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Newborn Care and Physiology

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Immediately after birth, the nurse begins drying the newborn vigorously and removes the wet linens. When the infant remains slightly cyanotic and sluggish to cry, which additional intervention is appropriate based on safe newborn stimulation?

a)

Rub or flick the soles of the newborn’s feet

b)

Slap the newborn’s buttocks

c)

Shake the newborn’s shoulders gently

d)

Continue drying for several minutes without other stimulation

2.

A student nurse continues to rub the newborn’s back for several minutes after the infant is pink, crying, and breathing regularly. The RN should intervene because:

a)

Prolonged tactile stimulation is not recommended

b)

Back rubbing should be replaced with slapping the buttocks

c)

Stimulation should never be used after birth

d)

Tactile stimulation should always last at least 10 minutes

3.

After birth, the nurse explains to parents that blood is now flowing through the newborn’s lungs rather than bypassing them. This change occurs primarily because:

a)

The foramen ovale opens more widely

b)

Fetal shunts function more effectively

c)

Pressure changes in the heart, lungs, and vessels cause functional closure of fetal shunts

d)

The placenta increases its blood flow to the newborn

4.

The nurse delays cord clamping for a brief period after birth at the provider’s request. Which hematologic effect is most directly influenced by the timing of cord clamping?

a)

The newborn’s blood volume

b)

The newborn’s platelet function

c)

The newborn’s clotting factor production

d)

The newborn’s blood type

5.

A full-term newborn weighs 3.5 kg. Based on typical newborn blood volume of 80–85 mL/kg, the nurse estimates the infant’s total blood volume to be approximately:

a)

100 mL

b)

300 mL

c)

450–300 mL

d)

280–300 mL

6.

The nurse is educating parents about fluid balance in their newborn. Which statement best explains why newborns are at higher risk for dehydration and acidosis?

a)

Their kidneys are fully mature and excrete too much potassium

b)

Their rate of metabolism is lower than adults

c)

Their rate of fluid exchange and metabolism are higher, and their kidneys cannot concentrate urine

d)

They produce more antidiuretic hormone (ADH) than adults

7.

The nurse is planning care for a newborn, knowing they are prone to specific fluid-related problems. Which conditions is the newborn particularly at risk for due to fluid and electrolyte characteristics? Select all that apply.

a)

Dehydration

b)

Acidosis

c)

Overhydration/fluid overload

d)

Chronic hypertension

e)

Hyperthyroidism

8.

Parents plan to feed the baby store-bought cow’s milk. Which teaching point by the nurse is most accurate based on newborn GI function?

a)

“Cow’s milk is ideal because your newborn has plenty of pancreatic lipase.”

b)

“Your newborn has a deficiency in pancreatic lipase, which makes cow’s milk difficult to digest.”

c)

“Cow’s milk is recommended because the stomach can hold over 200 mL.”

d)

“Cow’s milk is safe if diluted with water.”

9.

A nurse is preparing a feeding plan for a term newborn. Which information about stomach capacity is most relevant?

a)

The newborn’s stomach can hold approximately 30 mL

b)

The newborn’s stomach can hold approximately 90 mL

c)

The newborn’s stomach is the same size as an adult’s

d)

Stomach capacity is irrelevant when planning feedings

10.

A newborn has not voided by 20 hours of life. Which action is most appropriate?

a)

Reassure parents this is expected for the first 48 hours

b)

Document as normal and continue routine care

c)

Recognize that the first void is expected within 24 hours and continue to closely monitor

d)

Restrict fluids until the newborn voids

11.

The parent of a healthy newborn asks how often the baby will urinate. The nurse answers based on typical newborn patterns:

a)

“Most newborns void 2–3 times per day.”

b)

“Most newborns void 4–6 times per day.”

c)

“Most newborns may void 10–20 times per day.”

d)

“Most newborns void once every 48 hours.”

12.

The nurse calculates urine output for a 3 kg newborn and finds it to be 1.5 mL/kg/hr. How should the nurse interpret this finding?

a)

Below normal urine production

b)

Within normal newborn urine production of 1–2 mL/kg/hr

c)

Above normal, indicating fluid overload

d)

Evidence of kidney failure

13.

