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Worksheets

FC 3 and 4

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which pathogen and disease is mismatched?

a)

Gonyaulax — red tide

b)

Entamoeba — dysentery

c)

Giardia — beaver fever

d)

Trypanosoma — malaria

2.

Which pigment is dominant in red algae?

a)

Flavonoid

b)

Hydrator

c)

Chlorophylls

d)

Phycoerythrin

3.

Which of the following method creates pores in the

membrane?

a)

Gene gun

b)

Chemical transformation

c)

Electroporation

d)

Agrobacterium

4.

Which of the following is NOT true of agrobacterium?

a)

Horizontal gene transfer

b)

Gram positive bacteria

c)

Causes tumor in plants

d)

Transfer DNA in plants

5.

Gram-positive bacteria have:

a)

Thick peptidoglycan wall

b)

Thin peptidoglycan wall with outer membrane

6.

Gram-negative bacteria have:

a)

Teichoic acids in their cell wall

b)

Outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides

(LPS)

7.

Example of Gram-positive bacteria:

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Escherichia coli

8.

Example of Gram-negative bacteria:

a)

Bacillus anthracis

b)

Salmonella typhi

9.

Bacteria reproduce mainly by:

a)

Binary fission

b)

Mitosis

10.

Bacteria without a cell wall (resistant

to penicillin):

a)

Mycoplasma

b)

Clostridium

11.

Spiral-shaped bacteria are called:

a)

Cocci

b)

Spirilla

12.

Endospore-forming bacteria include:

a)

Bacillus and Clostridium

b)

Vibrio and Neisseria

13.

The growth of plant tissues in artificial media is called

________.

a)

Gene expression

b)

Transgenesis

c)

Plant tissue culture

d)

Cell hybridization

14.

Which of the following is NOT the feature of plant cells?

a)

Presence of centrioles

b)

The cell wall outside the cell membrane

c)

Cell-cell communication through plasmodesmata

d)

Consists of plastids

15.

Who first described “cells” in cork

(plant tissue)?

a)

Robert Hooke

b)

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

16.

Who observed “animalcules” (living

animal cells, bacteria)?

a)

Schleiden

b)

Leeuwenhoek

17.

Cell wall present in:

a)

Plant cells

b)

Animal cells

18.

Centrioles present in:

a)

Plant cells

b)

Animal cells

19.

Large central vacuole common in:

a)

Plant cells

b)

Animal cells

20.

Lysosomes are more prominent in:

a)

Plant cells

b)

Animal cells

21.

Store carbohydrates mainly as

glycogen:

a)

Plant cells

b)

Animal cells

22.

Matthias Schleiden (1838) stated:

a)

All plants are made of cells

b)

All animals are made of cells

23.

Golgi apparatus (discovered by

Camillo Golgi) is found in:

a)

Only plants

b)

Both plants and animals

24.

Which of the following is the main effect of cytokines in the

tissue culture system?

a)

Adventitious shoot formation

b)

Induction of somatic embryos

c)

Adventitious root formation

d)

Shoot elongation

25.

Auxins mainly cause:

a)

Cell elongation

b)

Seed dormancy

26.

The first discovered plant hormone,

auxin, was studied by:

a)

Charles Darwin

b)

Robert Hooke

27.

Gibberellins were discovered from a fungus

causing “foolish seedling disease” in rice.

They promote:

a)

Stem elongation

b)

Leaf fall

28.

Abscisic acid (ABA) is mainly known for:

a)

Growth stimulation

b)

Stress and dormancy

29.

Which hormone is sprayed commercially

to ripen bananas and mangoes faster?

a)

Ethylene

b)

Gibberellin

30.

Ethylene gas promotes:

a)

Fruit ripening

b)

Seed germination

31.

Which of the following is responsible for B-cell activation?

a)

Infection

b)

Antibody

c)

Antigen

d)

Allergy

32.

