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Ortodontia para Fonoaudiologia

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Qual osso é único porque não se articula com nenhum outro osso?

a)

Mandíbula

b)

Hioide

c)

Maxila

d)

Zigomático

2.

Qual é a função principal do osso hioide?

a)

Formar a cavidade nasal

b)

Proteger o cérebro

c)

Ancorar os dentes

d)

Suporte da língua e músculos laríngeos

3.

Qual músculo é responsável por aduzir os lábios?

a)

Orbicular da boca

b)

Mentual

c)

Bucinador

d)

Zigomático maior

4.

Qual nervo é a principal fonte de inervação da cavidade oral propriamente dita?

a)

Nervo Hipoglosso

b)

Nervo Trigêmeo

c)

Nervo Glossofaríngeo

d)

Nervo Facial

5.

Which muscle group is involved in mastication?

a)

Temporal

b)

Orbicularis oris

c)

Sternocleidomastoid

d)

Trapezius

6.

Which salivary gland releases saliva through Wharton's duct?

a)

Ebner’s gland

b)

Sublingual gland

c)

Submandibular gland

d)

Parotid gland

7.

What is the function of the articular disc in the TMJ?

a)

Support the tongue

b)

Protect the brain

c)

Anchor the teeth

d)

Divide the articular space into compartments

8.

Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial expression?

a)

Facial nerve

b)

Trigeminal nerve

c)

Vagus nerve

d)

Accessory nerve

9.

What is the primary function of saliva?

a)

Lubricate and cleanse the oral cavity

b)

Protect the brain

c)

Anchor the teeth

d)

Support the tongue

10.

Which muscle raises and wrinkles the skin of the chin?

a)

Buccinator

b)

Mentalis

c)

Zygomatic major

d)

Orbicularis oris

11.

Which condition is characterized by habitual grinding of the teeth?

a)

Sialoliths

b)

Xerostomia

c)

Trismus

d)

Bruxism

12.

Which muscle is involved in the lateral movement of the mandible?

a)

Masseter

b)

Temporal

c)

Internal pterygoid

d)

External pterygoid

13.

Which nerve supplies the maxillary teeth and mucous membrane?

a)

Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve

b)

Maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve

c)

Greater palatine nerve

d)

Nasopalatine nerve

14.

Which foramens are present on hard palate?

4 lines
15.

WHICH MUSCLES ARE ATTACHED ON MASTOID PROCESS?

4 lines
16.

WHICH SUTURES ARE VISIBLE ON NORMA occipitalis?

4 lines
17.

HOW DOES ZYGOMATIC ARCH FORMS?

4 lines
18.

WHICH BONES FORM EXTERNAL ACOUSTIC MEATUS?

4 lines
19.

WHAT IS THE NAME OF SUTURE MARKED AS "C":

a)

INTERMAXILLARY SUTURE

b)

INTERPALATINE SUTURE

c)

SQUAMO TYMPANIC SUTURE

d)

PALATOMAXILLARY SUTURE

20.

IDENTIFY THE FORAMEN MARKED AS "A":

a)

NASOPALATINE FORAMEN

b)

INCISIVE FORAMEN

c)

GREATER PALATINE FORAMEN

d)

LESSER PALATINE FORAMEN

21.

WHAT ARE THE NAMES OF "A"?

4 lines
22.

WHICH MUSCLES ATTACHES TO "B"?

4 lines
23.

WHAT IS STRUCTURE "A"?

4 lines
24.

THE STRUCTURE "B" IS:

a)

SUPER CILIARY ARCH

b)

GLABELLA

c)

NASION

d)

FRONTAL BONE

25.

GIVE NAMES OF MUSCLES MARKED AS A, B, C AND D?

4 lines
26.

THE STRUCTURE "B" IS:

a)

SUPER CILIARY ARCH

b)

GLABELLA

c)

NASION

d)

FRONTAL BONE

27.

Label A

a)

Epicranius Frontalis

b)

Epicranius Occipitalis

c)

Zygomaticus

d)

Temporalis

28.

Label B

a)

Epicranius Frontalis

b)

Buccinator

c)

Masseter

d)

Temporalis

29.

Label C

a)

Epicranius Frontalis

b)

Epicranius Occipitalis

c)

Splenius Capitis

30.

Label D

a)

Orbicularis Oris

b)

Orbicularis Oculi

c)

Temporalis

d)

Zygomaticus

31.

Label E

a)

Obicularis Oris

b)

Platysma

c)

Splenius Capitis

d)

Trapezius

32.

Label F

a)

Zygomaticus

b)

Temporalis

c)

Platysma

d)

Trapezius

33.

Label G

a)

Masseter

b)

Buccinator

c)

Zygomaticus

d)

Temporalis

34.

Label H

a)

Sternocleidomastoid

b)

Platysma

c)

Trapezius

d)

Temporalis

35.

