WorksheetsCM-16
Total questions: 109
Worksheet time: 55mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Molar pregnancy, Midcycle LH surge
a)
False-positive hCG
b)
False-negative hCG
2.
Hematuria or proteinuria
a)
False-positive hCG
b)
False-negative hCG
3.
Malignancies (gynecologic & other)
a)
False-positive hCG
b)
False-negative hCG
4.
Postpartum & postabortion (up to 4 weeks)
a)
False-positive hCG
b)
False-negative hCG
5.
Perimenopausal (LH elevation)
a)
False-positive hCG
b)
False-negative hCG
6.
Chinese herbal medications
a)
False-positive hCG
b)
False-negative hCG
7.
Premature ovarian failure (LH elevation)
a)
False-positive hCG
b)
False-negative hCG
8.
Too early (commonly) or too late (rarely) testing
a)
False-positive hCG
b)
False-negative hCG
9.
Adulterated urin
a)
False-positive hCG
b)
False-negative hCG
10.
Dilute urine (low S.G.)
a)
False-positive hCG
b)
False-negative hCG
11.
Which of the ff. is rarely negative and almost always positive in pregnancy tests?
a)
Dilute urine
b)
Adulterated urine
c)
Impending or missed abortion
d)
Ectopic pregnancy
12.
Hogben uses which of the ff. animal?
a)
Female frog
b)
Male frog
c)
Virgin <3 female rabbit
d)
Immature female mice
e)
Immature female rats
13.
Gall-Malnini uses which of the ff. animal?
a)
Female frog
b)
Male frog
c)
Virgin <3 female rabbit
d)
Immature female mice
e)
Immature female rats
14.
Friedmann or Hoffman uses which of the ff. animal?
a)
Female frog
b)
Male frog
c)
Virgin <3 female rabbit
d)
Immature female mice
e)
Immature female rats
15.
Ascheim-Zonde uses which of the ff. animal?
a)
Female frog
b)
Male frog
c)
Virgin <3 female rabbit
d)
Immature female mice
e)
Immature female rats
16.
Frank-Berman uses which of the ff. animal?
a)
Female virgin rat
b)
Male frog
c)
Virgin <3 female rabbit
d)
Immature female mice
e)
Immature female rats
17.
Kupperman uses which of the ff. animal?
a)
Female virgin rat
b)
Male frog
c)
Virgin <3 female rabbit
d)
Immature female mice
e)
Immature female rats
18.
Kelso uses which of the ff. animal?
a)
Female virgin rat
b)
Male frog
c)
Virgin <3 female rabbit
d)
Immature female mice
e)
Immature female rats
19.
Which tests involves lymph sac (urine) mode of injection?
a)
Hogben
b)
Gall-Malnini
c)
Friedmann/Hoffman
d)
Aschein Zondek
e)
Kupperman
20.
Which tests involves subcutaneous urine or serum mode of injection?
a)
Hogben
b)
Gall-Malnini
c)
Friedmann/Hoffman
d)
Aschein Zondek
e)
Kupperman
21.
Which tests involves marginal ear vein (urine) mode of injection?
a)
Hogben
b)
Gall-Malnini
c)
Friedmann/Hoffman
d)
Aschein Zondek
e)
Kupperman
22.
Which tests involves intraperitoneal (urine) mode of injection?
a)
Hogben
b)
Gall-Malnini
c)
Friedmann/Hoffman
d)
Aschein Zondek
e)
Kupperman
23.
Which tests involves subcutaneous (urine) mode of injection?
a)
Frank-Berman
b)
Kelso
c)
Friedmann/Hoffman
d)
Aschein Zondek
e)
Kupperman
24.
What is the positive result in Hogben test?
a)
Oogenesis
b)
Spermatogenesis
c)
Corpora lutea and corpora hemorrhagica
d)
Formation of hemorrhagic follicles and corpora lutea
e)
Ovarian hyperemia
25.
What is the positive result in Gall-Malnini test?
a)
Oogenesis
b)
Spermatogenesis
c)
Corpora lutea and corpora hemorrhagica
d)
Formation of hemorrhagic follicles and corpora lutea
e)
Ovarian hyperemia
26.
What is the positive result in Ascheim-Zondek test?
a)
Oogenesis
b)
Spermatogenesis
c)
Corpora lutea and corpora hemorrhagica
d)
Formation of hemorrhagic follicles and corpora lutea
e)
Ovarian hyperemia
27.
What is the positive result in Frank-Berman test?
a)
Oogenesis
b)
Spermatogenesis
c)
Corpora lutea and corpora hemorrhagica
d)
Formation of hemorrhagic follicles and corpora lutea
e)
Ovarian hyperemia
28.
What is the positive result in Kelso test?
a)
Oogenesis
b)
Spermatogenesis
c)
Corpora lutea and corpora hemorrhagica
d)
Formation of hemorrhagic follicles and corpora lutea
e)
Ovarian hyperemia
29.
What is the positive result in Kupperman test?
a)
Oogenesis
b)
Spermatogenesis
c)
Corpora lutea and corpora hemorrhagica
d)
Formation of hemorrhagic follicles and corpora lutea
e)
Ovarian hyperemia
30.
What is the positive result in Friedmann or Hoffmann test?
a)
Oogenesis
b)
Spermatogenesis
c)
Corpora lutea and corpora hemorrhagica
d)
Formation of hemorrhagic follicles and corpora lutea
e)
Ovarian hyperemia
31.
Urine specimen for pregnancy testing should have a specific gravity of at least
a)
1.010
b)
1.015
c)
1.020
d)
1.025
32.
