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Patient Care Technician

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following will affect a wound’s ability to heal?

a)

Pain

b)

Infection

c)

Vomiting

d)

Nausea

2.

The most common vein used in venipuncture:

a)

Basilic

b)

Cephalic

c)

Median cubital

d)

Femoral

3.

When performing a 12-lead ECG, V-1 is placed at the:

a)

Fifth intercostal space, right of the sternum

b)

Fifth intercostal space left of the sternum

c)

Fourth intercostal space, right of the sternum

d)

Fourth intercostal space left of the sternum

4.

Which piece of equipment would be used to check an oxygen level on a patient with COPD?

a)

Nasal cannula

b)

Pulse oximeter

c)

CXR

d)

Respirator

5.

Which technique is used for an invasive procedure?

a)

Clean

b)

Sterile

c)

Autoclave

d)

Micro-clean

6.

The CDC recommends which of the following for hand hygiene?

a)

Hand washing

b)

Autoclaving

c)

Alcohol based hand rubs

d)

Both a and c are CDC recommended

7.

A pressure ulcer with death to the tissue and damage to the muscle and bone is:

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

8.

A hydrocolloid film is used:

a)

In treatment of hives and rashes

b)

In taking an x-ray

c)

In treatment of pressure ulcers

d)

None of the above are common uses

9.

An infection that affects the entire body is _________

a)

systemic

b)

localized

c)

chronic

d)

acute

10.

9.

a)

Systemic

b)

Local

c)

Trauma

d)

Edema

11.

The brachial artery is located in the _________.

a)

Side of the neck

b)

Behind the knee

c)

Sole of the foot

d)

Top side of the elbow

12.

Which of the following is true when an IV infiltrates?

a)

Needle pierces the vein

b)

IV fluid flows into surrounding tissue

c)

Patient will experience pain and swelling

d)

All the above are true with IV infiltration

13.

The prefix "hypo" means:

a)

Low

b)

Pain

c)

High

d)

Water

14.

Which blood type is considered to be the universal donor?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

15.

A single lumen, indwelling catheter is inserted into all of the following except:

a)

Jugular vein

b)

Subclavian vein

c)

Basilic vein

d)

Superior vena cava

16.

A nephrostomy tube is inserted directly into the:

a)

Nephron

b)

Urinary bladder

c)

Colon

d)

Kidney

17.

Constipation can be relieved by administering a(n) ___________.

a)

Rectal suppository

b)

Enema

c)

Heat pad to the lower abdomen

d)

Both a and b are methods of relieving constipation

18.

An ostomy may be performed because of:

(a)  

19.

All are reasons an ostomy may be performed:

a)

Cancer

b)

Blockage

c)

Trauma

d)

All are reasons an ostomy may be performed

20.

The suffix "cyan" means:

a)

Yellow

b)

blue

c)

green

d)

red

21.

The root word "adeno" means:

a)

Vessel

b)

Bladder

c)

Gland

d)

Joint

22.

The root word "hemo" means:

a)

Blood

b)

Heart

c)

Vessel

d)

Artery

23.

The abbreviation OU means:

a)

Left ear

b)

Right ear

c)

Both eyes

d)

Both ears

24.

A crash cart contains which of the following?

a)

Defibrillator with cardiac monitor

b)

Emergency drugs, needles, and syringes

c)

Equipment for ventilation and chest compression

d)

All of the above

25.

In an adult, the normal pulse rate is _______ beats per minute and normal respiratory rate is _______ breaths per minute.

a)

20-30, 60-100

b)

60-100, 18-20

c)

100-60, 30-20

d)

30-20, 90-60

26.

An AED is used only when the patient is:

a)

Unresponsive

b)

Without a pulse

c)

Not breathing

d)

All are reasons to use an AED

27.

The abbreviation OS means:

a)

right eye

b)

left eye

c)

both eyes

28.

An opening into the airway is called a ___________.

a)

trachelectomy

b)

tracheomalacia

c)

tracheotomy

d)

tracheoscopy

29.

Which of the following are side effects of chemotherapy?

a)

Emesis and anorexia

b)

Alopecia

c)

Anemia and fatigue

d)

All are chemotherapy side effects

30.

Which pulse is commonly palpated in CPR?

a)

Radial

b)

Carotid

c)

Femoral

d)

Brachial

31.

The suffix “-algia” means:

a)

Pain

b)

Condition of

c)

Difficult

d)

Blood

32.

The suffix “-ectomy” means:

a)

Condition of urine

b)

Discharge

c)

Surgical removal

d)

Procedure

33.

The suffix “-emia” means:

a)

Inflammation

b)

Blood

c)

Enlargement

d)

Small

34.

