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WorksheetsBIO 141: Ch 12 Review
Total questions: 150
Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins
Recall the direction each neuronal process carries impulses: Which statement correctly distinguishes axons from dendrites?
Axons carry impulses toward the cell body; dendrites carry impulses away from the cell body.
Axons carry impulses away from the cell body; dendrites carry impulses toward the cell body.
Both axons and dendrites carry impulses toward the cell body.
Both axons and dendrites carry impulses away from the cell body.
Identify the structure that forms where the cell body tapers to become the axon.
Axon terminal
Axon hillock
Node of Ranvier
Nissl body
In the peripheral nervous system, neuron cell bodies are clustered in masses called (a) .
Which glial cell type myelinates axons in the peripheral nervous system?
Oligodendrocytes
Schwann cells (neurilemmocytes)
Astrocytes
Microglia
What is the name of the outer layer of the myelin sheath produced by Schwann cells?
Endoneurium
Perineurium
Neurilemma
Epineurium
Which structure is described as cytoplasmic extensions that receive impulses toward the cell body?
Axon
Dendrites
Myelin sheath
Nissl bodies
According to the labeled neuron diagram, which part transmits signals to another cell at the far end of the axon? (Use the visual.)
Dendritic spines
Axon hillock
Telodendria/axon terminals
Nodes of Ranvier
What is the junction called between a telodendrion and a skeletal muscle fiber?
Neuromuscular junction (motor end plate)
Axosomatic synapse
Electrical synapse
Dendrodendritic synapse
Which neuroglial cell type is most numerous in the CNS and helps maintain the blood-brain barrier?
Microglia
Ependymal cells
Astrocytes
Oligodendrocytes
Match the CNS neuroglia to their primary function: Which pairing is correct?
Ependymal cells — myelinate CNS axons
Oligodendrocytes — monitor cerebrospinal fluid
Microglia — phagocytose wastes and pathogens
Astrocytes — line ventricles and central canal
In ganglia of the PNS, which neuroglia surround neuron cell bodies and regulate O2, CO2, nutrients, and neurotransmitter levels?
Satellite cells
Schwann cells
Ependymal cells
Microglia
Which statement best differentiates myelination in the CNS versus the PNS?
CNS axons are myelinated by Schwann cells, while PNS axons are myelinated by oligodendrocytes.
Both CNS and PNS axons are myelinated by astrocytes.
CNS axons are myelinated by oligodendrocytes, while PNS axons are myelinated by Schwann cells.
Only PNS axons are myelinated; CNS axons are unmyelinated.
Which CNS neuroglia line the ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord, assisting in producing, circulating, and monitoring cerebrospinal fluid?
Astrocytes
Ependymal cells
Oligodendrocytes
Microglia
Identify the term for dendritic structures that provide increased surface area for synaptic input on the neuron diagram. (Use the visual.)
Dendritic spines
Nodes of Ranvier
Axon collaterals
Nissl bodies
Reasoning item: If the myelin sheath is damaged in the PNS but the neurilemma remains intact, which cell type participates in repair and what functional consequence is expected?
Astrocytes participate; faster conduction is maintained.
Schwann cells participate; conduction velocity initially decreases.
Oligodendrocytes participate; conduction velocity increases.
Microglia participate; conduction remains unchanged.
Strategic thinking: A toxin selectively disrupts the blood-brain barrier’s filtering mechanism. Which neuroglia are primarily affected, and what risk to CNS homeostasis increases?
Ependymal cells; impaired CSF production causing reduced nutrient delivery
Astrocytes; increased passage of harmful substances from general circulation
Microglia; decreased phagocytosis of debris leading to toxin buildup
Oligodendrocytes; loss of myelin causing immediate synaptic failure
Refer to the diagram of a peripheral neuron showing a long axon wrapped by segmented coverings. Which labeled structure corresponds to the myelin sheath formed by a Schwann cell around the axon?
The gaps between adjacent coverings along the axon
The multilayered, lipid-rich wrapping encircling the axon
The enlarged region containing the neuron's nucleus
The short tapering processes extending from the soma
On the same neuron diagram, what is the functional name for the narrow interruptions between adjacent myelin segments along a peripheral axon?
