? Select all that apply.

a)

Inventory management

b)

PM scheduling

c)

Collect historical data on machines

d)

Work order generation

104.

________ provide real-time information about the condition of a machine.

a)

Condition monitoring

b)

Preventive maintenance

c)

Scheduled maintenance

d)

None of them

105.

The function of lubricants is

a)

Reduce friction

b)

To cool components

c)

Clean the load bearing surface

d)

All of the above

106.

Regular monitoring of the condition of tools and equipment reduces the risk of accidents in the workplace.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

To prevent rust and corrosion, proper maintenance and lubrication of tools is essential.

a)

True

b)

False

108.

An automated factory is required to have _________ at different levels in the production system.

a)

Sensors

b)

Human intervention

c)

Robots

d)

Supervisors

109.

Which of the following are the importance of site records?

I. Reduce delays

II. Gain clearer insight into the site

III. Track the progress of tasks

IV. Avoid any extra charges by suppliers

a)

I, II, and III

b)

II, III, and IV

c)

I, II, and IV

d)

All of the above

110.

Vibration analysis is the most common method for monitoring the condition of a rotating machine.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

111.

Functional and defective tools are both serviceable.

a)

True

b)

False

112.

What is the premise of a culture of quality?

a)

A single tool can guarantee quality.

b)

No single tool, test, or person can guarantee quality.

c)

Only tests can ensure quality.

d)

Quality is guaranteed by one person.

113.

According to ISO 9000:2015, what is Quality Assurance (QA) a part of?

a)

Quality management focused on detection

b)

Quality management focused on prevention

c)

Quality management focused on providing confidence

d)

Quality management focused on correction

114.

Which approach is associated with QC?

a)

Proactive strategy

b)

Reactive strategy

c)

Process-orientated

d)

Prevention of defects

115.

What does QA stand for in the context of quality management?

a)

Quality Assurance

b)

Quality Assessment

c)

Quality Adjustment

d)

Quality Analysis

116.

QA is a management approach to ensure what?

a)

Quality standards and customer requirements are met

b)

Products are delivered on time

c)

Employees are well-trained

d)

Costs are minimised

117.

QA is fundamentally focused on which aspect of processes?

a)

Planning and documenting

b)

Speed and efficiency

c)

Cost and savings

d)

Innovation and creativity

118.

What is included in QA to assure quality?

a)

Meeting requirements of quality, inspection, and test plans

b)

Increasing production speed

c)

Reducing marketing costs

d)

Enhancing customer service

119.

What is the role of inspection and testing in QA systems?

a)

To reduce production costs

b)

To ensure product quality

c)

To enhance marketing strategies

d)

To increase employee productivity

120.

What does the 'Plan' phase in TQM focus on?

a)

Implementing processes

b)

Formulating objectives and processes

c)

Monitoring processes

d)

Adapting processes

121.

What is the ultimate goal of TQM in terms of customer experience?

a)

To reduce customer interaction

b)

To improve customer experience

c)

To increase customer complaints

d)

To ignore customer feedback

122.

Which of the following best describes the 'Act' phase in TQM?

a)

Implementing new processes

b)

Monitoring existing processes

c)

Adapting and improving processes

d)

Formulating new objectives

123.

Which of the following best describes quality?

a)

The service provided to a customer before, during and after purchasing.

b)

Products being manufactured to a high standard to meet customer requirements.

c)

A high level of productivity.

124.

Which of the following is usually true about poor-quality products?

a)

They are in demand

b)

They fail to meet customers' expectations

c)

They are expensive

125.

What occurs when a business manufactures defective goods?

a)

It increases costs

b)

It increases costs and damages the reputation of the firm

c)

It is an example of Total Quality Management

126.

A business checks products after they are made. What is this an example of?

a)

Quality Control

b)

Quality Circles

c)

Quality Assurance

127.

When products are checked at each stage of production, what is this an example of?

a)

Quality Control

b)

Quality Circles

c)

Quality Assurance

128.

What is the most effective method for improving quality?

a)

Expansion

b)

Reducing costs

c)

Staff and management training

129.

Proactive Approach

a)

Quality Assurance

b)

Quality Control

130.

