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Firefighter I (National)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The company utilized to provide firefighters who deliver water at the fire scene, deploy hose lines, and attack and extinguish fires is the _______.

a)

truck company

b)

engine company

c)

rescue company

d)

hazardous materials company

2.

The primary functions of the company are to perform forcible entry, ventilation, roof operations, search and rescue, and deployment of ground ladders.

a)

truck company

b)

engine company

c)

rescue company

d)

hazardous materials company

3.

The 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives describes steps that need to be taken to change the _______ of the fire service.

a)

mission

b)

current culture

c)

overall purpose

d)

operating procedures

4.

The second Fire and Life Safety Initiative states, "Enhance personal and organizational accountability for ______ throughout the fire service."

a)

job security

b)

physical fitness

c)

health and safety

d)

operating procedures

5.

Multiple agencies working together at an emergency scene must establish a(n) ______ as part of the incident command system.

a)

unified command

b)

operations center

c)

planning section chief

d)

central command post

6.

How many incident commands should be set up during a multi-agency response?

a)

two

b)

one

c)

one for each agency

d)

one for each type of service

7.

During the ________ phase in a 9-1-1 call receipt, the telecommunicator receives vital information such as the location of an emergency.

a)

dispatch

b)

unit selection

c)

knowledge assembling

d)

telephone interrogation

8.

Guidelines concerning what information a dispatcher should communicate to the public should be listed in ________.

a)

standard operating procedures

b)

news releases

c)

EMS protocols

d)

interoffice memos

9.

Radio traffic that is ________ should be avoided so that all radio transmissions are pertinent to the situation.

a)

crucial

b)

standard

c)

orthodox

d)

unnecessary

10.

Radio communications are ________________.

a)

automatically recorded

b)

manually recorded

c)

never recorded

d)

pre-recorded

11.

Emergency services communications centers must have at least ____________ separate ways of notifying fire stations.

a)

two

b)

three

c)

four

d)

five

12.

Best practices for taking calls at the fire station should be outlined in ___________.

a)

NFPA 1221

b)

computer-aided dispatch outlines

c)

communications center guidelines

d)

departmental standard operating procedures

13.

While operating at an emergency incident, radio reports should be made when ___________.

a)

additional units arrive

b)

a planning section has been appointed

c)

There are significant changes to the incident

d)

a second means of water supply has been established

14.

Time _______ allows the incident commander to assess the progress of the incident and decide whether the strategies or tactics should be changed.

a)

marks

b)

patterns

c)

intervals

d)

restraints

15.

What type of radio traffic is an urgent message that takes priority over all other communications?

a)

three alert tones

b)

emergency traffic

c)

crisis alert frequency

d)

an all-clear channel call

16.

The term _______ is used to indicate an imminent fire ground hazard. Such as a potential explosion or structural collapse.

a)

critical dispatch

b)

urgent message

c)

emergency traffic

d)

alert communications

17.

_______ takes precedence over all other radio traffic with the exception of a(n) call

a)

A critical dispatch; mayday

b)

A mayday; critical dispatch

c)

Emergency traffic; mayday

d)

A mayday; emergency traffic

18.

What type of message would be used to order firefighters to immediately withdraw from an interior offensive attack and switch to a defensive strategy?

a)

critical dispatch

b)

urgent message

c)

emergency traffic

d)

alert communications

19.

SCBA consists of four main parts: the backpack and harness, the air cylinder, the ________, and the face piece.

a)

PASS device

b)

low-air alarm

c)

UAC connection

d)

regulator assembly

20.

The air pressure in SCBA cylinders ranges from _______ psi.

a)

1000 to 4000

b)

2200 to 5500

c)

2000 to 7000

d)

4500 to 6000

21.

Low-pressure cylinders can be constructed of __________.

a)

steel or aluminum

b)

carbon-wrapped plastic and steel

c)

carbon-wrapped plastic and aluminum

d)

composite material and carbon-wrapped rubber

22.

An SCBA's remote pressure gauge should read within ________ of the cylinder gauge reading.

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

10%

d)

20%

23.

A PASS device is automatically activated if a firefighter remains motionless for __________.

a)

25 seconds

b)

30 seconds

c)

45 seconds

d)

1 minute

24.

Firefighters who _________ the rate and depth of their breathing will _________ the amount of time they can breathe from a single air cylinder.

a)

expand; speed up

b)

speed up; expand

c)

decrease; increase

d)

increase; increase

25.

