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Lecture #3 Quiz Review

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Expiration is normally a passive process resulting from the _____ of the thoracic cage.

a)

compliance

b)

elasticity

c)

capacitance

d)

distensibility

2.

The hilum of the lung is on its...

a)

mediastinal surface

b)

cardiac notch

c)

base

d)

costal surface

3.

The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called _____.

a)

reserve air

b)

vital capacity

c)

inspiratory reserve

d)

expiratory reserve

4.

Complete the following statement using the choices below.  Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is…

a)

greater than the pressure in the atmosphere

b)

greater than the intra-alveolar pressure

c)

less than the pressure in the atmosphere

d)

equal to the pressure in the atmosphere

5.

Suppose a person has a tidal volume of 650 mL, an inspiratory reserve volume of 3,400 mL, an anatomic dead space of 155 mL, and a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min.  What would be the value of his inspiratory capacity (IC)?

a)

14 breaths per minute

b)

4205 mL

c)

4050 mL

d)

2750 mL

6.

Which of the following is most important in keeping food out of the trachea?

a)

vocal folds

b)

epiglottis

c)

glottis

d)

extrinsic muscles of the larynx

7.

Which of the following determines lung compliance?

a)

flexibility of the thoracic cage

b)

airway opening

c)

muscles of inspiration

d)

alveolar surface tension

8.

Which of the following does not influence hemoglobin saturation?

a)

nitric oxide

b)

temperature

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

BPG

9.

Which of the following correctly traces the route of air flow in the respiratory tract?

a)

pharynx ¦ trachea ¦ larynx ¦ bronchi ¦ bronchioles

b)

larynx ¦ pharynx ¦ trachea ¦ bronchi ¦ bronchioles

c)

larynx ¦ pharynx ¦ bronchi ¦ trachea ¦ bronchioles

d)

pharynx ¦ larynx ¦ trachea ¦ bronchi ¦ bronchioles

10.

Which of the following is not an event necessary to supply the body with O2 and dispose of CO2?

a)

external respiration

b)

internal respiration

c)

osmosis

d)

pulmonary ventilation

11.

Which of the following is not a stimulus for breathing?

a)

rising blood pressure

b)

arterial pH resulting from CO2 retention

c)

arterial Po2 below 60 mm Hg

d)

rising carbon dioxide levels

12.

Which of the following does not influence the increase in ventilation that occurs as exercise is initiated?

a)

psychic stimuli

b)

decrease in lactic acid levels

c)

simultaneous cortical motor activation of the skeletal muscles and respiratory center

d)

proprioceptors

13.

How is the bulk of carbon dioxide carried in blood?

a)

as carbonic acid in the plasma

b)

chemically combined with the amino acids of hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin in the red blood cells

c)

chemically combined with the heme portion of hemoglobin

d)

as the bicarbonate ion in the plasma after first entering the red blood cells

14.

The lower respiratory tract begins at...

a)

the primary bronchi

b)

the trachea

c)

the glottis

d)

the choanae

15.

Which of the following is not possible?

a)

The amount of gas flowing in and out of the alveoli is directly proportional to the difference in pressure or pressure gradient between the external atmosphere and the alveoli

b)

Gas flow equals pressure gradient over resistance

c)

Pressure gradient equals gas flow over resistance

d)

Resistance equals pressure gradient over gas flow

16.

Most CO2 is transported in the blood...

a)

as dissolved gas bubbles

b)

as bicarbonate ions

c)

bound to the ferrous ion of hemoglobin

d)

bound to carbonic anhydrase

17.

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by _____.

a)

diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

active transport

d)

filtration

18.

The nose serves all the following functions except _____.

a)

as a passageway for air movement

b)

as the initiator of the cough reflex

c)

cleansing the air

d)

warming and humidifying the air

19.

With the Bohr effect, more oxygen is released because a(n) _____.

a)

decrease in pH (acidosis) strengthens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

b)

increase in pH (alkalosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

c)

increase in pH (alkalosis) strengthens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

d)

decrease in pH (acidosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

20.

According to Henry's law, the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid depends on all of these except...

a)

the partial pressure of the gas

b)

the solubility of the gas

c)

the molecular weight of the gas

d)

the temperature of the liquid

21.

Which of the following is not true of the respiratory tract from the medium bronchi to the aveoli?

a)

Proportionally, smooth muscle decreases uniformly.

b)

Lining of the tubes changes from ciliated columnar to simple squamous epithelium in the alveoli.

c)

Cartilage gradually decreases and disappears at the bronchioles.

d)

Resistance to air flow increases due to the increase in cross-sectional diameter.

22.

Intrapulmonary pressure is the _____.

a)

pressure within the alveoli of the lungs

b)

negative pressure in the intrapleural space

c)

pressure within the pleural cavity

d)

difference between atmospheric pressure and respiratory pressure

23.