Which matures in the thymus?

a)

B cell

b)

T cell

33.

Which produces antibodies?

a)

B cell

b)

T cell

34.

Which provides humoral immunity?

a)

B cell

b)

T cell

35.

Which provides cell-mediated immunity?

a)

B cell

b)

T cell

36.

The main function of RNA is

a)

Carbohydrate synthesis

b)

Lipid synthesis

c)

Protein synthesis

d)

No specific function

37.

The “powerhouse of the cell” phrase was

popularized after discovery of which process

inside mitochondria?

a)

Calvin cycle

b)

Oxidative phosphorylation

38.

Which organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes

and is responsible for intracellular digestion?

a)

Peroxisome

b)

Lysosome

39.

Ribosomes are made of:

a)

DNA + proteins

b)

rRNA + proteins

40.

The rough endoplasmic reticulum is

“rough” because:

a)

It has ribosomes attached

b)

It stores calcium

41.

In plant cells, photosynthesis occurs in

chloroplasts. The light-dependent reactions

take place in:

a)

Stroma

b)

Thylakoid membranes

42.

Which scientist gave the statement “Omnis

cellula e cellula” (all cells come from pre

existing cells)?

a)

Rudolf Virchow

b)

Theodor Schwann

43.

Which cytoskeletal element is responsible

for cilia and flagella movement?

a)

Microtubules

b)

Microfilaments

44.

In animal cells, centrosomes play a key

role in:

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

Spindle formation during cell division

45.

Prokaryotes have membrane-bound organelles.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Peroxisomes break down fatty acids and detoxify

hydrogen peroxide.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

The nucleolus is the site of ribosome assembly.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Chloroplasts and mitochondria are semiautonomous

because they have their own DNA and ribosomes.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Rough ER: Protein synthesis (ribosomes attached)

Smooth ER: Lipid synthesis, detoxification, calcium storage

a)

True

b)

False

50.

An example of a Hesperidium is

a)

Banana

b)

Guava

c)

Citrus

d)

Grape

51.

Which of these is not an antibiotic?

a)

Penicillin

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Terramycin

d)

Paracetamol

52.

Mycoses are diseases caused by

a)

Fungi

b)

Mycobacteria

c)

Algae

d)

Cyanobacteria

53.

Which one of the following is NOT a correct pair in relation to

function?

a)

Golgi complex- breakdown of complex molecules

b)

Mitochondria- production of energy

c)

Chromosomes- Vehicles of heredity

d)

Chloroplast- Hill reaction

54.

Which cell type is best for studying lysosomes?

a)

Leaf cell

b)

Nerve cell

c)

Muscle cell

d)

White blood cell

55.

Which best describes meiosis?

a)

Nuclear changes repeat indefinitely

b)

New cells have double chromosome number

c)

Nucleoli split and disappear

d)

New cells have half chromosome number

56.

Mitosis results in:

a)

Two identical diploid cells

b)

Four genetically different haploid cells

57.

Meiosis is essential for:

a)

Growth and repair

b)

Formation of gametes

58.

Crossing over (exchange of genetic

material) occurs in:

a)

Prophase I of meiosis

b)

Prophase of mitosis

59.

Which scientist first observed cell division

under the microscope?

a)

Walther Flemming

b)

Rudolf Virchow

60.

At the end of meiosis II, each cell has:

a)

Same chromosome number as parent cell

b)

Half the chromosome number of parent cell

61.

Mitosis occurs only in somatic (body) cells.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

In mitosis, homologous chromosomes pair and

recombine.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Meiosis contributes to genetic variation through

independent assortment and crossing over.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

What happens when a red blood cell is placed in distilled

water?

a)

Plasmolysis

b)

No change

c)

Shrinks

d)

Swells

65.

A plant cell in a hypertonic solution

becomes:

a)

Turgid

b)

Plasmolyzed

66.

In an isotonic solution, an animal cell:

a)

Maintains normal shape

b)

Swells and bursts

67.