During discharge teaching, parents ask about their newborn’s pale complexion and sun exposure. Which statement by the nurse is most accurate regarding skin and melanin?

a)

“Newborns have a high amount of melanin, which protects them from UV exposure.”

b)

“Your baby has low melanin at birth, making them more susceptible to UV damage.”

c)

“Melanin is not present in newborns until 6 months of age.”

d)

“Newborns are immune to sun damage.”

14.

The nurse explains musculoskeletal changes to a new parent. Which statement is accurate?

a)

“Your baby’s skeleton is mostly ossified bone, just smaller.”

b)

“The skeleton contains more cartilage than ossified bone and will rapidly ossify in the first year.”

c)

“Muscle growth occurs primarily through hyperplasia (new muscle cells).”

d)

“Bones do not change significantly during the first year of life.”

15.

The nurse is teaching parents about their newborn’s immune protection. Which statement should be included?

a)

“Skin and mucous membranes serve as the first line of defense against infection.”

b)

“The first line of defense is antibody formation.”

c)

“The newborn has no immune defenses until vaccines are given.”

d)

“Breast milk does not influence immune protection.”

16.

The nurse emphasizes to a breastfeeding parent that human milk provides passive immunity. Which immunologic benefit is correctly described?

a)

Breast milk provides passive immunity through IgM only

b)

Breast milk provides passive immunity, including IgG

c)

Breast milk suppresses antibody formation

d)

Breast milk replaces the need for any immunizations

17.

A newborn shows an unusually high urine volume despite limited intake. Which endocrine characteristic contributes to the risk of dehydration?

a)

Limited production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

b)

Excessive ADH production

c)

Excess thyroid hormone production

d)

Fully mature adrenal function

18.

The nurse is assessing a newborn’s neurologic status. Which finding is consistent with normal neurologic development at birth?

a)

Fully integrated nervous system with no primitive reflexes

b)

Presence of primitive reflexes and reliance on the autonomic nervous system

c)

Absence of any reflexes at birth

d)

Complete myelination of all motor pathways

19.

Parents ask what their newborn can “see.” The nurse responds accurately by saying:

a)

“Your baby’s pupils react to light, and reflexes like blinking are present, but tear production is minimal until 2–4 weeks.”

b)

“Your baby cannot react to light at all yet.”

c)

“Your baby has full visual acuity and tear production at birth.”

d)

“Vision does not begin developing until 2–4 months.”

20.

At 1 and 5 minutes after birth, the nurse assigns an Apgar score. When a student asks what the score is for, the nurse responds:

a)

“It tells us exactly what resuscitation your baby needs.”

b)

“It reflects the baby’s general condition but is not used to determine the need for resuscitation.”

c)

“It is only used for research and has no clinical meaning.”

d)

“It determines the baby’s gestational age.”

21.

A newborn has a low Apgar score at 1 minute due to poor tone and reduced reflex irritability, but improves by 5 minutes. Which factors from the baby’s history could have contributed to the initial low score?

a)

High birth weight alone

b)

Maternal sedation during labor

c)

Maternal high protein intake during pregnancy

d)

Use of regional anesthesia only

22.

Within the first hour after birth, a full-term newborn is wide awake, actively looking around, and latching effectively at the breast. This phase is best described as:

a)

Period of deep sleep

b)

First period of reactivity

c)

Second period of reactivity

d)

Transitional lethargy

23.

A newborn is now 3 hours old and sleeping quietly after breastfeeding well at 45 minutes of life. The nurse recognizes this as:

a)

The first period of reactivity

b)

A normal sleep phase between the reactivity periods

c)

Abnormal lethargy requiring evaluation

d)

The second period of reactivity

24.

At 6 hours of life, the newborn is alert and responsive again. The nurse documents this as:

a)

Transition to preterm behavior

b)

Second period of reactivity

c)

Failure to thrive

d)

Prolonged first reactivity

25.

While assessing a newborn, the nurse notes a weak, groaning cry with grunting during expiration. What is the nurse’s priority interpretation?

a)

This is a normal variation for a sleepy baby

b)

This usually indicates a respiratory disturbance

c)

This always indicates a neurologic emergency

d)

This is diagnostic of colic

26.