Axon hillocks
Nodes of Ranvier
Synaptic clefts
Initial segments
Complete the statement based on the electron micrograph inset: The compact, concentric layers encircling the axon in the PNS are produced by the membrane of a single (a) cell.
In the cross-sectional magnified inset of the myelinated axon, which component lies at the very center of the myelin wraps?
Schwann cell nucleus
Axoplasm of the axon
Endoneurium collagen fibers
Perikaryon cytoplasm
Examine the bundle image showing many small circular axons enclosed by a single yellowish glial cell at the periphery. This arrangement illustrates which Schwann cell relationship in the PNS?
One Schwann cell myelinating multiple large axons
Several Schwann cells surrounding a single dendrite
A single nonmyelinating Schwann cell enveloping multiple small axons
Oligodendrocyte processes myelinating many CNS axons
Based on the longitudinal view of the peripheral axon ensheathed by sequential Schwann cells, which statement best explains how thick myelin is achieved around a single axon in the PNS?
Multiple Schwann cells each extend thin processes to different axons simultaneously
A single Schwann cell wraps its plasma membrane repeatedly around one axon segment to form compact myelin
Myelin arises from extracellular matrix proteins secreted by fibroblasts
Axonal microtubules polymerize into insulating layers external to the membrane
From the micrograph pointing to two closely apposed dark lines within the myelin wrap, what structure do these lines represent in compact PNS myelin?
Intraperiod and major dense lines formed by apposed Schwann cell membranes
Actin stress fibers in endoneurium
Tight junctions between endothelial cells
Neurofilament bundles inside the axon
Fill in the blank using the labeled longitudinal diagram: Each discrete myelin segment along a peripheral axon corresponds to one (a) cell.
Which statement best defines demyelination as presented:
Progressive destruction of myelin sheaths causing loss of sensation and motor control
Acute swelling of axons that increases nerve conduction velocity
Replacement of myelin with collagen to strengthen peripheral nerves
Temporary blockage of synaptic vesicle release without structural damage
Identify the condition described: a bacterial disease that damages Schwann cells and destroys myelin sheaths in the peripheral nervous system.
Multiple sclerosis
Diphtheria
Guillain–Barré syndrome
Heavy-metal poisoning
Fill in the blank with the exact term: The tapered region at the caudal end of the adult spinal cord, located between lumbar vertebrae L1 and L2, is called the (a) .
Which pairing is correct regarding the spinal cord’s extensions and associated structures?
The filum terminale extends from the conus medullaris to about S2 and contributes to the coccygeal ligament
The cauda equina is a single thick nerve exiting at L1 that anchors the cord to the sacrum
The cervical enlargement lies at the caudal end and gives rise to pelvic nerves
The lumbosacral enlargement is restricted to thoracic segments and contains only sensory fibers
A young adult presents with numbness and progressive motor deficits. Imaging shows widespread loss of CNS myelin with no identified cause. Based on the text, which diagnosis is most consistent with these findings, including its epidemiology?
Diphtheria; most common in tropical climates and equally common in men and women
Heavy-metal poisoning; usually more common in adolescents than adults
Multiple sclerosis; most common demyelinating disease of young adults, more frequent in women and in persons of Northern European descent
Acute arsenic neuropathy; primarily affects Schwann cells in the PNS with male predominance
According to the description, which substances are implicated in causing neuroglial damage that can lead to demyelination?
Lead, mercury, and arsenic ions
Calcium and potassium ions
Glucose and lipid metabolites
Nitric oxide and carbon monoxide gases
Refer to the schematic sequence of a myelinated axon shown in the figure: which visual cue indicates demyelination?
Thick, continuous concentric wraps surrounding the axon with intact myelin
Progressive loss and disruption of the myelin layers exposing more of the axon
Expansion of the axon diameter with added layers of myelin lamellae
Appearance of new nodes of Ranvier at regular intervals without myelin loss
According to the diagram of the adult spinal cord, which region contains 8 pairs of spinal nerves labeled C1–C8?
