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BIO 141: Ch 12 Review

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Recall the direction each neuronal process carries impulses: Which statement correctly distinguishes axons from dendrites?

a)

Axons carry impulses toward the cell body; dendrites carry impulses away from the cell body.

b)

Axons carry impulses away from the cell body; dendrites carry impulses toward the cell body.

c)

Both axons and dendrites carry impulses toward the cell body.

d)

Both axons and dendrites carry impulses away from the cell body.

2.

Identify the structure that forms where the cell body tapers to become the axon.

a)

Axon terminal

b)

Axon hillock

c)

Node of Ranvier

d)

Nissl body

3.

In the peripheral nervous system, neuron cell bodies are clustered in masses called (a)   .

4.

Which glial cell type myelinates axons in the peripheral nervous system?

a)

Oligodendrocytes

b)

Schwann cells (neurilemmocytes)

c)

Astrocytes

d)

Microglia

5.

What is the name of the outer layer of the myelin sheath produced by Schwann cells?

a)

Endoneurium

b)

Perineurium

c)

Neurilemma

d)

Epineurium

6.

Which structure is described as cytoplasmic extensions that receive impulses toward the cell body?

a)

Axon

b)

Dendrites

c)

Myelin sheath

d)

Nissl bodies

7.

According to the labeled neuron diagram, which part transmits signals to another cell at the far end of the axon? (Use the visual.)

a)

Dendritic spines

b)

Axon hillock

c)

Telodendria/axon terminals

d)

Nodes of Ranvier

8.

What is the junction called between a telodendrion and a skeletal muscle fiber?

a)

Neuromuscular junction (motor end plate)

b)

Axosomatic synapse

c)

Electrical synapse

d)

Dendrodendritic synapse

9.

Which neuroglial cell type is most numerous in the CNS and helps maintain the blood-brain barrier?

a)

Microglia

b)

Ependymal cells

c)

Astrocytes

d)

Oligodendrocytes

10.

Match the CNS neuroglia to their primary function: Which pairing is correct?

a)

Ependymal cells — myelinate CNS axons

b)

Oligodendrocytes — monitor cerebrospinal fluid

c)

Microglia — phagocytose wastes and pathogens

d)

Astrocytes — line ventricles and central canal

11.

In ganglia of the PNS, which neuroglia surround neuron cell bodies and regulate O2, CO2, nutrients, and neurotransmitter levels?

a)

Satellite cells

b)

Schwann cells

c)

Ependymal cells

d)

Microglia

12.

Which statement best differentiates myelination in the CNS versus the PNS?

a)

CNS axons are myelinated by Schwann cells, while PNS axons are myelinated by oligodendrocytes.

b)

Both CNS and PNS axons are myelinated by astrocytes.

c)

CNS axons are myelinated by oligodendrocytes, while PNS axons are myelinated by Schwann cells.

d)

Only PNS axons are myelinated; CNS axons are unmyelinated.

13.

Which CNS neuroglia line the ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord, assisting in producing, circulating, and monitoring cerebrospinal fluid?

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Ependymal cells

c)

Oligodendrocytes

d)

Microglia

14.

Identify the term for dendritic structures that provide increased surface area for synaptic input on the neuron diagram. (Use the visual.)

a)

Dendritic spines

b)

Nodes of Ranvier

c)

Axon collaterals

d)

Nissl bodies

15.

Reasoning item: If the myelin sheath is damaged in the PNS but the neurilemma remains intact, which cell type participates in repair and what functional consequence is expected?

a)

Astrocytes participate; faster conduction is maintained.

b)

Schwann cells participate; conduction velocity initially decreases.

c)

Oligodendrocytes participate; conduction velocity increases.

d)

Microglia participate; conduction remains unchanged.

16.

Strategic thinking: A toxin selectively disrupts the blood-brain barrier’s filtering mechanism. Which neuroglia are primarily affected, and what risk to CNS homeostasis increases?

a)

Ependymal cells; impaired CSF production causing reduced nutrient delivery

b)

Astrocytes; increased passage of harmful substances from general circulation

c)

Microglia; decreased phagocytosis of debris leading to toxin buildup

d)

Oligodendrocytes; loss of myelin causing immediate synaptic failure

17.

Refer to the diagram of a peripheral neuron showing a long axon wrapped by segmented coverings. Which labeled structure corresponds to the myelin sheath formed by a Schwann cell around the axon?

a)

The gaps between adjacent coverings along the axon

b)

The multilayered, lipid-rich wrapping encircling the axon

c)

The enlarged region containing the neuron's nucleus

d)

The short tapering processes extending from the soma

18.