Which of the following is the correct way to mount a fire apparatus?

a)

don PPE while mounting

b)

vault onto the mounting step to prevent slippage

c)

use both handrails until feet have been placed inside

d)

maintain one hand on a handhold and at least one good foot placement

26.

Labels required to be inside of a structural firefighting helmet list the manufacturer, model, size, and ________?

a)

melting point

b)

type of eye protection

c)

recommended cleaning procedures

d)

date on which helmet was purchased

27.

Both ______ and ________ are synthetic materials used in the construction of firefighting personal protective equipment.

a)

cotton; wool

b)

nomex; fleece

c)

PBI®; cotton

d)

nomex; PBI

28.

Turnout coats consist of ______ layers.

a)

two

b)

three

c)

four

d)

five

29.

The ______ layer of a turnout coat is constructed of a flame-resistant, water-repellent material such as Nomex, Kevlar, or PBI.

a)

outer

b)

thermal

c)

moisture

d)

proximity

30.

Before dismounting a fire apparatus, firefighters should follow departmental standard operating procedures and, most importantly, they should __________.

a)

check for traffic before opening doors

b)

exit the vehicle only upon the officer's order

c)

wait until ordered by the incident commander

d)

blow the air horn to warn any approaching traffic

31.

Upon arriving at an emergency scene, ______ should be properly placed so they can be used as a barrier between oncoming traffic and the scene.

a)

traffic cones

b)

personal vehicles

c)

emergency vehicles

d)

emergency scene signs

32.

Slab doors are constructed in a ____________ design.

a)

hollow or panel

b)

solid or sectioned

c)

sectioned or panel

d)

solid or hollow cored

33.

What type of door construction is typically used for entrance doors?

a)

solid-core

b)

sectioned

c)

hollow-core

d)

tongue and groove

34.

What type of door construction is typically used for interior doors?

a)

solid-core

b)

sectioned

c)

hollow-core

d)

tongue and groove

35.

What is the first step in forcing open an inward-opening door?

a)

remove the frame

b)

remove the hinges

c)

determine the number and location of locks

d)

pry near the locking mechanism

36.

After a tool has been driven into the doorjamb of an outward-opening door, the tool should be leveraged to force the door _________ the jamb.

a)

up from

b)

down from

c)

toward

d)

away from

37.

Residential garage doors can be opened by breaking a window or panel and operating the door lock or by ___________.

a)

pulling the emergency release

b)

prying from the corner of the door

c)

cutting starting at the top corner of the door

d)

prying the door from the bottom right hand corner

38.

What type of system maintains an updated list of firefighters assigned to each vehicle or crew and tracks each crew's assignment on an emergency scene?

a)

Muster list system

b)

NFPA 1500 system

c)

Personal management system

d)

Personnel accountability system

39.

A room with a door that can be closed and/or a window that can be broken are considered to be _________ in an emergency situation.

a)

hazards

b)

safe locations

c)

victim locations

d)

emergency escape routes

40.

The assembly that connects two rails of a trussed beam is called a ___________.

a)

rung

b)

tie rod

c)

butt plate

d)

truss block

41.

A __________ is a crosspiece that spans the two beams of a ladder.

a)

rail

b)

rung

c)

tie rod

d)

truss block

42.

Spring-loaded, retractable, curved metal pieces on a ladder are known as _________.

a)

butt spurs

b)

butt plates

c)

roof hooks

d)

truss block

43.

The most important check a firefighter can do, before raising a ladder, is to _______________.

a)

figure the safety angle

b)

look for overhead utility lines

c)

evaluate overall fire conditions

d)

assure the placement with command

44.

Where is a ladder placed for window access operations?

a)

At the roofline

b)

At the bottom sill

c)

Next to the window

d)

Over the window at the top

45.

When approaching a burning vehicle, firefighters should open the nozzle and sweep the ________ advancing ________ the vehicle.

a)

top; toward

b)

top; away from

c)

bottom; toward

d)

bottom; away from

46.

During vehicle fires, the __________ can heat up and be propelled considerable distances

a)

synthetic radial tires

b)

tensioned spring systems

c)

electric stabilizing motor cables

d)

energy-absorbing bumper systems

47.

What is the first step that should be taken before overhauling a vehicle fire?

a)

Find the owner.

b)

Chock the wheels.

c)

Flatten all of the tires.

d)

Remove valuables from the interior.

48.

What is the greatest danger to firefighters working around fires in stacked or piled materials?

a)

Collapse

b)

Becoming lost

c)

Conductive heat

d)

Water that is unable to reach the fire

49.