Cervical region
Thoracic region
Lumbar region
Sacral region
How many pairs of thoracic spinal nerves are present, designated T1–T12?
8 pairs
10 pairs
12 pairs
14 pairs
Fill in the blank: The single pair of spinal nerves at the most caudal end are the (a) nerves (Co1).
Which grouping correctly matches a nerve region with the plexus or nerve network it forms?
Cervical nerves form the intercostal nerves
Thoracic nerves form the brachial plexus
Lumbar nerves contribute to the lumbar plexus
Sacral nerves form the cervical plexus
Spinal nerves pass through which opening of the vertebrae to exit the vertebral column?
Vertebral canal
Transverse foramen
Intervertebral foramen
Spinal cistern
Which statement best distinguishes white matter from gray matter inside the spinal cord?
White matter contains neuron cell bodies; gray matter contains myelinated axons
White matter consists of myelinated axons; gray matter consists of neuron cell bodies
Both white and gray matter are primarily cerebrospinal fluid spaces
White matter is only present in the brain, not the spinal cord
Each spinal segment has two roots. Which root carries sensory information into the spinal cord and is associated with a dorsal root ganglion?
Anterior (ventral) root
Posterior (dorsal) root
Lateral root
Commissural root
Fill in the blank: Motor information exits the spinal cord via the (a) roots.
Refer to the posterior view diagram of the adult spinal cord showing colored nerve groups. Which colored group innervates the sacral region and lower limb via the sacral plexus?
Blue cervical nerves near the neck
Orange thoracic intercostal nerves along the ribs
Green lumbar nerves forming the lumbar plexus
Purple sacral nerves descending into the pelvis
In the cross-sectional diagram of a representative spinal cord segment, which area corresponds to gray matter?
Peripheral lighter-colored region containing longitudinal tracts
Central butterfly-shaped region with neuronal cell bodies
Dorsal and ventral roots outside the cord
Central canal only
According to the diagram text, which space directly lies inferior to the dura mater?
Subarachnoid space
Subdural space
Epidural space
Central canal
Which structure prevents lateral movement of the spinal cord, as noted in the diagram description?
Filum terminale
Denticulate ligaments
Dorsal root ganglia
Cauda equina
Fill in the blank with the precise term: The outermost meningeal layer surrounding the spinal cord is the (a) .
Fill in the blank with the precise term: The thin, delicate meningeal layer that closely adheres to the surface of the spinal cord is the (a) .
In the labeling figure of the spinal cord and meninges, which layer would be found immediately superficial to the subarachnoid space?
Pia mater
Arachnoid mater
Dura mater
Epidural fat
In the cross-sectional diagram, what tissue or material would you expect in the epidural space lining the walls of the vertebral canal?
Cerebrospinal fluid and trabeculae
Adipose tissue and blood vessels
Dense cartilage and lymph
Compact bone only
In the large labeling diagram of the spinal cord, which structure directly invests the surface of the spinal cord and sends denticulate ligaments laterally?
Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater
Periosteum of vertebra
Which space would be accessed to collect cerebrospinal fluid during a lumbar puncture, based on the description?
Epidural space
Subdural space
Subarachnoid space
Intervertebral foramen
Which best explains the protective role of cerebrospinal fluid as stated in the material?
It forms a rigid brace that immobilizes the cord.
It acts as a shock-absorbing protective layer and transports dissolved substances.
It increases bone density of the vertebrae.
It insulates axons to speed conduction.
In the sequence activity moving inward from the vertebral canal walls to the spinal cord, which of the following would logically appear before the arachnoid mater?
Pia mater
Subarachnoid space
Dura mater
Central canal
Fill in the blank with the precise term: Lateral stabilization of the spinal cord within the subarachnoid space is provided by (a) .
Recall: What is the medical term for removing cerebrospinal fluid by inserting a needle into the subarachnoid space between the L3 and L4 vertebrae?
Epidural block
Lumbar puncture (spinal tap)
Spinal fusion
Laminectomy
Recall: Between which vertebral levels is a lumbar puncture typically performed to avoid injuring the spinal cord?