On the same neuron diagram, what is the functional name for the narrow interruptions between adjacent myelin segments along a peripheral axon?

a)

Axon hillocks

b)

Nodes of Ranvier

c)

Synaptic clefts

d)

Initial segments

19.

Complete the statement based on the electron micrograph inset: The compact, concentric layers encircling the axon in the PNS are produced by the membrane of a single (a)   cell.

20.

In the cross-sectional magnified inset of the myelinated axon, which component lies at the very center of the myelin wraps?

a)

Schwann cell nucleus

b)

Axoplasm of the axon

c)

Endoneurium collagen fibers

d)

Perikaryon cytoplasm

21.

Examine the bundle image showing many small circular axons enclosed by a single yellowish glial cell at the periphery. This arrangement illustrates which Schwann cell relationship in the PNS?

a)

One Schwann cell myelinating multiple large axons

b)

Several Schwann cells surrounding a single dendrite

c)

A single nonmyelinating Schwann cell enveloping multiple small axons

d)

Oligodendrocyte processes myelinating many CNS axons

22.

Based on the longitudinal view of the peripheral axon ensheathed by sequential Schwann cells, which statement best explains how thick myelin is achieved around a single axon in the PNS?

a)

Multiple Schwann cells each extend thin processes to different axons simultaneously

b)

A single Schwann cell wraps its plasma membrane repeatedly around one axon segment to form compact myelin

c)

Myelin arises from extracellular matrix proteins secreted by fibroblasts

d)

Axonal microtubules polymerize into insulating layers external to the membrane

23.

From the micrograph pointing to two closely apposed dark lines within the myelin wrap, what structure do these lines represent in compact PNS myelin?

a)

Intraperiod and major dense lines formed by apposed Schwann cell membranes

b)

Actin stress fibers in endoneurium

c)

Tight junctions between endothelial cells

d)

Neurofilament bundles inside the axon

24.

Fill in the blank using the labeled longitudinal diagram: Each discrete myelin segment along a peripheral axon corresponds to one (a)   cell.

25.

Which statement best defines demyelination as presented:

a)

Progressive destruction of myelin sheaths causing loss of sensation and motor control

b)

Acute swelling of axons that increases nerve conduction velocity

c)

Replacement of myelin with collagen to strengthen peripheral nerves

d)

Temporary blockage of synaptic vesicle release without structural damage

26.

Identify the condition described: a bacterial disease that damages Schwann cells and destroys myelin sheaths in the peripheral nervous system.

a)

Multiple sclerosis

b)

Diphtheria

c)

Guillain–Barré syndrome

d)

Heavy-metal poisoning

27.

Fill in the blank with the exact term: The tapered region at the caudal end of the adult spinal cord, located between lumbar vertebrae L1 and L2, is called the (a)   .

28.

Which pairing is correct regarding the spinal cord’s extensions and associated structures?

a)

The filum terminale extends from the conus medullaris to about S2 and contributes to the coccygeal ligament

b)

The cauda equina is a single thick nerve exiting at L1 that anchors the cord to the sacrum

c)

The cervical enlargement lies at the caudal end and gives rise to pelvic nerves

d)

The lumbosacral enlargement is restricted to thoracic segments and contains only sensory fibers

29.

A young adult presents with numbness and progressive motor deficits. Imaging shows widespread loss of CNS myelin with no identified cause. Based on the text, which diagnosis is most consistent with these findings, including its epidemiology?

a)

Diphtheria; most common in tropical climates and equally common in men and women

b)

Heavy-metal poisoning; usually more common in adolescents than adults

c)

Multiple sclerosis; most common demyelinating disease of young adults, more frequent in women and in persons of Northern European descent

d)

Acute arsenic neuropathy; primarily affects Schwann cells in the PNS with male predominance

30.

According to the description, which substances are implicated in causing neuroglial damage that can lead to demyelination?

a)

Lead, mercury, and arsenic ions

b)

Calcium and potassium ions

c)

Glucose and lipid metabolites

d)

Nitric oxide and carbon monoxide gases

31.

Refer to the schematic sequence of a myelinated axon shown in the figure: which visual cue indicates demyelination?

a)

Thick, continuous concentric wraps surrounding the axon with intact myelin

b)

Progressive loss and disruption of the myelin layers exposing more of the axon

c)

Expansion of the axon diameter with added layers of myelin lamellae

d)

Appearance of new nodes of Ranvier at regular intervals without myelin loss

32.

According to the diagram of the adult spinal cord, which region contains 8 pairs of spinal nerves labeled C1–C8?

a)

Cervical region

b)

Thoracic region

c)

Lumbar region

d)

Sacral region

33.