Reactive Approach

a)

Quality Assurance

b)

Quality Control

131.

What is the purpose of Quality Control in the manufacturing industry?

a)

Speed up the process

b)

Monitor the process

c)

Improve the quality of the product

d)

Reduce the cost of manufacturing

132.

What are the principal methods of Quality Assurance?

a)

Team reviews and Six Sigma

b)

Inspection and Testing

c)

Sampling and Inspection

d)

Pressure and Heat Treatments

133.

What are the common types of Quality Control processes?

a)

Team Review, Verification, Validation

b)

Analysis, Documentation, Inspection

c)

Optimisation, Feedback, Benchmarking

d)

Statistical Quality Control, Benchmarking, Evaluation

134.

Which of the following is a Quality Control principle?

a)

Do it right the first time

b)

Test and measure everything

c)

Develop inspection systems

d)

Evaluate the risk of mistakes

135.

TQM stands for:

a)

Total quality management

b)

Total quality measurement

c)

Total quantity management

d)

None of the above

136.

When setting quality objectives, ________ should be considered.

a)

Customer need

b)

Organisational need

c)

Supplier need

d)

Worker need

137.

Which of the following is responsible for quality objectives?

a)

Top-level management

b)

Middle-level management

c)

Frontline management

d)

All of the above

138.

What is ISO?

a)

Indian organisation for standard

b)

Internal organisation for standard

c)

International organisation for standard

d)

None of the above

139.

TQM seeks out companies to identify improvement ideas for itself. What is this process called?

a)

Benchmarking

b)

Investigating

c)

Improvement copying

d)

Research

140.

Continuous improvement means...

a)

constantly introducing small incremental changes in a business in order to improve quality and/or efficiency.

b)

Introducing big changes in a business in order to improve quality and/or efficiency.

c)

Introducing changes only when needed in order to improve quality and/or efficiency.

141.

Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses on

a)

Employee

b)

Customer

c)

Both Employee and Customer

d)

None of the above

142.

Within an organisation, who holds responsibility for quality?

a)

Quality Management Department

b)

Production Department

c)

The entire organisation

d)

None of the above

143.

What is the key skill required for successful organisational change?

a)

Leadership

b)

Motivation

c)

Communication

d)

Engagement

144.

What is the main disadvantage of relying solely on quality control to assess the quality of a product?

a)

There will be an increase in waste

b)

It's a waste of time

c)

Customers won't notice a few faults

d)

Staff will find it very difficult

145.

When is the quality of a product assessed using quality assurance methods?

a)

At the end of the production process

b)

Never

c)

At the start of the production process

d)

At each stage of the production process

146.

Which one of the following is NOT included among the Three Key Performance Criteria?

a)

Quality

b)

Cost

c)

Time

d)

Materials

147.

Select True or False for the statement:


Total Quality Management (TQM) does not emphasise customers when delivering quality approaches

a)

True

b)

False

148.

Select True or False for the statement:


The main aim of TQM is to address problems that exist within the work system.

a)

True

b)

False

149.

Select the three (3) types of quality approaches.

a)

Quality of Materials

b)

Quality of Design/redesign

c)

Quality of Performance

d)

Quality of Conformance

e)

Quality of Cost

150.

Select the benefits of TQM.

a)

Providing a competitive advantage in the industry

b)

Cost efficiency

c)

Enhancing the productivity level

d)

Enriching the knowledge of the parties involved

e)

Ensuring projects are monopolised by the private sector

151.

"Improving quality through small, incremental improvements"


is a characteristic of which type of quality management system?

a)

Just-in-time

b)

Six Sigma

c)

5S

d)

Kaizen

152.

Which of the following are key components of a Total Quality Management system?

a)

Individual responsibility, incremental improvement, use of raw data

b)

Collective responsibility, continual improvement, use of raw data

c)

Group responsibility, staged improvement, knowledge

d)

Involves everyone, continual improvement, use of data and knowledge

153.

Which of the following is not a principal focus of TQM?

a)

Customer satisfaction

b)

Efficiency, effectiveness and process

c)

Annual profit

d)

Total involvement of people within an organisation