Between C7 and T1
Between T12 and L1
Between L3 and L4
Between S1 and S2
Skill/Concept: An epidural anesthetic blocks pain by being injected into which anatomical space, and what is its primary purpose at the injection site?
Subarachnoid space; causes temporary motor and sensory loss
Epidural space; blocks pain in the immediate area of injection
Intramedullary space; blocks pain for the entire dermatomal map
Perineural space; causes permanent sensory loss
Skill/Concept: Spinal anesthesia is injected into the subarachnoid space. Which immediate physiological effects are expected according to the material?
Temporary muscle paralysis and sensory loss
Long-term enhancement of reflexes
Selective blockage of pain without motor effects
Permanent loss of motor function only
Strategic Thinking: A clinician needs cerebrospinal fluid for diagnostic testing while minimizing risk of spinal cord injury. Based on the material, explain the optimal vertebral level selection and rationale, then choose the best option.
Perform the puncture between C5 and C6 because the cervical cord ends superiorly
Perform the puncture between L3 and L4 because the spinal cord ends superior to this lower lumbar region
Perform the puncture between T5 and T6 to avoid the thoracic nerve roots
Perform the puncture between S3 and S4 because the sacral canal is widest
Recall: Define a dermatome as presented in the material.
A unilateral skin patch supplied by multiple cranial nerves
A bilateral skin region monitored by a single pair of spinal nerves
A muscle compartment innervated by a peripheral nerve plexus
A vascular territory of a single segmental artery
Strategic Thinking with visual reference: Using the anterior–posterior dermatome diagram, which spinal cord region primarily innervates the skin over the anterior thigh?
Cervical region
Thoracic region
Lumbar region
Sacral region
Recall: Which virus causes shingles and also causes chickenpox?
Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)
Varicella zoster virus (VZV)
Epstein–Barr virus (EBV)
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Skill/Concept: According to the passage, where does the varicella zoster virus remain dormant after chickenpox before it can later cause shingles?
Within keratinocytes of the epidermis
In lymph nodes of the cervical chain
Within neurons of the anterior horns of the spinal cord
Inside hepatocytes of the liver
Strategic Thinking: A clinician is advising a 55-year-old adult with prior chickenpox on reducing shingles risk. Based on the passage, which preventive action offers the highest level of protection for this age group?
Receiving one dose of the childhood varicella vaccine to boost immunity
Avoiding contact with anyone who ever had chickenpox
Getting the Shingrix vaccine series (two doses) which offers about 90% protection
Taking daily acyclovir for life as prophylaxis
Skill/Concept: According to the passage, how can the varicella zoster virus spread from a person with active shingles to cause chickenpox in someone who is susceptible?
Through airborne transmission over long distances
Via direct contact with fluid from the rash blisters
By sharing utensils after the rash has crusted
Through mosquito bites in endemic regions
Recall: What approximate reduction in shingles risk is conferred by the childhood chickenpox (varicella) vaccine introduced in 1996?
About 25% lower risk
About 50% lower risk
About 78% lower risk
About 95% lower risk
Skill/Concept: Identify the medications listed as treatments for shingles in the passage.
Acyclovir, famciclovir, valacyclovir
Penicillin, amoxicillin, doxycycline
Oseltamivir, zanamivir, baloxavir
Ritonavir, lopinavir, darunavir
Strategic Thinking: The passage notes shingles often presents as a stripe of blisters on one side of the body. Using the diagram that highlights band-like regions on the torso and head, what feature of shingles distribution does this pattern illustrate?
Diffuse bilateral involvement due to hematogenous spread
Dermatomal, unilateral distribution corresponding to sensory nerve territories
Random patches due to localized skin trauma
Symmetric involvement of paired nerves across midline
Which statement best describes a nerve plexus as introduced in this section?
A branching network formed by groups of spinal nerves
A single large sensory nerve supplying the entire limb
A cluster of neuron cell bodies inside the brainstem
A protective connective tissue sheath around a nerve fiber
Identify the plexus source for the sciatic nerve based on the text: The large sciatic nerve found in the posterior leg is from the (a) plexus.