How many pairs of thoracic spinal nerves are present, designated T1–T12?

a)

8 pairs

b)

10 pairs

c)

12 pairs

d)

14 pairs

34.

Fill in the blank: The single pair of spinal nerves at the most caudal end are the (a)   nerves (Co1).

35.

Which grouping correctly matches a nerve region with the plexus or nerve network it forms?

a)

Cervical nerves form the intercostal nerves

b)

Thoracic nerves form the brachial plexus

c)

Lumbar nerves contribute to the lumbar plexus

d)

Sacral nerves form the cervical plexus

36.

Spinal nerves pass through which opening of the vertebrae to exit the vertebral column?

a)

Vertebral canal

b)

Transverse foramen

c)

Intervertebral foramen

d)

Spinal cistern

37.

Which statement best distinguishes white matter from gray matter inside the spinal cord?

a)

White matter contains neuron cell bodies; gray matter contains myelinated axons

b)

White matter consists of myelinated axons; gray matter consists of neuron cell bodies

c)

Both white and gray matter are primarily cerebrospinal fluid spaces

d)

White matter is only present in the brain, not the spinal cord

38.

Each spinal segment has two roots. Which root carries sensory information into the spinal cord and is associated with a dorsal root ganglion?

a)

Anterior (ventral) root

b)

Posterior (dorsal) root

c)

Lateral root

d)

Commissural root

39.

Fill in the blank: Motor information exits the spinal cord via the (a)   roots.

40.

Refer to the posterior view diagram of the adult spinal cord showing colored nerve groups. Which colored group innervates the sacral region and lower limb via the sacral plexus?

a)

Blue cervical nerves near the neck

b)

Orange thoracic intercostal nerves along the ribs

c)

Green lumbar nerves forming the lumbar plexus

d)

Purple sacral nerves descending into the pelvis

41.

In the cross-sectional diagram of a representative spinal cord segment, which area corresponds to gray matter?

a)

Peripheral lighter-colored region containing longitudinal tracts

b)

Central butterfly-shaped region with neuronal cell bodies

c)

Dorsal and ventral roots outside the cord

d)

Central canal only

42.

According to the diagram text, which space directly lies inferior to the dura mater?

a)

Subarachnoid space

b)

Subdural space

c)

Epidural space

d)

Central canal

43.

Which structure prevents lateral movement of the spinal cord, as noted in the diagram description?

a)

Filum terminale

b)

Denticulate ligaments

c)

Dorsal root ganglia

d)

Cauda equina

44.

Fill in the blank with the precise term: The outermost meningeal layer surrounding the spinal cord is the (a)   .

45.

Fill in the blank with the precise term: The thin, delicate meningeal layer that closely adheres to the surface of the spinal cord is the (a)   .

46.

In the labeling figure of the spinal cord and meninges, which layer would be found immediately superficial to the subarachnoid space?

a)

Pia mater

b)

Arachnoid mater

c)

Dura mater

d)

Epidural fat

47.

In the cross-sectional diagram, what tissue or material would you expect in the epidural space lining the walls of the vertebral canal?

a)

Cerebrospinal fluid and trabeculae

b)

Adipose tissue and blood vessels

c)

Dense cartilage and lymph

d)

Compact bone only

48.

In the large labeling diagram of the spinal cord, which structure directly invests the surface of the spinal cord and sends denticulate ligaments laterally?

a)

Dura mater

b)

Arachnoid mater

c)

Pia mater

d)

Periosteum of vertebra

49.

Which space would be accessed to collect cerebrospinal fluid during a lumbar puncture, based on the description?

a)

Epidural space

b)

Subdural space

c)

Subarachnoid space

d)

Intervertebral foramen

50.

Which best explains the protective role of cerebrospinal fluid as stated in the material?

a)

It forms a rigid brace that immobilizes the cord.

b)

It acts as a shock-absorbing protective layer and transports dissolved substances.

c)

It increases bone density of the vertebrae.

d)

It insulates axons to speed conduction.

51.

In the sequence activity moving inward from the vertebral canal walls to the spinal cord, which of the following would logically appear before the arachnoid mater?

a)

Pia mater

b)

Subarachnoid space

c)

Dura mater

d)

Central canal

52.

Fill in the blank with the precise term: Lateral stabilization of the spinal cord within the subarachnoid space is provided by (a)   .

53.

Recall: What is the medical term for removing cerebrospinal fluid by inserting a needle into the subarachnoid space between the L3 and L4 vertebrae?

a)

Epidural block

b)

Lumbar puncture (spinal tap)

c)

Spinal fusion

d)

Laminectomy

54.

Recall: Between which vertebral levels is a lumbar puncture typically performed to avoid injuring the spinal cord?

a)

Between C7 and T1

b)

Between T12 and L1

c)

Between L3 and L4

d)

Between S1 and S2

55.