A newborn who was initially stable develops a high-pitched, shrill cry. The nurse interprets this as a potential sign of:

a)

Increased intracranial pressure

b)

Normal hunger

c)

Sleepiness

d)

Parental separation anxiety

27.

The nurse is assessing parent–infant attachment during a feeding. Which behavior suggests healthy attachment?

a)

Parents avoid eye contact and talk only to the nurse

b)

Parents hold the infant stiffly at arm’s length

c)

Parents call the infant by name and comment on whom the infant looks like

d)

Parents refuse to hold the infant during feeding

28.

When evaluating attachment behaviors, which observations would indicate positive bonding between parents and newborn? Select all that apply.

a)

Parents reach out for the infant when the nurse enters with the baby

b)

Parents speak to the infant and make direct eye contact

c)

Parents avoid touching the infant’s body

d)

Parents smile, stroke, or gently rock the infant

e)

Parents express disgust about diaper changes

29.

The nurse uses the New Ballard scale immediately after birth. This tool is most appropriate for:

a)

Determining the Apgar score

b)

Assessing gestational age between 20 and 44 weeks

c)

Assessing respiratory distress

d)

Diagnosing congenital anomalies

30.

A newborn’s weight plots at the 5th percentile for gestational age. How should the nurse classify this infant?

a)

Appropriate for gestational age (AGA)

b)

Large for gestational age (LGA)

c)

Small for gestational age (SGA)

d)

Term by weight

31.

A newborn is born at 39 weeks’ gestation. How should the nurse describe this infant’s maturity?

a)

Preterm

b)

Term

c)

Postterm

d)

Nonviable

32.

The nurse is assessing a newborn’s vital signs. Which set falls within normal limits?

a)

HR 130 bpm, RR 40/min

b)

HR 90 bpm, RR 20/min

c)

HR 160 bpm, RR 20/min

d)

HR 100 bpm, RR 80/min

33.

Before taking a rectal temperature on a newborn, which nursing action is essential?

a)

Give a pacifier to reduce crying

b)

Evaluate patency of the anus

c)

Feed the newborn to calm them

d)

Place the newborn prone for 20 minutes

34.

During a HEENT exam, the nurse observes small white cyst-like spots on the newborn’s gums. Which interpretation is correct?

a)

These are Epstein pearls and are a normal finding

b)

These indicate oral thrush

c)

These are neonatal teeth requiring urgent removal

d)

These are a sign of vitamin deficiency

35.

The nurse assesses the newborn’s mouth and checks for the sucking and rooting reflexes. The presence of these reflexes best indicates:

a)

Adequate feeding readiness and neurologic function

b)

Advanced motor development

c)

Premature myelination

d)

The need for supplemental formula

36.

The parents ask why their newborn needs an eye ointment and a vitamin K injection shortly after birth. The nurse’s response should focus on:

a)

Routine newborn care to prevent infection and support clotting

b)

Controlling the baby’s crying

c)

Improving the baby’s appetite

d)

Enhancing the baby’s sleep patterns

37.

The nurse is preparing teaching for parents on newborn screening. Which tests should the nurse expect to be completed before discharge?

a)

Metabolic newborn screening and hearing screening

b)

Metabolic newborn screening only

c)

Hearing screening only

d)

No screening is necessary if the baby appears healthy

38.

During a breastfeeding class, a parent asks why breastfeeding is strongly encouraged. Which statement reflects a physiologic benefit for the newborn or parent?

a)

“Breastfeeding has no effect on maternal health.”

b)

“Breastfeeding may lower your risk of breast cancer.”

c)

“Breastfeeding eliminates the need for all immunizations.”

d)

“Breastfeeding is always more expensive than formula.”

39.

The nurse is teaching key factors that promote breastfeeding success. Which concepts should be included? Select all that apply.

a)

Correct positioning of the infant at the breast

b)

Correct sucking technique

c)

Rigid feeding schedule with long intervals between feeds

d)

Early and frequent breastfeeding, ideally within the first hour

e)

Promotion of skin-to-skin contact

40.

The nurse is teaching parents about stimulating their newborn’s development. Which activity is most consistent with normal newborn preferences?

a)

Bright neon-colored toys and loud electronic sounds

b)

Human faces, black-and-white objects, human voice, and gentle touch

c)

Complete absence of stimulation

d)

Only mobile toys hung above the crib