According to the summary, which spinal nerve is located in the anterior leg and arises from the lumbar plexus?
Sciatic nerve
Femoral nerve
Tibial nerve
Common fibular nerve
Which pairing correctly matches a listed nerve with its noted function or territory from the section?
Phrenic nerve — innervates diaphragm; skin and muscles of shoulder and neck
Axillary nerve — supplies the anterior leg and foot
Sciatic nerve — branches into radial and ulnar nerves above the knee
Sural nerve — largest nerve in the body
The section states that the sciatic nerve splits just above the knee. Which two nerves does it form?
Radial and ulnar nerves
Median and ulnar nerves
Common fibular and tibial nerves
Femoral and obturator nerves
A student experiences a temporary numbness and a “pins and needles” sensation in the foot after sitting with legs crossed. Based on the explanation provided, what is the most likely immediate cause?
Permanent degeneration of peripheral nerve axons
Temporary compression of a peripheral nerve or its blood supply
Autoimmune attack on myelin in the central nervous system
Complete transection of the sciatic nerve
From the list of individual spinal nerves to identify, which group consists entirely of nerves associated with the lower limb?
Femoral, obturator, tibial, common fibular, saphenous
Phrenic, axillary, median, radial, ulnar
Musculocutaneous, axillary, pudendal, phrenic
Gluteal, radial, median, sural
In the general posterior view of nerve plexuses and peripheral nerves, which plexus supplies the upper limb via cords that continue into the axilla?
Cervical plexus
Brachial plexus
Lumbar plexus
Sacral plexus
On the general plexus diagram, which region contains the phrenic nerve origin that descends to the diaphragm?
Cervical plexus at C3–C5
Brachial plexus at C5–T1
Lumbar plexus at L1–L4
Sacral plexus at L4–S4
Identify the plexus that primarily innervates the anterior thigh muscles in the general diagram.
Brachial plexus
Lumbar plexus
Cervical plexus
Coccygeal plexus
In the general diagram, the sciatic nerve branches are traced from which plexus?
Cervical plexus
Brachial plexus
Lumbar plexus
Sacral plexus
BLANK: The plexus that gives rise to major nerves of the shoulder and upper limb is the (a) plexus.
On the cervical plexus diagram, which named nerve descends along the anterior scalene muscle to the thorax to supply the diaphragm?
Lesser occipital nerve
Transverse cervical nerve
Phrenic nerve
Supraclavicular nerves
In the cervical plexus image, which cutaneous branch curves posterior to the ear to supply the scalp behind the auricle?
Great auricular nerve
Lesser occipital nerve
Transverse cervical nerve
Ansa cervicalis
According to the cervical plexus diagram, the great auricular nerve primarily ascends toward which surface landmark?
Tip of the nose
Parotid region and auricle
Occipital protuberance
Suprasternal notch
BLANK: The loop formed by cervical nerve fibers that provides motor innervation to infrahyoid muscles is called the ______ ______.
carotid plexus
ansa cervicalis
phrenic nerve
cervical ganglion
In the cervical plexus diagram, which branch traverses horizontally across the superficial neck to the anterior triangle skin?
Transverse cervical nerve
Supraclavicular nerves
Accessory nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
The supraclavicular nerves in the cervical plexus image descend to supply which area?
Lower lip mucosa
Anterior and lateral neck skin
Skin over the clavicle and shoulder
Tongue intrinsic muscles
In the brachial plexus diagram of the upper limb, which nerve runs posterior to the humerus in the radial groove and continues to the posterior forearm?
Median nerve
Ulnar nerve
Radial nerve
Musculocutaneous nerve
Based on the brachial plexus image, which nerve travels along the medial arm and behind the medial epicondyle to enter the forearm?
Median nerve
Ulnar nerve
Axillary nerve
Musculocutaneous nerve
In the brachial plexus diagram, which nerve passes through the carpal tunnel to the lateral palm and thenar region?