Label I

a)

Platysma

b)

Trapezious

c)

Sternocleidomastoid

36.

Label J

a)

Platysma

b)

Trapezius

c)

Splenious Capitis

d)

Sternocleidomastoid

37.

This muscle is between the Trapezius and the sternocleidomastoid

a)

Platysma

b)

Splenius Capitis

38.

Number 8

a)

Masseter

b)

Buccinatar

c)

Zygomaticus

39.

responsible for closing jaw

a)

Temporalis

b)

Frontalis

c)

Orbicularis Oculi

d)

Buccinator

40.

raises eyebrows

a)

Frontalis

b)

Temporalis

c)

Masseter

d)

Splenius Capitis

41.

Closes eyes

a)

Orbicularis Oculi

b)

Platysma

c)

Masseter

d)

Orbicularis Oris

42.

raises lateral corners of the mouth upward (smiling motion)

a)

Zygomaticus

b)

Buccinator

c)

Masseter

d)

Platysma

43.

closes lips; purses and protrude lips

a)

Obicularis Oris

b)

Orbicularis Oculi

c)

Masseter

d)

Buccinator

44.

compresses cheek; holds food between teeth during chewing

a)

buccinator

b)

masseter

c)

platysma

d)

trapezius

45.

prime mover of jaw closure; elevates mandible, helps with biting and chewing

a)

masseter

b)

buccinator

c)

zygomaticus

46.

pulling down the mandible, causes frowning

a)

platysma

b)

masseter

c)

splenius Capitis

d)

trapezius

47.

flexes laterally and rotates the head

a)

sternocleidomastoid

b)

platysma

c)

masseter

d)

buccinator

48.

pulls scalp posteriorly

a)

Occipitalis

b)

frontalis

c)

Orbicularis Oculi

49.

stabilizes, raises, retracts, and rotates scapula

a)

trapezius

b)

splenius capitis

c)

occipitalis

50.

extend or hyperextend head

a)

Splenius capitis

b)

Sternocleidomastoid

c)

Buccniator

d)

Temporalis

51.

Compresses the cheeks against the teeth and is used in acts such as blowing and assists in chewing

a)

Masseter

b)

Buccinator

c)

Platysma

d)

Lavator Labii

52.

Raises upper lip

a)

Lavator Labii

b)

Obicularis Oris

c)

Zygomatic

d)

Nasalis

53.

responsible for nostril flaring

a)

Nasalis

b)

Lavator Labii

c)

Obicularis Oculi

d)

Platysma

54.

helps bend the neck backwards

a)

Sternocleidomastoid

b)

Semispinalis Capitis

c)

Semispinalis Thoracis

d)

Multifidus Muscles

55.

helps maintain posture

a)

Sternocleidomastoid

b)

Semispinalis Capitis

c)

Semispinalis Thoracis

d)

Multifidus Muscles

56.
a)

Sternocleidomastoid

b)

Semispinalis Capitis

c)

Semispinalis Thoracis

d)

Multifidus Muscles

57.
a)

Sternocleidomastoid

b)

Semispinalis Capitis

c)

Semispinalis Thoracis

d)

Multifidus Muscles

58.
a)

Nasalis

b)

Lavator Labii

c)

Obicularis Oculi

d)

Platysma

59.
a)

Nasalis

b)

Lavator Labii

c)

Obicularis Oculi

d)

Platysma

60.

supplies motor fibers to four of the six muscles that direct the eyeball; to the eyelid & to internal muscles which control lens shape and pupil size

a)

optic

b)

abducens

c)

oculomotor

d)

trochlear

61.

fibers carry sensory and motor impulses for the pharynx, larynx and thoracic viscera; most motor fibers are parasympathetic and help promote digestive activity as well as regulate heart activity

a)

vagus

b)

vestibulocochlear

c)

facial

d)

trochlear

62.

carries impulses for sense of smell

a)

oculomotor

b)

facial

c)

trigeminal

d)

olfactory

63.

supplies motor fibers to the lateral rectus muscle of the eye

a)

abducens

b)

accessory

c)

facial

d)

trigeminal

64.

two sensory branches; one transmits impulses for balance, the other impulses for sense of hearing

a)

vagus

b)

vestibulocochlear

c)

hypoglossal

d)

trochlear

65.

activates muscles of facial expression, lacrimal and salivary glands

a)

olfactory

b)

hypoglossal

c)

facial

d)

abducens

66.

carries impulses for vision

a)

oculomotor

b)

trochlear

c)

optic

d)

vagus

67.

mostly motor fibers which activate sternocleidomastoid and trapezius

a)

accessory

b)

abducens

c)

trigeminal

d)

trochlear

68.

motor fibers control tongue movements; sensory fibers carry impulses from the tongue

a)

glossopharyngeal

b)

hypoglossal

c)

olfactory

d)

abducens

69.

supply motor fibers for the superior oblique eye muscles

a)

trigeminal

b)

hypoglossal

c)

vagus

d)

trochlear

70.