Skill/Concept: An epidural anesthetic blocks pain by being injected into which anatomical space, and what is its primary purpose at the injection site?

a)

Subarachnoid space; causes temporary motor and sensory loss

b)

Epidural space; blocks pain in the immediate area of injection

c)

Intramedullary space; blocks pain for the entire dermatomal map

d)

Perineural space; causes permanent sensory loss

56.

Skill/Concept: Spinal anesthesia is injected into the subarachnoid space. Which immediate physiological effects are expected according to the material?

a)

Temporary muscle paralysis and sensory loss

b)

Long-term enhancement of reflexes

c)

Selective blockage of pain without motor effects

d)

Permanent loss of motor function only

57.

Strategic Thinking: A clinician needs cerebrospinal fluid for diagnostic testing while minimizing risk of spinal cord injury. Based on the material, explain the optimal vertebral level selection and rationale, then choose the best option.

a)

Perform the puncture between C5 and C6 because the cervical cord ends superiorly

b)

Perform the puncture between L3 and L4 because the spinal cord ends superior to this lower lumbar region

c)

Perform the puncture between T5 and T6 to avoid the thoracic nerve roots

d)

Perform the puncture between S3 and S4 because the sacral canal is widest

58.

Recall: Define a dermatome as presented in the material.

a)

A unilateral skin patch supplied by multiple cranial nerves

b)

A bilateral skin region monitored by a single pair of spinal nerves

c)

A muscle compartment innervated by a peripheral nerve plexus

d)

A vascular territory of a single segmental artery

59.

Strategic Thinking with visual reference: Using the anterior–posterior dermatome diagram, which spinal cord region primarily innervates the skin over the anterior thigh?

a)

Cervical region

b)

Thoracic region

c)

Lumbar region

d)

Sacral region

60.

Recall: Which virus causes shingles and also causes chickenpox?

a)

Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)

b)

Varicella zoster virus (VZV)

c)

Epstein–Barr virus (EBV)

d)

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

61.

Skill/Concept: According to the passage, where does the varicella zoster virus remain dormant after chickenpox before it can later cause shingles?

a)

Within keratinocytes of the epidermis

b)

In lymph nodes of the cervical chain

c)

Within neurons of the anterior horns of the spinal cord

d)

Inside hepatocytes of the liver

62.

Strategic Thinking: A clinician is advising a 55-year-old adult with prior chickenpox on reducing shingles risk. Based on the passage, which preventive action offers the highest level of protection for this age group?

a)

Receiving one dose of the childhood varicella vaccine to boost immunity

b)

Avoiding contact with anyone who ever had chickenpox

c)

Getting the Shingrix vaccine series (two doses) which offers about 90% protection

d)

Taking daily acyclovir for life as prophylaxis

63.

Skill/Concept: According to the passage, how can the varicella zoster virus spread from a person with active shingles to cause chickenpox in someone who is susceptible?

a)

Through airborne transmission over long distances

b)

Via direct contact with fluid from the rash blisters

c)

By sharing utensils after the rash has crusted

d)

Through mosquito bites in endemic regions

64.

Recall: What approximate reduction in shingles risk is conferred by the childhood chickenpox (varicella) vaccine introduced in 1996?

a)

About 25% lower risk

b)

About 50% lower risk

c)

About 78% lower risk

d)

About 95% lower risk

65.

Skill/Concept: Identify the medications listed as treatments for shingles in the passage.

a)

Acyclovir, famciclovir, valacyclovir

b)

Penicillin, amoxicillin, doxycycline

c)

Oseltamivir, zanamivir, baloxavir

d)

Ritonavir, lopinavir, darunavir

66.

Strategic Thinking: The passage notes shingles often presents as a stripe of blisters on one side of the body. Using the diagram that highlights band-like regions on the torso and head, what feature of shingles distribution does this pattern illustrate?

a)

Diffuse bilateral involvement due to hematogenous spread

b)

Dermatomal, unilateral distribution corresponding to sensory nerve territories

c)

Random patches due to localized skin trauma

d)

Symmetric involvement of paired nerves across midline

67.

Which statement best describes a nerve plexus as introduced in this section?

a)

A branching network formed by groups of spinal nerves

b)

A single large sensory nerve supplying the entire limb

c)

A cluster of neuron cell bodies inside the brainstem

d)

A protective connective tissue sheath around a nerve fiber

68.

Identify the plexus source for the sciatic nerve based on the text: The large sciatic nerve found in the posterior leg is from the (a)   plexus.

69.

