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CUET LEVEL II NEET MOCK TEST-5 Physics (2025-2026)

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 15hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Ernst Rutherford’s experiments suggested the size of the nucleus to be in the range of 10⁻¹⁵ m to 10⁻¹⁴ m. Given that the typical size of an atom is 10⁻¹⁰ m, the electrons would seem to be at a distance from the nucleus greater than the size of the nucleus by a factor of approximately:

a)

100 to 1,000 times

b)

1,000 to 10,000 times

c)

10,000 to 100,000 times

d)

10⁶ times

2.

In the Geiger-Marsden experiment, approximately what fraction of the incident α-particles scattered by more than 90°?

a)

About 0.14%

b)

About 1 in 1000

c)

Nearly all particles

d)

About 1 in 8000

3.

An α-particle with initial kinetic energy K undergoes a head-on collision with a gold nucleus (charge Ze). The distance of closest approach (d) is proportional to:

a)

K/Ze²

b)

K

c)

Ze²

d)

Ze²/K

4.

For an electron revolving in a dynamically stable orbit of radius r in a hydrogen atom, the relation between the orbit radius and the electron velocity (v) is given by:

a)

v²r = e² / (4πε₀m)

b)

vr² = m / (e² 4πε₀)

c)

m²vr = e² / (4πε₀)

d)

e² / (4πε₀) = mv²r

5.

According to classical electromagnetic theory, an electron revolving around a proton in a hydrogen atom (radius 5.3 × 10⁻¹¹ m, velocity 2.2 × 10⁶ m/s) should emit radiation with an initial frequency (ν) of approximately:

a)

1.5 × 10¹⁵ Hz

b)

3.3 × 10¹⁴ Hz

c)

1.0 × 10¹⁶ Hz

d)

6.6 × 10¹⁵ Hz

6.

The atomic mass unit (u) is defined such that 1 u is equal to approximately:

a)

1.67262 × 10⁻²⁷ kg

b)

1.00727 kg

c)

1.992647 × 10⁻²⁶ kg

d)

1.660539 × 10⁻²⁷ kg

7.

Nuclides such as ¹⁹⁸₈₀Hg and ¹⁹⁷₇₉Au are categorized together because they share the same:

a)

Atomic number (Z)

b)

Mass number (A)

c)

Neutron number (N)

d)

Relative abundance

8.

The constant R₀ in the nuclear radius formula R = R₀A¹/³ is approximately 1.2 × 10⁻¹⁵ m. This unit is called:

a)

Micron

b)

Fermi (fm)

c)

Picometre

d)

Angstrom (Å)

9.

The total mass of a stable nucleus (M) is less than the sum of the masses of its protons and neutrons (Σm). The difference ΔM is called the mass defect, and the binding energy (Eb) is given by:

a)

Eb = ΔM / c²

b)

Eb = ΔM / c

c)

Eb = c / ΔM

d)

Eb = ΔM c²

10.

The binding energy per nucleon (Ebn) curve shows a maximum value of about 8.75 MeV for nuclei near which mass number (A)?

a)

A = 1

b)

A = 30

c)

A = 238

d)

A = 56

11.

A material where the valence band is completely filled and the conduction band is completely empty, separated by a large band gap (Eg > 3 eV), is a/an:

a)

Metal

b)

Semiconductor

c)

Insulator

d)

Extrinsic conductor

12.

If a pure Si crystal (atomic concentration = 5 × 10²⁸ m⁻³) is doped with 1 ppm pentavalent As, and intrinsic carrier concentration ni = 1.5 × 10¹⁶ m⁻³, the resultant hole concentration (nh) will be:

a)

5 × 10²² m⁻³

b)

1.5 × 10¹⁶ m⁻³

c)

2.25 × 10³² m⁻³

d)

4.5 × 10⁹ m⁻³

13.

When a tetravalent semiconductor is doped with a trivalent impurity acceptor, the resulting energy level (EA) exists:

a)

Slightly above the top EV of the valence band

b)

Far above EC

c)

Exactly at the center of the band gap

d)

Slightly below the bottom EC of the conduction band

14.

A silicon diode typically exhibits a threshold voltage (cut-in voltage) of approximately:

a)

0.2 V

b)

0 V

c)

5.4 V

d)

0.7 V

15.