Which cranial nerve is #5?

a)

Oculomotor

b)

trigeminal

c)

abducens

d)

facial

71.

Which cranial nerve is #12

a)

Glossopharyngeal

b)

trigeminal

c)

optic

d)

hypoglossal

72.

Which nerve is responsible for hearing AND balance?

a)

Olfactory

b)

Vagus

c)

Vestibular/auditory

d)

facial

73.

Which nerve is responsible for shoulder and neck movement?

a)

Accessory

b)

Facial

c)

Trochlear

d)

Oculomotor

74.

Which nerve is #4

a)

Trigeminal

b)

Oculomotor

c)

Optic

d)

Trochlear

75.

Which cranial nerve has a bulb that was easily visible on the sheep brain?

a)

Optic nerve

b)

Olfactory nerve

c)

Oculomotor nerve

d)

Abducens

76.

Which nerve plays a role in digestive processes?

a)

Abducens

b)

Trochlear

c)

Accessory

d)

Vagus

77.

Which # is the glossopharyngeal nerve?

a)

7

b)

8

c)

9

d)

10

78.

Which number represents the optic nerve?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

79.

The buccal nerve branches from which of the 12 cranial nerves

a)

Accessory

b)

Abducens

c)

Trigeminal

d)

Facial

80.

Define malocclusion.

(a)  

81.

The differentiating feature between Class II division 1 and Class II division 2 incisor relationship is...

a)

Canine position

b)

Overbite

c)

Upper incisor inclination

d)

Lower incisor inclination

82.

Class II division 2 malocclusion is often associated with __________________ vertical proportion.

a)

Average

b)

Reduced

c)

Increased

83.

Which of these depicts Class III incisor relationship?

a)
b)
c)
d)
84.

State the canine classification as shown in the photo.

a)

Class II 1/2 unit on the right, Class II 1/2 unit on the left

b)

Class II 1/2 unit on the right, Class II 3/4 unit on the left

c)

Class III 1/2 unit on the right, Class III 1/4 unit on the left

d)

Class III 1/4 unit on the right, Class III 1/2 unit on the left

85.

State the Angle classification for the molar relationship as shown in the photo.

a)

Class I on the right side, Class III full unit on the left side

b)

Class III1/4 unit on the right side, Class I on the left side

c)

Class II1/4 unit on the right side, Class III3/4 unit on the left side

d)

Class II full unit on the right side, Class I on the left side

86.

This patient presented with a lip trap.

Select the associated features of malocclusion that this patient might have.

a)

Proclined upper incisors

b)

Retroclined lower incisors

c)

Spacing in the upper anterior segment

d)

Increased overjet

87.

Select the associated malocclusion features that this child might have if the thumb sucking habit is prolonged.

a)

Increased overjet

b)

Posterior crossbite

c)

Anterior open bite

d)

Retroclined lower arch

88.

Moderate crowding is when the amount of crowding is _____________

a)

more 4mm but less than 8mm

b)

more 5mm but less than 9mm

c)

more 3mm but less than 7mm

d)

more 6mm but less than 10mm

89.

The above patient presents with bimaxillary proclination. Select the most appropriate aetiology of this malocclusion.


I. Proclined upper and lower incisors

II. Flaccid lips

III. Tooth-size arch width discrepancy

IV. Thumb sucking habit

a)

I and II only

b)

I, II and III only

c)

I, II and IV

d)

I, II, III and IV

90.

The correct description of the anomaly on tooth 11 would be...

a)

90o mesial rotation

b)

180o mesial rotation

c)

90o distolabial rotation

d)

180o distolabial rotation

91.

The above patient presented with anterior crossbite with forward mandibular displacement, with premature contact on the lower central incisors.

The most appropriate sequelae if this malocclusion is not corrected would be:

a)

Attrition of the upper central incisors

b)

Mobility of lower central incisors

c)

Gingival recession of lower incisors

d)

Attrition of lower central incisors

92.

The patient above presented with multiple supernumerary teeth in the mandibular arch.

In general, supernumerary teeth may predispose the patient to:

a)

Caries formation

b)

Periodontal disease

c)

Crowding

d)

Impeded eruption of teeth

93.

Patients with increased and complete overbite are associated with:

a)

Reduced vertical proportion

b)

Reduced maxillo-mandibular plane angle (MMPA)

c)

Forward mandibular growth rotation

d)

Increased Curve of Spee

94.

The correct way to adjust the Adams clasp to improve retention is by...

a)

Bending the arrowhead inwards (position 1)

b)

Bending the shoulder downwards (position 2)

c)

Bending the bridge downwards (position 3)

d)

Squeezing the arrowhead (position 4)

95.