According to the summary, which spinal nerve is located in the anterior leg and arises from the lumbar plexus?

a)

Sciatic nerve

b)

Femoral nerve

c)

Tibial nerve

d)

Common fibular nerve

70.

Which pairing correctly matches a listed nerve with its noted function or territory from the section?

a)

Phrenic nerve — innervates diaphragm; skin and muscles of shoulder and neck

b)

Axillary nerve — supplies the anterior leg and foot

c)

Sciatic nerve — branches into radial and ulnar nerves above the knee

d)

Sural nerve — largest nerve in the body

71.

The section states that the sciatic nerve splits just above the knee. Which two nerves does it form?

a)

Radial and ulnar nerves

b)

Median and ulnar nerves

c)

Common fibular and tibial nerves

d)

Femoral and obturator nerves

72.

A student experiences a temporary numbness and a “pins and needles” sensation in the foot after sitting with legs crossed. Based on the explanation provided, what is the most likely immediate cause?

a)

Permanent degeneration of peripheral nerve axons

b)

Temporary compression of a peripheral nerve or its blood supply

c)

Autoimmune attack on myelin in the central nervous system

d)

Complete transection of the sciatic nerve

73.

From the list of individual spinal nerves to identify, which group consists entirely of nerves associated with the lower limb?

a)

Femoral, obturator, tibial, common fibular, saphenous

b)

Phrenic, axillary, median, radial, ulnar

c)

Musculocutaneous, axillary, pudendal, phrenic

d)

Gluteal, radial, median, sural

74.

In the general posterior view of nerve plexuses and peripheral nerves, which plexus supplies the upper limb via cords that continue into the axilla?

a)

Cervical plexus

b)

Brachial plexus

c)

Lumbar plexus

d)

Sacral plexus

75.

On the general plexus diagram, which region contains the phrenic nerve origin that descends to the diaphragm?

a)

Cervical plexus at C3–C5

b)

Brachial plexus at C5–T1

c)

Lumbar plexus at L1–L4

d)

Sacral plexus at L4–S4

76.

Identify the plexus that primarily innervates the anterior thigh muscles in the general diagram.

a)

Brachial plexus

b)

Lumbar plexus

c)

Cervical plexus

d)

Coccygeal plexus

77.

In the general diagram, the sciatic nerve branches are traced from which plexus?

a)

Cervical plexus

b)

Brachial plexus

c)

Lumbar plexus

d)

Sacral plexus

78.

BLANK: The plexus that gives rise to major nerves of the shoulder and upper limb is the (a)   plexus.

79.

On the cervical plexus diagram, which named nerve descends along the anterior scalene muscle to the thorax to supply the diaphragm?

a)

Lesser occipital nerve

b)

Transverse cervical nerve

c)

Phrenic nerve

d)

Supraclavicular nerves

80.

In the cervical plexus image, which cutaneous branch curves posterior to the ear to supply the scalp behind the auricle?

a)

Great auricular nerve

b)

Lesser occipital nerve

c)

Transverse cervical nerve

d)

Ansa cervicalis

81.

According to the cervical plexus diagram, the great auricular nerve primarily ascends toward which surface landmark?

a)

Tip of the nose

b)

Parotid region and auricle

c)

Occipital protuberance

d)

Suprasternal notch

82.

BLANK: The loop formed by cervical nerve fibers that provides motor innervation to infrahyoid muscles is called the ______ ______.

a)

carotid plexus

b)

ansa cervicalis

c)

phrenic nerve

d)

cervical ganglion

83.

In the cervical plexus diagram, which branch traverses horizontally across the superficial neck to the anterior triangle skin?

a)

Transverse cervical nerve

b)

Supraclavicular nerves

c)

Accessory nerve

d)

Hypoglossal nerve

84.

The supraclavicular nerves in the cervical plexus image descend to supply which area?

a)

Lower lip mucosa

b)

Anterior and lateral neck skin

c)

Skin over the clavicle and shoulder

d)

Tongue intrinsic muscles

85.

In the brachial plexus diagram of the upper limb, which nerve runs posterior to the humerus in the radial groove and continues to the posterior forearm?

a)

Median nerve

b)

Ulnar nerve

c)

Radial nerve

d)

Musculocutaneous nerve

86.

Based on the brachial plexus image, which nerve travels along the medial arm and behind the medial epicondyle to enter the forearm?

a)

Median nerve

b)

Ulnar nerve

c)

Axillary nerve

d)

Musculocutaneous nerve

87.

In the brachial plexus diagram, which nerve passes through the carpal tunnel to the lateral palm and thenar region?

a)

Ulnar nerve

b)

Radial nerve

c)

Median nerve

d)

Axillary nerve

88.