The dynamic resistance (rd) of a p-n junction diode is the ratio of a small voltage change (ΔV) to a small current change (ΔI). In reverse bias saturation, rd is typically:

a)

Very low (~10 Ω)

b)

Exactly zero

c)

Very high (~10⁷ Ω)

d)

Proportional to the forward current

16.

A point charge Q is placed at the origin. What is the ratio of the magnitude of the electric field (E) to the magnitude of the electric potential (V) at a distance r from the charge?

a)

r / ε₀

b)

1 / r

c)

4π ε₀ r

d)

1 / r²

17.

A small planar element of area ΔS is placed in a uniform electric field E. If the electric flux Δφ = E ΔS cosθ, what condition must be met for θ = 0°?

a)

The field lines are parallel to the surface plane

b)

The area vector is perpendicular to E

c)

The area vector is parallel to E

d)

The angle between E and the plane surface is 0°

18.

The work done by an external force W₍RP₎ in moving a charge q from point R to point P increases its potential energy. If W₍RP₎ is positive, this implies that the external force performed work against the:

a)

Gravitational force

b)

Electrostatic repulsive force

c)

Charge q’s kinetic energy

d)

Electrostatic attractive force

19.

The electric potential V due to an electric dipole at large distances (r >> a) falls off proportional to:

a)

1 / r

b)

1 / r²

c)

1 / r³

d)

1 / r¹ᐟ²

20.

The average drift speed of electrons in copper is about 1.1 × 10⁻³ m/s. By what factor is this smaller than the propagation speed of the electric field (≈ 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s)?

a)

10⁵

b)

10⁸

c)

10¹¹

d)

10¹⁴

21.

In a Wheatstone bridge of resistors R₁ (AB), R₂ (BC), R₃ (CD), and R₄ (DA), with galvanometer BD, the bridge is balanced when:

a)

R₁ R₃ = R₂ R₄

b)

R₁ / R₄ = R₂ / R₃

c)

R₂ / R₁ = R₄ / R₃

d)

R₁ + R₂ = R₃ + R₄

22.

The magnetic field B along the axis of a circular loop (radius R, current I) at distance x from center is proportional to:

a)

(x² + R²)⁻¹ᐟ²

b)

R² / (x² + R²)¹ᐟ²

c)

R / (x² + R²)

d)

R² / (x² + R²)³ᐟ²

23.

A charge q moving with velocity v in magnetic field B experiences zero magnetic force when:

a)

q = 0

b)

v = 0

c)

v is parallel to B

d)

Electric field E must be non-zero

24.

Ampere’s circuital law simplifies calculations when B is tangential and constant along the loop. Which condition is NOT sufficient?

a)

B tangential and constant

b)

B normal to loop

c)

B directed along radius vector

d)

B vanishes along loop segment

25.

A diamagnetic substance exhibits weak repulsion in a magnetic field. Its relative permeability μ_r lies in the range:

a)

μ_r >> 1

b)

μ_r = 1

c)

0 ≤ μ_r < 1

d)

1 < μ_r < 1 + ε

26.

Which property follows directly from the non-existence of magnetic monopoles?

a)

Magnetic force is perpendicular to velocity

b)

Magnetic field decreases as 1 / r²

c)

Magnetic field lines form continuous closed loops

d)

Field is uniform in a solenoid

27.

Which ratio in magnetism is analogous to dielectric constant K in electrostatics?

a)

Magnetic susceptibility χ

b)

Magnetic permeability μ

c)

Magnetisation M

d)

Relative magnetic permeability μ_r

28.

Self-inductance L is a measure of a coil’s opposition to current change. It is analogous to which mechanical property?

a)

Friction

b)

Inertia (mass)

c)

Spring constant

d)

Momentum

29.

In an AC generator, induced emf ε is maximum when the area vector A of the coil makes which angle θ with magnetic field B?

a)

90°

b)

45°

c)

d)

180°

30.

A straight conductor of length l moves with velocity v perpendicular to magnetic field B. The work done by Lorentz force on charge q is:

a)

B l v / q

b)

ε / q

c)

q v B l

d)

q B / (l v)

31.

