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Electrolytes, RAAS & Hemodynamics — Advanced Practice Quiz

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient receiving IV furosemide is at greatest risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

a)

A. Hypokalemia

b)

B. Hypernatremia

c)

C. Hypermagnesemia

d)

D. Hypercalcemia

2.

The primary extracellular cation that regulates fluid balance is:

a)

A. Sodium

b)

B. Potassium

c)

C. Calcium

d)

D. Magnesium

3.

The hormone that directly increases sodium and water reabsorption in the kidneys is:

a)

A. Aldosterone

b)

B. ADH

c)

C. ANP

d)

D. Cortisol

4.

Activation of the RAAS causes which hemodynamic effect?

a)

A. Vasoconstriction and increased blood volume

b)

B. Vasodilation and diuresis

c)

C. Decreased sodium retention

d)

D. Reduced afterload

5.

A hypertonic IV solution will cause cells to:

a)

A. Shrink as water moves out

b)

B. Swell as water moves in

c)

C. Lyse immediately

d)

D. Remain unchanged

6.

A patient with serum potassium = 2.4 mEq/L is at risk for:

a)

A. U-waves and dysrhythmias

b)

B. Hyperreflexia and tetany

c)

C. Respiratory alkalosis

d)

D. Bradycardia only

7.

Which insulin action affects potassium?

a)

A. Shifts K+ into cells via Na+-K+ ATPase

b)

B. Blocks renal excretion of K+

c)

C. Promotes K+ release from muscle

d)

D. Inhibits cellular uptake

8.

Which ECG finding is typical of mild hyperkalemia?

a)

A. Tall peaked T waves

b)

B. U-waves

c)

C. Flattened T waves

d)

D. Prolonged PR interval

9.

Which electrolyte imbalance produces tetany and positive Chvostek/Trousseau signs?

a)

A. Hypomagnesemia

b)

B. Hyperkalemia

c)

C. Hypernatremia

d)

D. Hypermagnesemia

10.

Severe hypermagnesemia may cause:

a)

A. Respiratory depression and bradycardia

b)

B. Seizures and hyperreflexia

c)

C. Muscle spasm

d)

D. Tachycardia and hypertension

11.

Calcium balance is primarily maintained by:

a)

A. PTH, Vitamin D, and Calcitonin

b)

B. ADH and Aldosterone

c)

C. Insulin and Glucagon

d)

D. Thyroxine and Cortisol

12.

Which electrolyte is most abundant in bone?

a)

A. Calcium

b)

B. Sodium

c)

C. Potassium

d)

D. Magnesium

13.

Hypocalcemia would most directly impair:

a)

A. Blood clotting and muscle contraction

b)

B. Glycogen breakdown

c)

C. Nitrogen balance

d)

D. Cholesterol synthesis

14.

A client with renal failure develops magnesium = 3.8 mEq/L. Which assessment is priority?

a)

A. Respiratory rate and depth

b)

B. Urine output

c)

C. Pupillary reaction

d)

D. Skin turgor

15.

Which condition is most associated with positive Trousseau sign?

a)

A. Hypomagnesemia or hypocalcemia

b)

B. Hyperkalemia

c)

C. Hyponatremia

d)

D. Hypernatremia

16.

The major intracellular cation is:

a)

Potassium

b)

Sodium

c)

Chloride

d)

Bicarbonate

17.

Which electrolyte abnormality depresses skeletal muscle and nerve conduction?

a)

Hypermagnesemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypocalcemia

d)

Hypernatremia

18.

A nurse expects Chvostek’s sign in which disorder?

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Hypernatremia

d)

Hyperkalemia

19.

Which mechanism best explains why sodium and water balance are linked?

a)

Water follows osmotic gradients created by sodium concentration

b)

Sodium is secreted by ADH

c)

Water diffuses independently of electrolytes

d)

Potassium drives plasma osmolality

20.

A patient with hyponatremia secondary to SIADH would exhibit:

a)

Cellular swelling and confusion

b)

Cellular dehydration

c)

Polyuria and thirst

d)

Hypertension only

21.

Which component of the vascular wall provides elastic recoil during diastole?

a)

Tunica media (smooth muscle and elastic fibers)

b)

Tunica intima

c)

Endothelium only

d)

Basement membrane

22.

Which vessel layer is most involved in atherosclerosis?

a)

Tunica intima (endothelium)

b)

Tunica media

c)

Tunica externa

d)

Vasa vasorum

23.

A rise in systemic vascular resistance (SVR) will cause:

a)

Increased afterload

b)

Decreased preload

c)

Reduced stroke volume

d)

Increased venous return

24.

Baroreceptors located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch respond to:

a)

Changes in arterial pressure

b)

Blood oxygen levels

c)

Carbon dioxide tension

d)

Plasma osmolality

25.

A patient experiences orthostatic hypotension. The nurse recognizes this results from:

a)

Failure of compensatory vasoconstriction upon standing

b)

Excess aldosterone

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Decreased plasma proteins

26.

Which vessel primarily controls arteriolar resistance and blood flow distribution?

a)

Arterioles

b)

Capillaries

c)

Venules

d)

Veins

27.

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is most affected by:

a)

Cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance

b)

Stroke volume only

c)

Heart rate alone

d)

Venous capacitance

28.

Aging causes arteries to become stiffer, which primarily:

a)

Raises systolic pressure

b)

Lowers pulse pressure

c)

Reduces afterload

d)

Prevents plaque formation

29.

Which factor promotes venous return?

a)

Skeletal muscle contraction

b)

Arterial vasoconstriction only

c)

Increased venous compliance

d)

Valsalva maneuver

30.

Which best describes Starling’s law of the capillaries?

a)

Fluid movement depends on balance between hydrostatic and oncotic pressures

b)

Blood flow is proportional to vessel radius4

c)

Venous return equals cardiac output

d)

Osmotic pressure is independent of protein concentration