The axillary nerve in the brachial plexus image courses through the quadrangular space to innervate which region?

a)

Anterior forearm flexor compartment

b)

Deltoid and teres minor region

c)

Thenar eminence

d)

Dorsal interossei

89.

BLANK: The nerve that pierces the coracobrachialis and continues between biceps brachii and brachialis is the (a)   nerve.

90.

On the general plexus diagram, which set of spinal nerves form the lumbar plexus roots?

a)

C1–C4

b)

C5–T1

c)

T2–T12

d)

L1–L4

91.

On the general diagram, which labeled region corresponds to intercostal nerves that do not form a plexus?

a)

Thoracic spinal nerves T2–T12

b)

Cervical C1–C4

c)

Lumbosacral L4–S4

d)

Coccygeal nerve Co1

92.

According to the brachial plexus image, damage to which nerve would most directly weaken wrist extension?

a)

Median nerve injury

b)

Ulnar nerve injury

c)

Radial nerve injury

d)

Musculocutaneous nerve injury

93.

From the cervical plexus figure, paralysis of the diaphragm would most likely result from injury to which specific nerve?

a)

Ansa cervicalis

b)

Phrenic nerve

c)

Transverse cervical nerve

d)

Great auricular nerve

94.

In the lumbar plexus diagram (right lateral view of lumbar vertebrae with yellow nerve roots), which major peripheral nerve is the primary extensor of the knee via its motor supply to the quadriceps femoris?

a)

Femoral nerve

b)

Obturator nerve

c)

Sciatic nerve

d)

Tibial nerve

95.

In the sacral plexus diagram (right lateral view of sacrum and coccyx with bundled yellow cords), which nerve emerges from the plexus as the largest branch and continues inferiorly through the posterior thigh before bifurcating near the popliteal fossa?

a)

Sciatic nerve

b)

Femoral nerve

c)

Obturator nerve

d)

Saphenous nerve

96.

Fill in the blank: The primary sensory cutaneous branch traveling with the femoral nerve that supplies the medial leg and foot is the (a)   .

97.

On the anterior view of the lumbar and sacral plexus nerves, which labeled nerve courses along the medial thigh through the obturator canal to innervate adductor muscles?

a)

Obturator nerve

b)

Femoral nerve

c)

Common fibular (peroneal) nerve

d)

Tibial nerve

98.

Considering the lumbar plexus, which spinal levels chiefly contribute to the femoral nerve?

a)

L2–L4

b)

L4–S3

c)

T12–L1

d)

S1–S3

99.

Which branch of the sacral plexus descends posterior to the lateral malleolus to innervate plantarflexors via its continuation as the medial and lateral plantar nerves?

a)

Tibial nerve

b)

Common fibular (peroneal) nerve

c)

Femoral nerve

d)

Obturator nerve

100.

In the posterior view diagram, which nerve wraps superficially around the neck of the fibula before dividing into superficial and deep branches?

a)

Common fibular (peroneal) nerve

b)

Tibial nerve

c)

Saphenous nerve

d)

Obturator nerve

101.

Which nerve is most directly responsible for cutaneous sensation of the anterior thigh and motor supply to the iliopsoas and quadriceps as depicted on the anterior view diagram?

a)

Femoral nerve

b)

Obturator nerve

c)

Sciatic nerve

d)

Tibial nerve

102.

Fill in the blank: The sacral plexus gives rise to the largest nerve in the body, the (a)   .

103.

In the lumbar plexus diagram, which nerve primarily supplies the adductor compartment of the thigh?

a)

Obturator nerve

b)

Femoral nerve

c)

Tibial nerve

d)

Common fibular (peroneal) nerve

104.

On the anterior view, a slender nerve continues along the lateral compartment of the leg supplying dorsiflexors via its deep branch. Which proximal nerve gives rise to this pathway?

a)

Common fibular (peroneal) nerve

b)

Tibial nerve

c)

Femoral nerve

d)

Obturator nerve

105.

Which plexus is primarily formed by the ventral rami of L4 through S4 spinal nerves as depicted in the lower diagram?

a)

Sacral plexus

b)

Lumbar plexus

c)

Brachial plexus

d)

Cervical plexus

106.

Fill in the blank: The long sensory branch traveling with the femoral artery in the adductor canal and emerging at the medial knee is the (a)   nerve.

107.

On the posterior view, which terminal branches typically arise from the bifurcation of the sciatic nerve near the popliteal fossa?

a)

Tibial nerve and common fibular (peroneal) nerve

b)

Femoral nerve and obturator nerve

c)

Saphenous nerve and sural nerve

d)

Deep fibular and superficial fibular nerves

108.