A series LCR circuit has an inductor L = 25.48 mH and a capacitor C = 796 μF. If the circuit is connected to an ac source, what is the resonant frequency ν₀ in Hz?

a)

50 Hz

b)

60 Hz

c)

35.4 Hz

d)

222.1 Hz

32.

The standard household line voltage of 220 V is an rms value. What is the peak voltage (vₘ) of this supply?

a)

311 V

b)

440 V

c)

155 V

d)

220 V

33.

A 15.0 μF capacitor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz source. Calculate the capacitive reactance (Xc) (Use π ≈ 3.14).

a)

7.85 Ω

b)

212 Ω

c)

424 Ω

d)

106 Ω

34.

Which of the following expressions represents the mathematical form of the generalised Ampere-Maxwell law?

a)

∮B·dl = μ₀i_c

b)

∮E·dA = Q/ε₀

c)

∮B·dl = μ₀(i_c + i_d)

d)

∮B·dl = μ₀i_c + μ₀ε₀(dΦE/dt)

35.

The speed of an electromagnetic wave (c) in vacuum is determined by which combination of fundamental constants?

a)

ε₀ and R

b)

h and λ

c)

1/√(μ₀ε₀)

d)

μ₀ and Z

36.

If the peak electric field amplitude (E₀) in an electromagnetic wave is 120 N/C, what is the peak magnetic field amplitude (B₀)? (c ≈ 3 × 10⁸ m/s).

a)

4 × 10⁻⁶ T

b)

2.1 × 10⁻⁸ T

c)

4 × 10⁻⁷ T

d)

360 T

37.

A glass lens (refractive index n = 1.47) is submerged in a liquid and disappears. What condition is met by the refractive index of the liquid (n_liquid) and the resulting focal length (f) of the lens in the liquid?

a)

n_liquid < 1.47, f > 0

b)

n_liquid = 1.47, f → ∞

c)

n_liquid > 1.47, f < 0

d)

n_liquid = 1.47, f = 0

38.

Which two conditions must be met simultaneously for total internal reflection (TIR) to occur at an interface between two media?

a)

Light travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium and the angle of incidence i < i_c

b)

The angle of refraction r = 90° and i = i_c

c)

Light travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium and the angle of incidence i > i_c

d)

The refractive index n_denser must be less than n_rarer

39.

An object is placed at u = -10 cm in front of a concave mirror with focal length f = -7.5 cm. What is the image distance v?

a)

+15 cm

b)

-15 cm

c)

+30 cm

d)

-30 cm

40.

Two coherent sources produce waves such that the phase difference at a point P is φ. If I₀ is the intensity due to each individual source, what is the resultant intensity I at P?

a)

I = 2I₀ cos²(φ)

b)

I = I₀ cos²(φ/2)

c)

I = 2I₀ cos(φ/2)

d)

I = 4I₀ cos²(φ/2)

41.

For two independent light sources illuminating a wall, no stable interference fringes are observed. This happens because the sources are typically incoherent. Incoherent sources are characterized by:

a)

Different wavelengths

b)

Zero average intensity

c)

Rapidly changing phase difference

d)

Large amplitudes

42.

For destructive interference between two coherent sources vibrating in phase, the path difference (S₁P − S₂P) must be equal to: where n = 0, 1, 2, ... and λ is wavelength.

a)

b)

2nλ

c)

(n + 1/2)λ

d)

(2n + 1)λ

43.

Calculate the de Broglie wavelength (λ) associated with a macroscopic ball of mass 150 g travelling at 30.0 m/s. (h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s)

a)

1.47 × 10⁻¹⁹ m

b)

4.50 × 10⁻³³ m

c)

0.135 nm

d)

1.47 × 10⁻³⁴ m

44.

What is the threshold frequency (ν₀) for a photosensitive metal defined as, in relation to the work function (φ₀)?

a)

ν₀ = hφ₀

b)

ν₀ = φ₀ / h

c)

ν₀ = c / λ

d)

ν₀ = h / φ₀

45.

In the experimental study of the photoelectric effect, the stopping potential (V₀) for a given photosensitive material depends linearly on:

a)

Frequency of incident radiation

b)

Saturation current

c)

Intensity of incident radiation

d)

Total time duration of irradiation