The loudness of a person's voice depends on the _____.

a)

thickness of vestibular folds

b)

strength of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles

c)

force with which air rushes across the vocal folds

d)

length of the vocal folds

24.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the respiratory rate of a newborn?

a)

The respiratory rate of a newborn is slow

b)

The respiratory rate of a newborn is, at its highest rate, approximately 40-80 respirations per minute

c)

The respiratory rate of a newborn is approximately 30 respirations per minute

d)

The respiratory rate of a newborn varies between male and female infants

25.

_____ protects the lungs from damage by over-inflation.

a)

Pulmonary compliance

b)

The baroreflex

c)

The apneustic center

d)

The inflation reflex

26.

The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II. The function of type II is to _____.

a)

trap dust and other debris

b)

protect the lungs from bacterial invasion

c)

secrete surfactant

d)

replace mucus in the alveoli

27.

Which of the following is not a form of lung cancer?

a)

adenocarcinoma

b)

squamous cell carcinoma

c)

small cell carcinoma

d)

Kaposi's sarcoma

28.

Which center is located in the pons?

a)

expiratory

b)

inspiratory

c)

pontine respirator group (PRG)

d)

pacemaker neuron center

29.

The largest of the following is... 

a)

the epiglottic cartilage

b)

the corniculate cartilage

c)

the arytenoid cartilage

d)

the thyroid cartilage

30.

In spirometric measurements, the difference between a volume and a capacity is...

a)

a capacity is a measurement expected of an average healthy individual whereas a volume is the measurement actually obtained in a person with respiratory disease

b)

a capacity is determined by adding two or more respiratory volumes

c)

a volume is a measurement taken at rest whereas a capacity is a measurement taken during peak physical exertion

d)

a capacity is a measurement taken at rest whereas a volume is a measurement taken during peak physical exertion

31.

There are three phases of gastric secretion. The cephalic phase occurs _____.

a)

immediately after food enters the stomach, preparing the small intestine for the influx of a variety of nutrients

b)

before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought

c)

at the end of a large meal, and the juices secreted are powerful and remain in the GI tract for a long period of time

d)

when the meal is excessively high in acids and neutralization is required

32.

Select the correct statement about the regulation of gastric secretion.

a)

Gastric secretion is enhanced by very low pH (below a pH of 2).

b)

The presence of food in the stomach prevents hormonal control of gastric secretion.

c)

Gastric secretion can be stimulated before food has entered the mouth.

d)

Vagus stimulation of the stomach results in decreased secretion of gastric juice.

33.

only in the esophagus because this is the only part of the tract that needs to change to accommodate food passage

a)

Brunner's glands

b)

the vast array of digestive enzymes

c)

the rugae

d)

plicae circulares and intestinal villi

34.

The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located _____.

a)

in the pons and medulla

b)

in the walls of the tract organs

c)

in the adipose tissue that lines the organ lumen

d)

only in the esophagus because this is the only part of the tract that needs to change to accommodate food passage

35.

Surgical cutting of the lingual frenulum would occur in which part of the body?

a)

nasal cavity

b)

esophagus

c)

tongue

d)

salivary glands

36.

Select the statement that is true concerning primary teeth.

a)

There are 24 primary teeth, and no new primary teeth appear after 13 months.

b)

There are 20 primary teeth, and by 24 months of age most children have all 20.

c)

There are 32 primary teeth, and most children lose these teeth due to decay because they are never very strong.

d)

There are 27 primary teeth, and the molars are permanent.

37.

If an incision has to be made in the small intestine to remove an obstruction, the first layer of tissue to be cut is the _____.

a)

submucosa

b)

serosa

c)

muscularis externa

d)

mucosa

38.

Peristaltic waves are _____.

a)

waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another

b)

pendular movements of the gastrointestinal tract

c)

segmental regions of the gastrointestinal tract

d)

churning movements of the gastrointestinal tract

39.

Gastrin, histamine, endorphins, serotonin, cholecystokinin, and somatostatin are hormones or paracrines that are released directly into the lamina propria. Which of the following cell types synthesize and secrete these products?

a)

zymogenic cells

b)

parietal cells

c)

mucous neck cells

d)

enteroendocrine cells

40.

The dental formula for an adult is 2-1-2-3. What does the 1 stand for?

a)

molar tooth

b)

canine tooth

c)

premolar tooth

d)

incisor tooth

41.

The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to _____.

a)

collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing or storage

b)

distribute hormones

c)

carry toxins to the venous system for disposal through the urinary tract

d)

return glucose to the general circulation when blood sugar is low

42.

Parietal cells of the stomach produce _____.

a)

mucin

b)

hydrochloric acid

c)

pepsinogen

d)

rennin

43.

The ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause which of the following to occur?

a)

Bile would be released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum.

b)

Severe indigestion would occur, caused by the lack of sufficient digestive enzymes.

c)

The acid secretions from the stomach would be sufficient to digest this food.

d)

This type of food would cause secretion of gastrin to cease, causing digestive upset.

44.

In addition to storage and mechanical breakdown of food, the stomach _____.

a)

initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins

b)

is the first site where chemical digestion of starch takes place

c)

is the only place where fats are completely digested

d)

is the first site where absorption takes place

45.