In the lumbar plexus diagram, which smaller branch supplies the skin over the lateral thigh (meralgia paresthetica risk) and passes beneath the inguinal ligament near the ASIS?

a)

Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

b)

Saphenous nerve

c)

Inferior gluteal nerve

d)

Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve

109.

Fill in the blank: The posterior compartment of the thigh receives its primary motor innervation from the tibial division of the (a)   nerve.

110.

On the sacral plexus diagram, which nerve exits inferior to the piriformis and supplies the gluteus maximus?

a)

Inferior gluteal nerve

b)

Superior gluteal nerve

c)

Obturator nerve

d)

Femoral nerve

111.

Fill in the blank: The nerve that passes through the obturator canal and supplies the medial thigh adductors is the (a)   nerve.

112.

Refer to the diagram of the anterior and posterior hand labeled with sensory territories. Which nerve primarily supplies sensation to the palmar surface of the lateral three and a half digits?

a)

Radial nerve

b)

Ulnar nerve

c)

Median nerve

d)

Musculocutaneous nerve

113.

According to the hand innervation diagram, the dorsal lateral thumb region is predominantly innervated by the (a)   .

114.

Compression of which nerve is indicated as the cause of carpal tunnel syndrome in the hand sensory innervation description?

a)

Ulnar nerve

b)

Median nerve

c)

Radial nerve

d)

Axillary nerve

115.

Based on the ankle and foot sensory innervation diagrams, which nerve supplies most of the plantar surface of the foot?

a)

Saphenous nerve

b)

Sural nerve

c)

Fibular nerve

d)

Tibial nerve

116.

In the lateral ankle view, the cutaneous territory behind the lateral malleolus is labeled for which nerve?

a)

Saphenous nerve

b)

Sural nerve

c)

Tibial nerve

d)

Femoral nerve

117.

Which pairing correctly matches the nerve with its predominant sensory area shown in the diagrams?

a)

Ulnar nerve — palmar lateral index finger

b)

Saphenous nerve — medial ankle and foot

c)

Radial nerve — palmar thumb pad

d)

Fibular nerve — plantar heel

118.

A patient reports numbness over the medial side of the ankle and the instep of the foot while the plantar surface is intact. Using the foot diagrams, which nerve is most likely affected?

a)

Saphenous nerve

b)

Tibial nerve

c)

Sural nerve

d)

Fibular nerve

119.

Using the anterior hand diagram, list the nerve responsible for sensation over the palmar surface of the fifth digit: (a)  

120.

Which component conducts impulses toward the spinal cord via the dorsal root in a reflex arc?

a)

Motor (efferent) neuron

b)

Sensory (afferent) neuron

c)

Effector organ

d)

Interneuron in the brain

121.

Which classification pairs a reflex with its correct development category?

a)

Stretch reflex — acquired

b)

Withdrawal reflex — innate

c)

Crossed extensor reflex — innate

d)

Pupillary light reflex — acquired

122.

Reflexes that control skeletal muscle contractions, including superficial and stretch reflexes, fall under which response category?

a)

Somatic reflexes

b)

Visceral (autonomic) reflexes

c)

Cranial reflexes

d)

Polysynaptic reflexes

123.

Complete the statement: Monosynaptic reflexes are defined by the presence of exactly (a)   synapse in the reflex arc.

124.

Which processing site correctly matches the location where the reflex is integrated?

a)

Spinal reflex — processed in the brain

b)

Cranial reflex — processed in the spinal cord

c)

Spinal reflex — processed in the spinal cord

d)

Somatic reflex — processed in skeletal muscle

125.

According to the diagram “The Classification of Reflexes,” polysynaptic circuits are characterized by which feature?

a)

One synapse between sensory and motor neuron

b)

Multiple synapses, from two to several hundred

c)

No interneurons present

d)

Only visceral effectors involved

126.

In a standard reflex arc, what is the correct sequence immediately after a receptor is activated by a stimulus? Use the visual reference of the reflex arc diagram.

a)

Activation of a motor neuron, then information processing in the CNS

b)

Activation of a sensory neuron, then information processing in the CNS

c)

Response by an effector, then sensory activation

d)

Information relayed to the brain, then receptor activation

127.

Which root carries motor (efferent) fibers away from the spinal cord in the reflex arc diagram?

a)

Posterior root

b)

Dorsal root

c)

Anterior root

d)

Collateral root

128.

Fill in the blank: In the stretch reflex diagram, the specific receptor detecting muscle length is the (a)   .

129.

Which characteristic best distinguishes the stretch reflex shown?

a)

It is polysynaptic with multiple interneurons

b)

It is monosynaptic with a direct sensory-to-motor connection

c)

It is acquired and requires learning

d)

It is processed in the brain as a cranial reflex

130.