Class __________ foam is useful for extinguishing trash container fires because it allows water to soak into the materials, which can eliminate the need for manual overhaul.

a)

A. A

b)

B. B

c)

C. C

d)

D. D

50.

A __________ can be used to extinguish hidden fire in void areas; its use limits the damage in and around the suspected area of origin.

a)

fog nozzle

b)

smooth bore nozzle

c)

piercing nozzle

d)

combination nozzle

51.

The _____ tool is designed to cut into a lock cylinder.

a)

J

b)

K

c)

bam-bam

d)

duck-billed lock breaker

52.

Psychological effects of operating in adverse conditions are best overcome by __________.

a)

talking to another firefighter

b)

using the purge valve when stress increases

c)

being put into flashover and backdraft situations.

d)

practicing performing firefighting tasks in darkness to build confidence.

53.

The factors that determine the level of risk faced by the occupants of a burning building include the direction of fire spread, the __________, and the smoke conditions in different areas of the structure.

a)

volume and intensity of the fire

b)

size and shape of the egress points

c)

flow rate of the available water supply

d)

availability of rescue apparatus and personnel

54.

A __________ search is a quick attempt to locate any potential victims who are in danger.

a)

primary

b)

complete

c)

secondary

d)

preliminary

55.

What is the best way to search large rooms?

a)

a clockwise search

b)

an outside wall search

c)

a team search with two or more firefighters

d)

a counterclockwise search maintaining wall contact

56.

When rescuing an unconscious victim onto a ladder from a window, the victim is placed

a)

head first.

b)

on a certified rescue rope.

c)

with his or her back toward the ladder.

d)

with his or her back toward the firefighter.

57.

57. Simple victim carries include a two-person extremity carry, a ____________ carry, and a two-person chair carry.

a)

clothes

b)

blanket

c)

web sling

d)

cradle-in-arms

58.

Nozzles are attached to the discharge end of attack lines to give fire streams

a)

shape and direction.

b)

low pressures and reach.

c)

maneuverability and rigidity.

d)

high pressures and maneuverability.

59.

What type of nozzle separates water into droplets?

a)

Piercing

b)

Fog stream

c)

Smooth-bore

d)

Straight-stream

60.

Nozzles must have an adequate volume of water and an adequate __________ to produce a good fire stream.

a)

flow

b)

pressure

c)

friction loss

d)

hydraulic system

61.

Fog nozzles move large volumes of _________ along with the water.

a)

air

b)

heat

c)

smoke

d)

products of combustion

62.

As soon as water has reduced the temperature of an area, the fire stream can transition into a(n) __________.

a)

direct attack.

b)

indirect attack.

c)

defensive attack.

d)

combination attack.

63.

Cooling the walls, ceiling, and hot gasses as you progress towards a fire is also an effective way to reduce the possibility of _______________.

a)

rekindle

b)

backdraft

c)

heat stroke

d)

flashover

64.

The most common firefighter injuries are ______.

a)

burns.

b)

strains and overexertion.

c)

smoke and inhalation injuries.

d)

soft-tissue injuries and fractures.

65.

What is the primary difference between 1 1/2-inch and 1 3/4-inch hose?

a)

Weight

b)

Maneuverability

c)

Personal preference

d)

Amount of water that can flow

66.

What type of hose line is intended for immediate use as an attack line?

a)

horseshoe

b)

bed connect

c)

booster hose

d)

pre-connected

67.

The process of searching for and extinguishing any pockets of fire that remain after a fire has been brought under control is known as _______________.

a)

salvage

b)

overhaul

c)

confinement

d)

extinguishment

68.

What type of ventilation is said to be forced with large fans?

a)

Natural

b)

Hydraulic

c)

Mechanical

d)

Negative-pressure

69.

When using natural wind currents to perform horizontal ventilation within a structure, the __________ side should be opened first.

a)

upwind

b)

largest

c)

smallest

d)

downwind

70.

The three methods of ____________ ventilation are negative-pressure, positive-pressure, and hydraulic.

a)

natural

b)

vertical

c)

horizontal

d)

mechanical

71.

The four main methods used to extinguish fires are ____________ excluding oxygen, removing the fuel, or interrupting the chemical chain reaction.

a)

ventilating

b)

cooling the fuel

c)

excluding nitrogen

d)

introducing oxygen

72.

In what stage of fire does the fire produce more interaction and is more dependent on the environment in the compartment around it?

a)

decay stage

b)

growth stage

c)

ignition stage

d)

fully developed stage

73.

What mechanism of heat transfer is defined as the process of transferring heat to and through one solid to another?

a)

radiation

b)

convection

c)

conduction

d)

direct contact

74.