The suffix “-itis” means:

a)

Excessive flow

b)

Inflammation

c)

Breathing

d)

Discharge

35.

The suffix “-logy” means:

a)

Blood

b)

Destruction of

c)

Dark

d)

Study of

36.

34. The suffix “-lysis” means:

a)

destruction

b)

formation

c)

movement

d)

growth

37.

The suffix “-megaly” means:

a)

Enlargement

b)

Inflammation

c)

Condition of urine

d)

Breathing

38.

The suffix “-pathy” means:

a)

Discharge

b)

Away from

c)

Disease

d)

Study of

39.

The suffix “-pnea” means:

a)

Before

b)

Enlargement

c)

Breathing

d)

Pain

40.

The suffix “-rrhagia” means:

a)

Pain

b)

Excessive flow

c)

Inside

d)

Small

41.

The suffix “-rrhea” means:

a)

Dark

b)

Breathing

c)

Blood

d)

Discharge

42.

The suffix “-uria” means:

a)

Condition of urine

b)

Excessive flow

c)

Study of

d)

Growth

43.

The prefix “epi-” means:

a)

Difficult

b)

Top

c)

Half

d)

Against

44.

The prefix “hemi-” means:

a)

Inside

b)

Before

45.

The prefix "intra-" means:

a)

Towards

b)

Inside, within

c)

Around

d)

Away from

46.

The prefix "peri-" means:

a)

Many

b)

Around

c)

Without

d)

Under

47.

The prefix "poly-" means:

a)

Not

b)

Many

c)

After

d)

Backward

48.

The prefix "sub-" means:

a)

Difficult

b)

Top

c)

Half

d)

Under

49.

The prefix "pre-" means:

a)

Before

b)

Backward

c)

Under

d)

Many

50.

The prefix "retro-" means:

a)

Away from

b)

Around

c)

Backward

d)

Toward

51.

The prefix "post-" means:

a)

Inside

b)

Between

c)

After

d)

Against

52.

The prefix "a-, an-" means:

a)

around

b)

without, not

c)

in the end

d)

top

53.

The prefix “ab-” means:

a)

top

b)

before

c)

within

d)

away from

54.

The prefix “ad-” means:

a)

Toward

b)

Many

c)

Few

d)

Difficult

55.

The prefix “anti-” means:

a)

Against

b)

Difficult

c)

Between

d)

Away

56.

The prefix “dys-” means:

a)

Against

b)

Unfavorable

c)

Backward

d)

Difficult

57.

Cold applications are indicated for treatment of:

a)

Strains

b)

Sprains

c)

Bruises

d)

All are indications for cold application

58.

Which of the follow conditions would heat therapy be contraindicated?

a)

Edema

b)

DVT

c)

Open wounds

d)

All are contraindications

59.

Which of the following are not symptoms of renal calculi?

a)

Hematuria

b)

Urinary retention

c)

Flank pain

d)

Flatulence

60.

Which of the following are routine test for a patient with diabetes?

a)

HgA1C

b)

UA

c)

FBS

d)

All are tests commonly done for diabetics

61.

An HAI infection, previously known as a nosocomial infection, is:

4 lines
62.

Occult blood testing is commonly done on the following specimen:

a)

Urine

b)

Fecal

c)

Blood

d)

Mucous

63.

The method of drawing blood using a dual headed needle is the _________

a)

Vacuum-tube method

b)

Syringe method

c)

Non cath method

d)

WIS

64.

When removing a dressing, you should:

a)

Pull tape away from the wound

b)

Pull tape toward the wound

c)

Use an adhesive remover

d)

Cover with a new dressing

65.

A suprapubic catheter enters the urinary bladder through the

a)

Abdominopelvic wall

b)

Ureters

c)

Urethra

d)

Vagina

66.

Which of the following procedures requires the use of sterile technique?

a)

Electrocardiogram

b)

Insertion of an indwelling catheter

c)

Drawing blood

d)

Blood pressure

67.

Which of the following best defines necrotic tissue?

a)

Inflamed tissue

b)

Red tissue

c)

Dead tissue

d)

Swollen tissue

68.

When cleaning an open wound, you should:

a)

Scrub back and forth

b)

Make small circles starting in the center and working out

c)

Use a circular pattern working toward the wound

d)

All are proper procedures

69.

67. A patient is suspected of having septicemia. Which of the following lab test would be performed to confirm the diagnosis?

a)

Blood culture

b)

Urinalysis

c)

Chest X-ray

d)

Electrocardiogram

70.

Which of the following is a type of blood test?

a)

Type and cross

b)

Blood culture

c)

Chemistry panel

d)

Pro-time

71.