In the withdrawal reflex figure, which muscles are activated at the stimulated limb to pull away from the painful stimulus?

a)

Extensors activated; flexors inhibited

b)

Flexors activated; extensors inhibited

c)

Both flexors and extensors activated equally

d)

No change in muscle activity at the stimulated limb

131.

The crossed extensor reflex provides what key functional outcome when one foot steps on a painful stimulus?

a)

Facilitates withdrawal by inhibiting all muscles in both legs

b)

Stabilizes the contralateral limb by exciting extensors and inhibiting flexors

c)

Causes bilateral flexion to lift both legs

d)

Engages cranial circuits to maintain balance via brainstem only

132.

Place the following events in the reflex arc into the correct order: A) Activation of a motor neuron, B) Information processing in the CNS, C) Response by a peripheral effector, D) Activation of a sensory neuron. Choose the sequence that matches the diagrammed steps.

a)

D → B → A → C

b)

B → D → A → C

c)

D → A → B → C

d)

A → D → B → C

133.

Which statement about afferent and efferent pathways in reflexes is most accurate based on the text?

a)

Afferent neurons conduct impulses away from the spinal cord via the ventral root

b)

Efferent neurons conduct impulses to the spinal cord via the dorsal root

c)

Afferent neurons carry impulses to the spinal cord through the dorsal root

d)

Efferent neurons send impulses to receptors that transduce stimuli

134.

Identify the largest part of the brain and state how it is organized at the hemispheric level.

(a)  

135.

Which structures form the raised ridges and shallow grooves of the cerebral cortex, respectively?

a)

Gyri and sulci

b)

Sulci and gyri

c)

Fissures and sulci

d)

Corpora and commissures

136.

Which deep grooves separate major brain regions?

a)

Gyri

b)

Sulci

c)

Fissures

d)

Peduncles

137.

Which brain region primarily coordinates motor movement and adjusts the output of other somatic motor centers?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Diencephalon

d)

Medulla oblongata

138.

Select the correct pairing of structure and principal role within the diencephalon.

a)

Hypothalamus—relays and processes sensory information

b)

Thalamus—origin and regulator of the autonomic nervous system

c)

Hypothalamus—controls emotions, autonomic functions, and hormone production

d)

Thalamus—coordinates complex somatic motor patterns

139.

Which component is the lowermost part of the brainstem that connects the pons and spinal cord and contains vital cardiac, vasomotor, and respiratory control centers?

a)

Midbrain (mesencephalon)

b)

Medulla oblongata

c)

Thalamus

d)

Corpus callosum

140.

Name the bridge of nerve fibers that connects one cerebral hemisphere with the other.

(a)  

141.

The longitudinal fissure separates which two major structures of the cerebrum?

a)

Frontal and parietal lobes

b)

Left and right cerebral hemispheres

c)

Cerebrum and cerebellum

d)

Thalamus and hypothalamus

142.

According to the text, after approximately how many minutes of anoxia do brain cells become permanently damaged?

a)

1 minute

b)

3 minutes

c)

5 minutes

d)

9 minutes

143.

Which lobe is NOT listed among the four main lobes of each cerebral hemisphere?

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Temporal lobe

c)

Insular lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

144.

Which part of the brainstem connects the cerebellum to the brainstem and relays sensory information to the cerebellum and thalamus?

a)

Pons

b)

Medulla oblongata

c)

Midbrain

d)

Hypothalamus

145.

Define the mesencephalon in terms of its location within the brain.

(a)  

146.

According to the provided description, which neuroglial cells line the ventricles and produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Ependymal cells

c)

Microglia

d)

Oligodendrocytes

147.

Cerebrospinal fluid surrounds and bathes the central nervous system. Identify the function that is explicitly listed for CSF in the description.

a)

Initiate action potentials in cortical neurons

b)

Support the brain

c)

Maintain oxygen-carrying capacity like hemoglobin

d)

Release neurotransmitters into synaptic clefts

148.

Fill in the blank with a listed function: CSF helps (a)   the brain and spinal cord.

149.

Which statement best describes a transport role of CSF as stated in the description?

a)

It transports nutrients, chemical messengers, and wastes

b)

It transports only oxygen and carbon dioxide

c)

It transports hormones exclusively within the pituitary

d)

It transports sodium and potassium across axolemma

150.

Diagram-based item: In the lateral view of the brain with blue-shaded spaces representing the ventricles, which structure is depicted extending inferiorly into the brainstem region and continuous with the spinal canal?

a)

Lateral ventricle

b)

Third ventricle

c)

Cerebral aqueduct

d)

Fourth ventricle