In a hypotonic solution, water enters the cell.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Which of these is NOT a fruit?

a)

Carrot

b)

Cucumber

c)

Ampalaya

d)

Squash

69.

Chlorophyll appears green because green light is:

a)

Dispersed

b)

Absorbed

c)

Refracted

d)

Reflected

70.

Which gas is essential for seed germination?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Oxygen

71.

Which pairing is incorrect?

a)

Cnidaria - Corals

b)

Porifera - Sponges

c)

Annelida - Earthworm

d)

Platyhelminthes – Ascaris

72.

In science education, which type of learning most aligns with

Piaget’s theory of cognitive development?

a)

Memorization

b)

Discovery learning

c)

Repetitive learning

d)

Didactic instruction

73.

Which principle justifies the use of real-world problems in

science classrooms?

a)

Abstraction

b)

Relevance

c)

Conformity

d)

Isolation

74.

What is the main focus of a spiral science curriculum?

a)

Teaching concepts in isolation

b)

Rote memorization

c)

Revisiting topics with increasing complexity

d)

Strict chronological order for organization

75.

In curriculum mapping, which is the most important to

ensure vertical alignment?

a)

Matching lesson plans

b)

Sequencing content across grade levels

c)

Focusing on a single topic

d)

Using the same textbooks

76.

Which model of curriculum development advocates for clear

learning outcomes before content and assessment design?

a)

Tyler’s Model

b)

Taba’s Model

c)

Wheeler’s Model

d)

Backward Design

77.

Which statement is most consistent with a learner-centered

science curriculum?

a)

Content coverage is prioritized over skill development

b)

Student interests and experiences shape learning activities

c)

Assessment focuses on factual recall

d)

Rigid pacing guides must be followed

78.

Which is the most effective strategy for minimizing chemical

exposure during laboratory work?

a)

Storing chemicals in the classroom

b)

Limiting food and drinks in the lab

c)

Mixing chemicals before class

d)

Use of fume hoods and PPE

79.

Which safety device is most crucial for responding to a

student's clothing catching fire in the laboratory?

a)

Fire blanket

b)

First aid kit

c)

Eye wash station

d)

Chemical fume hood

80.

What is the primary purpose of maintaining a laboratory inventory

log?

a)

To record students’ attendance and list those who use the chemicals

b)

To assess students’ performance in handling laboratory equipment

c)

To prepare lesson plans for the day-to-day experiment

d)

To track chemical usage and ensure safe storage

81.

In risk management, what should a science teacher

prioritize before a lab session?

a)

Grading after the lab

b)

Scheduling a field trip

c)

Reviewing safety data sheets

d)

Collecting student fees

82.

In inquiry-based learning, what is the teacher’s most

important role?

a)

Direct instruction provider

b)

Knowledge transmitter

c)

Initiator of student investigations

d)

The teacher is the sole source of answers

83.

What is a hallmark of authentic assessment in inquiry-based

science classrooms?

a)

Multiple-choice tests

b)

Real-world problem-solving tasks

c)

Standardized testing with certain criterion

d)

Memorization of facts or recall of information

84.

Which constructivist strategy is best exemplified by students

designing their own experiments?

a)

Repetition

b)

Didactic lecture

c)

Guided inquiry

d)

Closed-ended questioning

85.

Which assessment method best evaluates higher-order

thinking skills in science?

a)

True/false tests

b)

Matching type tests

c)

Fill-in-the-blank quizzes

d)

Practical performance tasks

86.

Which research method is most appropriate for studying the

impact of inquiry-based instruction on student achievement?

a)

Historical analysis

b)

Experimental design

c)

Narrative analysis

d)

Philosophical reflection

87.

Which mathematician made significant contributions to

both algebra and astronomy, and was the first woman to earn a

doctorate in mathematics in Germany?

a)

Jane Goodall

b)

Hypatia of Alexandria

c)

Sofia Kovalevskaya

d)

Mary Somerville

88.