Ulnar nerve
Radial nerve
Median nerve
Axillary nerve
The axillary nerve in the brachial plexus image courses through the quadrangular space to innervate which region?
Anterior forearm flexor compartment
Deltoid and teres minor region
Thenar eminence
Dorsal interossei
BLANK: The nerve that pierces the coracobrachialis and continues between biceps brachii and brachialis is the (a) nerve.
On the general plexus diagram, which set of spinal nerves form the lumbar plexus roots?
C1–C4
C5–T1
T2–T12
L1–L4
On the general diagram, which labeled region corresponds to intercostal nerves that do not form a plexus?
Thoracic spinal nerves T2–T12
Cervical C1–C4
Lumbosacral L4–S4
Coccygeal nerve Co1
According to the brachial plexus image, damage to which nerve would most directly weaken wrist extension?
Median nerve injury
Ulnar nerve injury
Radial nerve injury
Musculocutaneous nerve injury
From the cervical plexus figure, paralysis of the diaphragm would most likely result from injury to which specific nerve?
Ansa cervicalis
Phrenic nerve
Transverse cervical nerve
Great auricular nerve
In the lumbar plexus diagram (right lateral view of lumbar vertebrae with yellow nerve roots), which major peripheral nerve is the primary extensor of the knee via its motor supply to the quadriceps femoris?
Femoral nerve
Obturator nerve
Sciatic nerve
Tibial nerve
In the sacral plexus diagram (right lateral view of sacrum and coccyx with bundled yellow cords), which nerve emerges from the plexus as the largest branch and continues inferiorly through the posterior thigh before bifurcating near the popliteal fossa?
Sciatic nerve
Femoral nerve
Obturator nerve
Saphenous nerve
Fill in the blank: The primary sensory cutaneous branch traveling with the femoral nerve that supplies the medial leg and foot is the (a) .
On the anterior view of the lumbar and sacral plexus nerves, which labeled nerve courses along the medial thigh through the obturator canal to innervate adductor muscles?
Obturator nerve
Femoral nerve
Common fibular (peroneal) nerve
Tibial nerve
Considering the lumbar plexus, which spinal levels chiefly contribute to the femoral nerve?
L2–L4
L4–S3
T12–L1
S1–S3
Which branch of the sacral plexus descends posterior to the lateral malleolus to innervate plantarflexors via its continuation as the medial and lateral plantar nerves?
Tibial nerve
Common fibular (peroneal) nerve
Femoral nerve
Obturator nerve
In the posterior view diagram, which nerve wraps superficially around the neck of the fibula before dividing into superficial and deep branches?
Common fibular (peroneal) nerve
Tibial nerve
Saphenous nerve
Obturator nerve
Which nerve is most directly responsible for cutaneous sensation of the anterior thigh and motor supply to the iliopsoas and quadriceps as depicted on the anterior view diagram?
Femoral nerve
Obturator nerve
Sciatic nerve
Tibial nerve
Fill in the blank: The sacral plexus gives rise to the largest nerve in the body, the (a) .
In the lumbar plexus diagram, which nerve primarily supplies the adductor compartment of the thigh?
Obturator nerve
Femoral nerve
Tibial nerve
Common fibular (peroneal) nerve
On the anterior view, a slender nerve continues along the lateral compartment of the leg supplying dorsiflexors via its deep branch. Which proximal nerve gives rise to this pathway?
Common fibular (peroneal) nerve
Tibial nerve
Femoral nerve
Obturator nerve
Which plexus is primarily formed by the ventral rami of L4 through S4 spinal nerves as depicted in the lower diagram?
Sacral plexus
Lumbar plexus
Brachial plexus
Cervical plexus
Fill in the blank: The long sensory branch traveling with the femoral artery in the adductor canal and emerging at the medial knee is the (a) nerve.
On the posterior view, which terminal branches typically arise from the bifurcation of the sciatic nerve near the popliteal fossa?
Tibial nerve and common fibular (peroneal) nerve
Femoral nerve and obturator nerve
Saphenous nerve and sural nerve
Deep fibular and superficial fibular nerves
In the lumbar plexus diagram, which smaller branch supplies the skin over the lateral thigh (meralgia paresthetica risk) and passes beneath the inguinal ligament near the ASIS?
Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
Saphenous nerve
Inferior gluteal nerve
Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve
Fill in the blank: The posterior compartment of the thigh receives its primary motor innervation from the tibial division of the (a) nerve.
On the sacral plexus diagram, which nerve exits inferior to the piriformis and supplies the gluteus maximus?
Inferior gluteal nerve
Superior gluteal nerve
Obturator nerve
Femoral nerve
Fill in the blank: The nerve that passes through the obturator canal and supplies the medial thigh adductors is the (a) nerve.
Refer to the diagram of the anterior and posterior hand labeled with sensory territories. Which nerve primarily supplies sensation to the palmar surface of the lateral three and a half digits?
Radial nerve
Ulnar nerve
Median nerve
Musculocutaneous nerve
According to the hand innervation diagram, the dorsal lateral thumb region is predominantly innervated by the (a) .
Compression of which nerve is indicated as the cause of carpal tunnel syndrome in the hand sensory innervation description?
Ulnar nerve
Median nerve
Radial nerve
Axillary nerve
Based on the ankle and foot sensory innervation diagrams, which nerve supplies most of the plantar surface of the foot?
Saphenous nerve
Sural nerve
Fibular nerve
Tibial nerve
In the lateral ankle view, the cutaneous territory behind the lateral malleolus is labeled for which nerve?
Saphenous nerve
Sural nerve
Tibial nerve
Femoral nerve
Which pairing correctly matches the nerve with its predominant sensory area shown in the diagrams?
Ulnar nerve — palmar lateral index finger
Saphenous nerve — medial ankle and foot
Radial nerve — palmar thumb pad
Fibular nerve — plantar heel
A patient reports numbness over the medial side of the ankle and the instep of the foot while the plantar surface is intact. Using the foot diagrams, which nerve is most likely affected?
Saphenous nerve
Tibial nerve
Sural nerve
Fibular nerve
Using the anterior hand diagram, list the nerve responsible for sensation over the palmar surface of the fifth digit: (a)
Which component conducts impulses toward the spinal cord via the dorsal root in a reflex arc?
Motor (efferent) neuron
Sensory (afferent) neuron
Effector organ
Interneuron in the brain
Which classification pairs a reflex with its correct development category?
Stretch reflex — acquired
Withdrawal reflex — innate
Crossed extensor reflex — innate
Pupillary light reflex — acquired
Reflexes that control skeletal muscle contractions, including superficial and stretch reflexes, fall under which response category?
Somatic reflexes
Visceral (autonomic) reflexes
Cranial reflexes
Polysynaptic reflexes
Complete the statement: Monosynaptic reflexes are defined by the presence of exactly (a) synapse in the reflex arc.
Which processing site correctly matches the location where the reflex is integrated?
Spinal reflex — processed in the brain
Cranial reflex — processed in the spinal cord
Spinal reflex — processed in the spinal cord
Somatic reflex — processed in skeletal muscle
According to the diagram “The Classification of Reflexes,” polysynaptic circuits are characterized by which feature?
One synapse between sensory and motor neuron
Multiple synapses, from two to several hundred
No interneurons present
Only visceral effectors involved
In a standard reflex arc, what is the correct sequence immediately after a receptor is activated by a stimulus? Use the visual reference of the reflex arc diagram.
Activation of a motor neuron, then information processing in the CNS
Activation of a sensory neuron, then information processing in the CNS
Response by an effector, then sensory activation
Information relayed to the brain, then receptor activation
Which root carries motor (efferent) fibers away from the spinal cord in the reflex arc diagram?
Posterior root
Dorsal root
Anterior root
Collateral root
Fill in the blank: In the stretch reflex diagram, the specific receptor detecting muscle length is the (a) .
Which characteristic best distinguishes the stretch reflex shown?
It is polysynaptic with multiple interneurons
It is monosynaptic with a direct sensory-to-motor connection
It is acquired and requires learning
It is processed in the brain as a cranial reflex
In the withdrawal reflex figure, which muscles are activated at the stimulated limb to pull away from the painful stimulus?
