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Pre test Endokrin - Alergi

Total questions: 20

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 12‑day‑old term neonate has persistent jaundice since day 3, constipation, axial hypotonia, a relatively wide anterior fontanelle, dry skin, and macroglossia. Newborn screening on day 3 reported very high TSH; venous confirmation on day 11 shows TSH 85 mIU/L and free T4 0.5 ng/dL. Birth weight is appropriate for gestational age, hemodynamically stable with adequate suck and no signs of sepsis. Pregnancy history is negative for antithyroid drug exposure and there is no family history of thyroid disorders. The most appropriate action now is…

a)

Repeat screening at 1 month before starting medication

b)

Start levothyroxine immediately

c)

Wait for thyroid ultrasound to determine the etiology before deciding on therapy

d)

Begin low‑dose liothyronine (T3) while assessing response

e)

Observe without treatment for two weeks because the infant is clinically stable

2.

A newborn is diagnosed with congenital hypothyroidism by screening and venous confirmation. Birth weight 3.2 kg, no comorbidities, no cholestasis. Therapeutic targets are rapid normalization of free T4 and age‑appropriate TSH. The most recommended initial levothyroxine dose is…

a)

3–5 μg/kg/day

b)

5–8 μg/kg/day

c)

10–15 μg/kg/day

d)

15–20 μg/kg/day

e)

20–25 μg/kg/day

3.

A 10‑year‑old with primary hypothyroidism has just had levothyroxine dose adjusted due to a prior TSH of 7 mIU/L. The child is asymptomatic with normal heart rate and blood pressure. The best timing for repeat TSH and free T4 after a dose change is…

a)

1 week

b)

2 weeks

c)

4-6 weeks

d)

8 weeks

e)

12 weeks

4.

A 7‑year‑old’s height is below the 3rd percentile with an annual growth velocity of 5.5 cm over the last 12 months. Weight is normal, dietary intake is adequate, and there is no chronic illness. Mid‑parental target height is low; bone age equals chronological age. These findings are most consistent with…

a)

Failure to thrive due to subtle malnutrition

b)

Definite growth hormone deficiency

c)

Subclinical hypothyroidism

d)

Familial short stature

e)

Constitutional delay of growth and puberty (CDGP)

5.

An 11‑year‑old has height below the 3rd percentile and slowed growth velocity at 3.5 cm/year with no pubertal signs. The mother had delayed puberty. Hemoglobin and thyroid function are normal. The most helpful test to differentiate constitutional delay of growth and puberty (CDGP) from endocrine pathology is…

a)

IGF‑1 alone

b)

Serial free T4

c)

Left hand bone age

d)

Ferritin

e)

Serum calcium and phosphate

6.

A 24‑month‑old toddler’s height tracks near the 3rd percentile with a stable growth curve over six months. Energy intake meets recommendations and there are no recurrent infections. The recommended interval for height monitoring to assess growth velocity consistency is…

a)

Every 1 month

b)

Every 2 months

c)

Every 3 months

d)

Every 6 months

e)

Every 12 months

7.

A 3‑week‑old neonate presents with recurrent vomiting, lethargy, poor peripheral perfusion, sodium 121 mmol/L, potassium 6.8 mmol/L, glucose 45 mg/dL, and a history of ambiguous genitalia. Blood pressure is low with decreased skin turgor. The most appropriate initial management is…

a)

High‑dose IV dexamethasone and 3% saline bolus

b)

IV hydrocortisone with 0.9% saline bolus plus correction of hypoglycemia

c)

Immediate oral fludrocortisone without fluid resuscitation

d)

Insulin plus glucose to lower potassium as the first step

e)

Fluid restriction to avoid cerebral edema

8.

An infant with the salt‑wasting form is clinically stable after crisis, but sodium trends low and plasma renin is elevated on follow‑up. The maintenance therapy aimed at maintaining sodium/potassium balance and suppressing renin is…

a)

Spironolactone

b)

Fludrocortisone

c)

Eplerenone

d)

Hydrocortisone alone without mineralocorticoid

e)

Night‑time dexamethasone alone

9.

A 7‑year‑old girl has progressive breast development over four months, accelerated linear growth, bone age advanced by two years, and pelvic ultrasound shows no ovarian cysts. The hormonal test most helpful to confirm central precocious puberty is…

a)

High basal estradiol

b)

Luteal‑phase progesterone

c)

Prolactin

d)

DHEA‑S

e)

Basal/ GnRH‑stimulated LH

10.