Regarding buccal canine retractor:

a)

It can be used to tip the canine distally

b)

It can be used to tip the canine palatally

c)

It can be used to derotate the canine

d)

It can be used to intrude the canine

96.

Dr Nor has removed the acrylic covering over the helices of the Z-spring. This will..

a)

make the tooth move faster

b)

make it easier to activate the Z-spring

c)

predispose the Z-spring to distortion

d)

make it easier for the patient to insert the appliance

97.

Please choose the correct statement regarding reverse labial bow and labial bow with U-loops.

a)

Reverse labial bow uses 0.5mm SS wire while labial bow with U-loops uses 0.7mm SS wire

b)

Reverse labial bow uses 0.7mm SS wire while labial bow with U-loops uses 0.5mm SS wire

c)

Reverse labial bow is activated by opening the loops while labial bow with U-loops is activated by closing the loops

d)

Both reverse labial bow and abial bow with U-loops is activated by closing the loops

98.

Dr Abdul is constructing finger springs on the distal of tooth 11 and 21 with 0.5mm SS wire to close a median diastema using upper removable appliance (URA).

In the middle of treatment he finds that correction is limited even though activation has been done, with the patient is very compliant to full-time URA wear.


State the most probable cause for this finding.

a)

Wrong wire dimension

b)

Wrong position of the helices

c)

Wrong position of the tags

d)

Wrong duration of URA use

99.

The patient above is a 12-year old boy with Class II division 1 incisor relationship on a Class 2 skeletal base with average vertical proportion and lip trap.

Complicated with increased overjet of 12mm, hypodontia of tooth 31, retained tooth 71, increased and complete overbite, crossbite on tooth 23 without mandibular displacement, Class II 3/4 unit molars and canines bilaterally.


The most appropriate management for this patient is..

a)

Orthognathic surgery

b)

Fixed orthodontic appliance

c)

Functional appliance

d)

Functional appliance followed by fixed appliance

100.

What is occlusion?

a)

Contact relationship of the teeth in function or parafunction

b)

A dental cleaning procedure

c)

A type of dental surgery

d)

A type of tooth decay

101.

What is the definition of ideal occlusion?

a)

A theoretical occlusion based on the morphology of the teeth

b)

A perfect alignment of teeth achieved naturally

c)

A type of dental implant

d)

A dental filling material

102.

What is malocclusion?

a)

A deviation from the ideal occlusion that may be considered aesthetically or functionally unsatisfactory

b)

A dental procedure for cavity filling

c)

A perfect alignment of teeth

d)

A type of dental crown

103.

What is overjet?

a)

A dental procedure for tooth extraction

b)

Horizontal overlap of the incisors

c)

Vertical overlap of the incisors

d)

A type of dental bridge

104.

What is overbite?

a)

A dental procedure for root canal treatment

b)

A type of dental braces

c)

Horizontal overlap of the incisors

d)

Vertical overlap of the incisors

105.

What is Class I occlusion?

a)

A type of dental surgery

b)

A dental cleaning procedure

c)

A type of dental filling material

d)

Relationship where the tip of the mesiobuccal cusp on the maxillary first molar is aligned with the mesiobuccal groove on the mandibular first molar

106.

What is Class II malocclusion?

a)

The mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar is distal to the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar

b)

The mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar is mesial to the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar

c)

A type of dental bridge

d)

A type of dental crown

107.

What is Class III malocclusion?

a)

A type of dental implant

b)

The mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar is distal to the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar

c)

A type of dental braces

d)

The mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar is mesial to the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar

108.

When should primary teeth be in normal alignment and occlusion?

a)

Shortly after the age of 15

b)

Shortly after the age of 10

c)

Shortly after the age of 5

d)

Shortly after the age of 2

109.

What is the primary molar relationship called when the distal surfaces of maxillary and mandibular primary second molars lie in the same vertical plane?

a)

Interdental spacing

b)

Flush terminal plane

c)

Distal-step

d)

Mesial-step

110.

What is the purpose of interdental spacing in primary teeth?

a)

Improving speech clarity

b)

Proper alignment of the permanent dentition

c)

Preventing tooth decay

d)

Aesthetic enhancement

111.

What is the normal overjet measurement?

a)

Less than 2 mm

b)

Negative or reverse overjet

c)

More than 3 mm

d)

2-3 mm

112.

What is the normal overbite measurement?

a)

2-3 mm

b)

More than 3 mm

c)

Complete overbite

d)

Less than 2 mm

113.

What is the facial profile of a person with Class II malocclusion?

a)

Convex

b)

Concave

c)

Straight line

d)

Prominent chin

114.

What is the facial profile of a person with Class III malocclusion?

a)

Straight line

b)

Concave

c)

Prominent chin

d)

Convex

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