Extensors activated; flexors inhibited
Flexors activated; extensors inhibited
Both flexors and extensors activated equally
No change in muscle activity at the stimulated limb
The crossed extensor reflex provides what key functional outcome when one foot steps on a painful stimulus?
Facilitates withdrawal by inhibiting all muscles in both legs
Stabilizes the contralateral limb by exciting extensors and inhibiting flexors
Causes bilateral flexion to lift both legs
Engages cranial circuits to maintain balance via brainstem only
Place the following events in the reflex arc into the correct order: A) Activation of a motor neuron, B) Information processing in the CNS, C) Response by a peripheral effector, D) Activation of a sensory neuron. Choose the sequence that matches the diagrammed steps.
D → B → A → C
B → D → A → C
D → A → B → C
A → D → B → C
Which statement about afferent and efferent pathways in reflexes is most accurate based on the text?
Afferent neurons conduct impulses away from the spinal cord via the ventral root
Efferent neurons conduct impulses to the spinal cord via the dorsal root
Afferent neurons carry impulses to the spinal cord through the dorsal root
Efferent neurons send impulses to receptors that transduce stimuli
Identify the largest part of the brain and state how it is organized at the hemispheric level.
(a)
Which structures form the raised ridges and shallow grooves of the cerebral cortex, respectively?
Gyri and sulci
Sulci and gyri
Fissures and sulci
Corpora and commissures
Which deep grooves separate major brain regions?
Gyri
Sulci
Fissures
Peduncles
Which brain region primarily coordinates motor movement and adjusts the output of other somatic motor centers?
Cerebrum
Cerebellum
Diencephalon
Medulla oblongata
Select the correct pairing of structure and principal role within the diencephalon.
Hypothalamus—relays and processes sensory information
Thalamus—origin and regulator of the autonomic nervous system
Hypothalamus—controls emotions, autonomic functions, and hormone production
Thalamus—coordinates complex somatic motor patterns
Which component is the lowermost part of the brainstem that connects the pons and spinal cord and contains vital cardiac, vasomotor, and respiratory control centers?
Midbrain (mesencephalon)
Medulla oblongata
Thalamus
Corpus callosum
Name the bridge of nerve fibers that connects one cerebral hemisphere with the other.
(a)
The longitudinal fissure separates which two major structures of the cerebrum?
Frontal and parietal lobes
Left and right cerebral hemispheres
Cerebrum and cerebellum
Thalamus and hypothalamus
According to the text, after approximately how many minutes of anoxia do brain cells become permanently damaged?
1 minute
3 minutes
5 minutes
9 minutes
Which lobe is NOT listed among the four main lobes of each cerebral hemisphere?
Frontal lobe
Temporal lobe
Insular lobe
Occipital lobe
Which part of the brainstem connects the cerebellum to the brainstem and relays sensory information to the cerebellum and thalamus?
Pons
Medulla oblongata
Midbrain
Hypothalamus
Define the mesencephalon in terms of its location within the brain.
(a)
According to the provided description, which neuroglial cells line the ventricles and produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
Astrocytes
Ependymal cells
Microglia
Oligodendrocytes
Cerebrospinal fluid surrounds and bathes the central nervous system. Identify the function that is explicitly listed for CSF in the description.
Initiate action potentials in cortical neurons
Support the brain
Maintain oxygen-carrying capacity like hemoglobin
Release neurotransmitters into synaptic clefts
Fill in the blank with a listed function: CSF helps (a) the brain and spinal cord.
Which statement best describes a transport role of CSF as stated in the description?
It transports nutrients, chemical messengers, and wastes
It transports only oxygen and carbon dioxide
It transports hormones exclusively within the pituitary
It transports sodium and potassium across axolemma
Diagram-based item: In the lateral view of the brain with blue-shaded spaces representing the ventricles, which structure is depicted extending inferiorly into the brainstem region and continuous with the spinal canal?
Lateral ventricle
Third ventricle
Cerebral aqueduct
Fourth ventricle