An 8‑year‑old boy has rapidly progressive puberty, increased testicular volume, markedly advanced bone age, and a falling predicted adult height. Long‑acting GnRH agonist is planned. The main goal of this intervention is…

a)

Increase IGF‑1 to accelerate linear growth

b)

Suppress testosterone only at night

c)

Treat physiologic pubertal gynecomastia

d)

Arrest pubertal progression and improve predicted adult height

e)

Reduce the need for calcium supplementation

11.

A 12‑year‑old has sneezing, clear rhinorrhea, nasal obstruction, and itch almost every day for six weeks, with sleep disturbance and poor school concentration. There is no fever and the discharge is not purulent. Examination reveals hyperemic turbinates and mucosal edema. According to ARIA, the classification is…

a)

Intermittent mild

b)

Intermittent moderate–severe

c)

Persistent mild

d)

Persistent very severe, non‑specific

e)

Persistent moderate–severe

12.

A 10‑year‑old with persistent moderate–severe allergic rhinitis has received counseling on allergen avoidance. The most recommended first‑line pharmacotherapy for daily symptom control is…

a)

First‑generation oral antihistamine monotherapy

b)

Daily oral decongestant

c)

Leukotriene receptor antagonist as initial monotherapy

d)

Seven‑day antibiotic course because discharge is clear

e)

Intranasal corticosteroid

13.

Symptoms persist with suspected household dust exposure and environmental control is suboptimal. There is no asthma and no acute infection. The most appropriate indication for skin‑prick testing or specific IgE is…

a)

All patients with seasonal rhinorrhea

b)

Severe/persistent symptoms or unclear triggers to plan exposure control

c)

During acute viral upper respiratory infection

d)

Only when asthma is present

e)

To grade the degree of nasal obstruction

14.

A 13‑year‑old weighing 40 kg develops generalized urticaria, wheeze, and hypotension minutes after eating peanuts. Peripheral perfusion is cool and oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. The most appropriate initial intervention is…

a)

Intramuscular adrenaline 0.01 mg/kg (max 0.3 mg) to the anterolateral thigh

b)

1 mg IV adrenaline bolus

c)

0.5 mg subcutaneous adrenaline

d)

IV antihistamine followed by observation

e)

Salbutamol nebulization without adrenaline

15.

After a single intramuscular dose of adrenaline, respiratory and hemodynamic symptoms improve within 10 minutes. There is no history of severe asthma and no need for vasopressor infusion. The most appropriate observation policy is…

a)

Observe for 1 hour

b)

Observe for 4–6 hours to anticipate biphasic reactions

c)

Admit all cases for 72 hours

d)

Discharge immediately because symptoms resolved

e)

Mandatory 24‑hour observation regardless of severity

16.

A 5‑month‑old exclusively breast‑fed infant has moderate atopic dermatitis and recurrent occult blood in stool. There is consistent improvement after the mother eliminates cow’s milk for two weeks and relapse after controlled re‑challenge. The most appropriate diagnostic consideration is…

a)

Primary lactose intolerance

b)

GERD without immune component

c)

Bacterial enteric infection

d)

cow’s milk protein allergy

e)

Functional infantile colic

17.

A 4‑month‑old not receiving breast milk is suspected of having mild–moderate cow’s milk protein allergy, without failure to thrive and without anaphylaxis. The recommended initial formula choice is…

a)

Partial hydrolysate (pHF)

b)

Lactose‑free cow’s milk formula

c)

Amino acid formula (AAF)

d)

Soy formula for all infants regardless of age

e)

Extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF)

18.

A 13‑year‑old girl has a malar rash, photosensitivity, arthralgia, mild proteinuria, and high‑titer ANA without major organ involvement. The foundational therapy recommended for nearly all pediatric SLE patients unless contraindicated is…

a)

Long‑term prednisone

b)

Routine methotrexate for all

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Cyclophosphamide as first‑line

e)

Long‑term antibiotic prophylaxis

19.

An 8‑year‑old has swelling and pain of the right knee for more than six weeks with morning stiffness >1 hour, no fever, no psoriasis, no enthesitis, and all other joints are normal. The most appropriate JIA category is…

a)

Systemic

b)

Persistent oligoarticular

c)

RF‑positive polyarticular

d)

Psoriatic arthritis

e)

Enthesitis‑related arthritis

20.

In the case above, inflammatory markers are moderately elevated with oligoarticular involvement persisting. Therapeutic goals are pain relief, inflammation control, and functional preservation. The most appropriate initial management is…

a)

Long‑term oral glucocorticoid monotherapy

b)

Ten‑day antibiotic course due to suspected septic arthritis risk

c)

Scheduled NSAIDs plus physiotherapy; consider intra‑articular corticosteroid injection

d)

Immediate anti‑TNF for all oligo cases without prior trial

e)

Mandatory hydroxychloroquine as first‑line monotherapy