What gauge needle is most commonly used for a venipuncture procedure?

a)

20-23 gauge

b)

16-18 gauge

c)

24-26 gauge

d)

12-14 gauge

72.

A pathogen that can live without the presence of oxygen is:

a)

Dead

b)

Anaerobic

c)

Aerobic

d)

Septic

73.

When drawing blood using the syringe method, it is common to use a:

a)

1 ml syringe

b)

10 ml syringe

c)

50 ml syringe

d)

None of the above are commonly used

74.

Isolation measures are used to protect:

a)

The patient from contracting a disease from the public

b)

The public from contracting a disease from a patient

c)

The patient from contracting a disease from a healthcare worker

d)

All are reasons for isolation measures

75.

CDC is the abbreviation for:

a)

Center for Dogs and Cats

b)

Center for Disease Control and Prevention

c)

Center for Diseased Cows

d)

Control Drug Count

76.

The autoclave sterilizes instruments by:

a)

Cold

b)

Heat

c)

Steam under pressure

d)

Using chemicals

77.

The purpose of pneumatic compression hosiery is to prevent _______.

a)

Edema

b)

DVT

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Syncope

78.

The medical term singultus means:

(a)  

79.

The most common cause of hiccups is:

a)

Fever

b)

Hiccups

c)

Pain

d)

Gas

80.

Hypothermia is a body temperature:

a)

Above 101 degrees Fahrenheit

b)

98.6 degrees Fahrenheit

c)

Below 95 degrees Fahrenheit

d)

Below 90 degrees Fahrenheit

81.

A sitz bath is applied to the __________.

a)

Shoulder

b)

Knee

c)

Perineum

d)

Lower back

82.

Patients taking an anticoagulant are known to require pressure on the venipuncture site for 5 minutes. What other OTC medication is known to prolong the clotting process?

a)

Tylenol

b)

Aspirin

c)

Decongestants

d)

None of the above would affect the bloods ability to clot

83.

The medical term for a bruise is:

a)

Ecchymosis

b)

Malaise

c)

Cyanosis

d)

Thrombosis

84.

Which of the following are types of seizures?

a)

Jacksonian

b)

Grand-mal

c)

Petit-mal

d)

All of these are types of seizures

85.

The medical term for a collection of blood in the chest cavity is:

a)

Hemolysis

b)

Hematoma

c)

Hemothorax

d)

Hemodialysis

86.

A macro-drip tubing set delivers medication at a rate of:

a)

10-15 gtt/ml

b)

25-30 gtt/ml

c)

40-50 gtt/ml

d)

60 gtt/ml

87.

Administration of intradermal injections are made at the:

a)

Anterior forearm

b)

Midback

88.

All of the following can be reported as objective information except:

a)

Vital signs

b)

Bleeding

c)

Edema

d)

Headache

89.

Paralysis of the lower extremities is medically termed as:

a)

Quadriplegia

b)

Hemiplegia

c)

Paraplegia

d)

Bilegia

90.

Petechiae is best defined as:

a)

Tiny hemorrhagic spots

b)

Hematomas

c)

Eccomysis

d)

Blood clot

91.

Which of the following are possible fomites?

a)

Bed sheets

b)

Pillow case

c)

Patient's gown

d)

All are possible fomites

92.

When charting on a patient's condition, include:

a)

Your thoughts on the patient's condition

b)

Subjective and objective information

c)

What you think the treatment should be

d)

All should be included when charting

93.

Tact is best defined as:

a)

Saying or doing the right thing at the right time

b)

Completing a task quickly

c)

Not being judgmental

d)

Giving good medical advice

94.

Which of the following are principles of conduct and moral values:

a)

Tact

b)

Ethics

c)

Morals

d)

Professionalism

95.

Which of the following are forms of communication?

a)

Written

b)

Verbal

c)

Nonverbal

d)

All are forms of communication

96.

If a patient refuses to admit they have a terminal illness, they are:

a)

In shock

b)

In denial

c)

Afraid

d)

Bargaining

97.

In 1996, congress passed legislation to protect patient information. This act is known as:

a)

HIPPA

b)

Don't ask, don't tell

c)

HIPAA

d)

FCIA

98.

In a hospital setting, the PCA is closely supervised by a ____________.

a)

CNA

b)

RN

c)

MD

d)

Unit Supervisor

99.

The medical chart is:

a)

A legal document

b)

A temporary record of care

c)

Documentation that can be used in court

d)

Both a and c

100.

Which of the following are modes of transportation for a pathogen?

a)

Airborne

b)

droplet

c)

vector

d)

All are modes of pathogen transport

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