A ____________ wall is a freestanding wall that extends above a normal roofline on flat roofs.

a)

curtain

b)

parapet

c)

nonbearing

d)

load bearing

75.

What step must take place after a roof opening has been made?

a)

exit the roof.

b)

sound the roof.

c)

open a hole beneath the roof opening

d)

another opening opposite the main opening

76.

Support systems for roofs consist of either ________ or ________.

a)

truss, arched

b)

bowstring, truss

c)

solid beam; lightweight

d)

bowstring; solid beam

77.

A trench cut begins with two parallel cuts, spaced ________ feet apart.

a)

1 to 2

b)

2 to 4

c)

4 to 5

d)

more than 5

78.

During overhaul operations, what types of hose streams are used to avoid breaking up and scattering debris?

a)

Cellar

b)

Piering

c)

Short burst or drizzle

d)

Straight stream

79.

The area that must be overhauled depends on the building's construction, its contents, and the ________.

a)

size of the fire

b)

location of the fire

c)

amount of the smoke left

d)

number of personnel available.

80.

Salvage efforts are aimed at preventing or limiting __________ from smoke and water damage.

a)

water flow

b)

fire damage

c)

secondary losses

d)

primary damages

81.

Sprinkler wedges should be inserted between the orifice and the ____________ of the sprinkler head.

a)

ceiling

b)

deflector

c)

drain valve

d)

post indicator valve

82.

A post indicator valve will indicate its status by displaying the word __________ or __________ in the viewing window

a)

on, off

b)

flow; stop

c)

open, shut

d)

open, closed

83.

The portable tank supply method uses one engine to draft water from the tank, using a __________ hose

a)

supply

b)

soft suction

c)

hard suction

d)

large diameter

84.

Fires made up of ordinary combustibles such as paper, wood, cloth, rubber, and some plastics are res.

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

85.

Fires involving combustible cooking fuels such as vegetable and animal oils and fat are __________ fires.

a)

Class K

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

86.

Electrical cords must __________ without cuts or defects, and be properly sized to handle the required amperage.

a)

be well insulated

b)

have a grounding rod

c)

be approved by NFPA

d)

have four-prong adapters

87.

The shut-off valve for a(n) __________ system is usually a quarter-turn valve with a locking device so it can be secured.

a)

water

b)

electrical

c)

natural gas

d)

liquefied petroleum gas

88.

Water service to a building can normally be shut off by ________________.

a)

a quarter-turn valve.

b)

finding the street valve.

c)

calling a representative

d)

closing one valve at the entry point

89.

What is the most common type of wildland fire encountered by most fire departments?

a)

Crown

b)

Anchor

c)

Flanking

d)

Ground cover

90.

What term represents the unburned area between a finger and the main body of fire?

a)

island

b)

pocket

c)

bridged

d)

backfire point

91.

What are the two most critical aspects of weather that influence a wildland fire?

a)

wind and storms

b)

moisture and wind

c)

topography and wind

d)

moisture and topography

92.

The end of the rope utilized to tie the knot is referred to as the ____ end.

a)

tag line

b)

running

c)

working

d)

standing

93.

The end of the rope used for work such as hoisting a tool is referred to as the ____________.

a)

tag line end

b)

running end

c)

working end

d)

standing end

94.

Which type of monitor reads oxygen levels, CO levels, hydrogen sulfide, and flammable gasses?

a)

Multi-gas monitor

b)

Single-gas detector

c)

Dosimeter

d)

Colormetric tubes

95.

After the fire hose has been properly cleaned, it should be ______________.

a)

rolled and shelved

b)

laid out or hung to dry

c)

repacked on apparatus

d)

placed in sunlight to dry

96.

The proper angle a ladder should be placed prior to climbing is approximately ________.

a)

10 degrees

b)

25 degrees

c)

45 degrees

d)

75 degrees

97.

Line of duty deaths, suicide, and mass casualty incidents are all examples of _________

a)

debriefing.

b)

hostile work environments

c)

critical incident

d)

mild stressors

98.

In what hose load would the firefighter lay the first two sections in the hose bed, make a loop, and leave the male end of the second section of hose at the side of the hose compartment?

a)

flat

b)

triple layer

c)

minuteman

d)

preconnected at

99.

__________ should never be used to clean life safety rope.

a)

Water

b)

Bleach

c)

Soap

d)

Detergent

100.

A coat of ____________ can be applied to preserve wooden handles on axes.

a)

paint

b)

varnish

c)

boiled linseed oil

d)

lightweight machine oil