The salivary glands are composed of which two types of secretory cells?

a)

parietal cells and glial cells

b)

cuboidal epithelium and ciliated columnar cells

c)

serous cells and mucous cells

d)

goblet cells and squamous epithelial cells

46.

The lamina propria is composed of _____.

a)

loose connective tissue

b)

dense irregular connective tissue

c)

dense regular connective tissue

d)

reticular connective tissue

47.

A baby is admitted to the hospital with a history of projectile vomiting after each feeding. On examination, it is found that the sphincter controlling food passage from the stomach to the duodenum is thickened and does not open readily. Because of the baby's loss of gastric juice, his blood probably indicates _____.

a)

acidosis

b)

alkalosis

c)

ketosis

d)

dysphagia

48.

Nervous control of gastric secretion is provided by _____.

a)

the rubrospinal tracts

b)

the reticulospinal and vestibulospinal tracts

c)

the vagus nerve and enteric plexus

d)

somatic neurons in the spinal cord

49.

How are most nutrients absorbed through the mucosa of the intestinal villa?

a)

active transport driven directly or indirectly by metabolic energy

b)

simple diffusion

c)

bulk flow

d)

facilitated diffusion

50.

From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen.

a)

muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa, and submucosa

b)

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

c)

serosa, mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis externa

d)

submucosa, serosa, muscularis externa, and mucosa

51.

When proteins undergo deamination, the waste substance found in the urine is mostly_____.

a)

ketone bodies

b)

ammonia

c)

urea

d)

acetyl CoA

52.

The term metabolic rate reflects the _____.

a)

loss of energy to perspiration

b)

energy needed to make all organic molecules

c)

energy the body needs to perform only its most essential activities

d)

loss of organic molecules in urine

53.

Select the correct statement about proteins.

a)

Catabolic steroids (hormones) accelerate the rate of protein synthesis.

b)

Proteins will be used by most cells for ATP synthesis if insufficient carbohydrates are ingested.

c)

Proteins can be synthesized in the body if most of the amino acids are present.

d)

Strict vegetarians need not worry about adequate protein intake, as most vegetables are almost perfect sources of amino acids.

54.

Which of the choices below is not a mechanism of heat production?

a)

vasoconstriction of cutaneous blood vessels

b)

shivering

c)

enhanced thyroxine release

d)

sweating

55.

The process of breaking triglycerides down into glycerol and fatty acids is known as _____.

a)

lipogenesis

b)

lipolysis

c)

fat utilization

d)

gluconeogenesis

56.

Which hormone directs essentially all the events of the absorptive state?

a)

epinephrine

b)

thyroid hormone

c)

insulin

d)

growth hormone

57.

Which of the following is not true of beta oxidation?

a)

It occurs in the mitochondrion.

b)

Every second carbon is reduced.

c)

Fatty acids are broken into acetic acid fragments.

d)

It involves the anabolism of fats.

58.

Gluconeogenesis is the process in which _____.

a)

glucose is converted into carbon dioxide and water

b)

glycogen is formed

c)

glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate precursors

d)

glycogen is broken down to release glucose

59.

Conditions that promote the oxidative deamination and energy use of amino acids include _____.

a)

excessive amounts of protein in the diet

b)

adequate fat calories to provide adequate ATP formation

c)

adequate essential amino acids

d)

ammonia combining with oxygen to form urea

60.

Which of the following is not a function of LDLs?

a)

make cholesterol available to tissue cells for membrane or hormone synthesis

b)

transport cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the liver

c)

regulate cholesterol synthesis in tissue cells

d)

influence cholesterol synthesis in tissue cells

61.

The molecule that serves as the major source of readily available fuel for neurons and blood cells is _____.

a)

acetyl CoA

b)

fat

c)

glucose

d)

cellulose

62.

Catabolism would be best described as a process that _____.

a)

breaks down complex structures to simpler ones

b)

elevates glucagon levels

c)

causes a decline in circulating ketone bodies

d)

builds up triglycerides during the postabsorptive state

63.

It is important to ensure that your diet is adequately rich in vitamins because _____.

a)

most vitamins are coenzymes needed to help the body utilize essential nutrients

b)

all vitamins are water soluble and pass out of the body too quickly to ensure utilization

c)

vitamins provide protection against the common cold

d)

very few foods contain vitamins

64.

The primary function of cellular respiration is to _____.

a)

provide the body with adequate amounts of vitamins and minerals

b)

determine the amount of heat needed by the human body

c)

break down food molecules and generate ATP

d)

efficiently monitor the energy needs of the body

65.

Which of the following mechanisms produces the most ATP during cellular respiration?

a)

oxidative phosphorylation

b)

substrate-level phosphorylation

c)

oxidation reactions

d)

oxidation-reduction reactions

66.

Dietary fats are important because they _____.

a)

keep blood pressure normal

b)

help the body absorb fat-soluble vitamins

c)

contribute significantly to the health of the skin

d)

help prevent the common cold