Who provided the first experimental proof of neutrinos, as

predicted by Pauli and Fermi?

a)

Frederick Reines and Clyde Cowan

b)

James Watson and Francis Crick

c)

Ada Lovelace and Charles Babbage

d)

Marie Curie and Pierre Curie

89.

Who discovered the neutron, thereby paving the way for

nuclear fission research?

a)

James Chadwick

b)

Ernest Rutherford

c)

Enrico Fermi

d)

J. J. Thomson

90.

Electrons are found in specific regions

around the nucleus called:

a)

Orbitals

b)

Orbits

91.

The orbital shape described by the

quantum number l = 1 is:

a)

p-orbital

b)

d-orbital

92.

The isotope of hydrogen with 1 proton and

2 neutrons is:

a)

Deuterium

b)

Tritium

93.

Which subatomic particle determines the

chemical identity of an atom?

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

94.

An atom with more electrons than protons

is called a:

a)

Cation

b)

Anion

95.

The scientist who proposed the planetary

model of the atom was:

a)

Niels Bohr

b)

J.J. Thomson

96.

The principle stating that electrons occupy

the lowest energy orbitals first is:

a)

Pauli Exclusion Principle

b)

Aufbau Principle

97.

The particle responsible for holding

protons together in the nucleus is the:

a)

Strong nuclear force

b)

Electromagnetic force

98.

The “Pauli Exclusion Principle,” which underpins much of

quantum physics and chemistry, states that:

a)

No two photons can occupy the same quantum state

b)

No two fermions can occupy the same quantum state

c)

No two electrons can have the same orbital

d)

All bosons must have unique energy levels

99.

Which scientist’s work on cosmic microwave background

radiation provided the first strong observational evidence for the

Big Bang theory?

a)

Edwin Hubble and Georges Lemaître

b)

Linus Pauling and William Herschel

c)

Arno Penzias and Robert Wilson

d)

Edmond Halley and Charles Messier

100.

Which of the following is a fluid matrix for nutrient and waste

transport, hormone carrier, and liquid portion of the blood?

a)

Plasma

b)

WBC

c)

RBC

d)

Thrombocytes

101.

The hormone cortisol is produced by the:

a)

Thyroid gland

b)

Adrenal gland

c)

Pituitary gland

d)

Pancreas

102.

The process of building and storing complex molecules from

simpler ones. It's also known as constructive metabolism

a)

Anabolism

b)

Catabolism

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Metabolism

103.

Which cells in the blood do not have a nucleus?

a)

Erythrocyte

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Monocyte

d)

Basophil

104.

To ensure adequate tissue oxygenation, a sufficient level of

this substance must be maintained. It is an iron-rich protein in

red blood cells.

a)

Myoglobin

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Cytochrome

d)

Albumin

105.

Which part of the brain is involved in regulating heart rate,

breathing, and blood pressure?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Pons

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Hippocampus

106.

Which of the following are most directly involved in chemical

bonding?

a)

protons

b)

neutrons

c)

alpha particles

d)

valence electrons

107.

What component of hard water makes it “hard”?

a)

sodium and nitrogen

b)

oxygen and hydrogen

c)

large amounts of sodium and carbon dioxide

d)

large amounts of calcium and magnesium ions

108.

As determined experimentally by Italian scientist Amedeo

Avogadro, one mole or any substance represents _____

particles.

a)

2.06 x 10^23

b)

6.02 x 10^26

c)

6.02 x 10^23

d)

2.60 x 10^23

109.

Which of the following situations is true as a boat moves

from salty sea to freshwater river?

a)

It sinks deeper

b)

It floats higher

c)

It stays at the same level

d)

It moves faster

110.

Thinking, memory, voluntary movements, sensory processing

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Midbrain

c)

Pons

d)

Medulla Oblongata