ELISA tests are very sensitive, giving positive reactions as early as ____ days after conception.
a)
3 days
b)
5 days
c)
10 days
d)
15 days
33.
Amniotic fluid is found in which structure?
a)
Chorion
b)
Placenta
c)
Amnion
d)
Yolk sac
34.
What is the primary origin of amniotic fluid?
a)
Maternal serum
b)
Fetal metabolism
c)
Umbilical cord diffusion
d)
Amniotic membrane secretions
35.
What is considered the ultimate source of water and solutes in amniotic fluid?
a)
Maternal kidneys
b)
Fetal kidneys
c)
Chorionic villi
d)
Placenta
36.
Which of the following is NOT a primary function of amniotic fluid?
a)
Cushions the fetus
b)
Allows fetal movement
c)
Provides nutrients for fetal digestion
d)
Aids in proper lung development
37.
Amniotic fluid helps maintain fetal temperature by
a)
Reducing maternal fluid loss
b)
Acting as a thermal stabilizer
c)
Stimulating fetal metabolism
d)
Increasing uterine circulation
38.
The normal volume of amniotic fluid during the third trimester is:
a)
100 to 300 mL
b)
400 to 700 mL
c)
800 to 1200 mL
d)
1500 to 2000 mL
39.
During the first trimester, most amniotic fluid (about 35 mL) is derived from:
a)
Fetal urine
b)
Fetal lung fluid
c)
Maternal circulation
d)
Amniotic membrane secretions
40.
Which component becomes increasingly important in maintaining amniotic fluid volume as pregnancy progresses?
a)
Fetal urine
b)
Fetal lung fluid
c)
Maternal circulation
d)
Amniotic membrane secretions
41.
After the first trimester, the major contributor to amniotic fluid volume is:
a)
Maternal plasma
b)
Placental secretion
c)
Fetal urine
d)
Fetal swallowing
42.
Which function of amniotic fluid is most directly tied to fetal lung development?
a)
Cushioning the fetus
b)
Allowing fetal movement
c)
Stabilizing temperature
d)
Acting as a reservoir for fetal breathing motions
43.
Increased amniotic volume
a)
Polyhydraminios
b)
Oligohydraminios
44.
>1200 mL amniotic volume
a)
Polyhydraminios
b)
Oligohydraminios
45.
Decreased fetal swallowing of urine
a)
Polyhydraminios
b)
Oligohydraminios
46.
Neural tube defect
a)
Polyhydraminios
b)
Oligohydraminios
47.
Others: fetal structural anomalies, cardiac arrhythmias, congenital infections, chromosomal abnormalities
a)
Polyhydraminios
b)
Oligohydraminios
48.
Increased fetal swallowing of urine
a)
Polyhydraminios
b)
Oligohydraminios
49.
Urinary tract deformities
a)
Polyhydraminios
b)
Oligohydraminios
50.
Others: congenital malformations, premature amniotic membrane rupture, umbilical cord compression
a)
Polyhydraminios
b)
Oligohydraminios
51.
Membrane leakage
a)
Polyhydraminios
b)
Oligohydraminios
52.
<800 mL amniotic volume
a)
Polyhydraminios
b)
Oligohydraminios
53.
Decreased amniotic fluid volume
a)
Polyhydraminios
b)
Oligohydraminios
54.
What is the method of collection for amniotic fluid?
a)
Suprapubic aspiration
b)
Amniocentesis
c)
Vaginal swab
d)
Endometrial biopsy
55.
How much amniotic fluid is typically collected during amniocentesis?
a)
5 mL
b)
10 mL
c)
20 mL
d)
30 mL
56.
A second-trimester amniocentesis is primarily performed to:
a)
Evaluate fetal lung maturity
b)
Assess fetal acid-base status
c)
Detect genetic defects such as Trisomy 21
d)
Diagnose intrauterine infections
57.
A third-trimester amniocentesis is mainly used to assess:
a)
Chromosomal abnormalities
b)
Neural tube defects
c)
Fetal lung maturity and hemolytic disease of the newborn
d)
Detect genetic defects such as trisomy 21
58.
The quadruple test screens for fetal abnormalities using AFP, hCG, unconjugated estriol, and
a)
Progesterone
b)
Inhibin A
c)
Beta-2 microglobulin
d)
TSH
59.
Amniotic fluid for fetal lung maturity testing should be:
a)
Kept at room temperature or at 37 degree Celsius
b)
Placed on ice on delivery, kept refrigerated or frozen
c)
Protected from light
d)
Heated at 100 degree Celsius
60.
Amniotic fluid for HDN testing should be:
a)
Kept at room temperature or at 37 degree Celsius
b)
Placed on ice on delivery, kept refrigerated or frozen
c)
Protected from light
d)
Heated at 100 degree Celsius
61.
Less reliable method for differentiating amniotic fluid and maternal urine
a)
Protein
b)
Glucose
c)
Urea (mg/dL)
d)
Creatinine (mg/dL)
62.
Has protein, glucose, urea <30, creatinine <3.5
a)
Amniotic fluid
b)
Maternal urine
63.
No protein, glucose, urea >300, creatinine >10
a)
Amniotic fluid
b)
Maternal urine
64.
The hormone that influences the Fern test patterns in early pregnancy is:
a)
Progesterone
b)
hCG
c)
Estrogen
d)
Prolactin
65.
Which specimen is used for the Fern test?
a)
Cervical mucus
b)
Amniotic fluid directly aspirated
c)
Vaginal fluid
d)
Maternal serum
66.
The Fern test is primarily used to detect:
a)
Ectopic pregnancy
b)
Fetal lung maturity
c)
Premature rupture of membranes
d)
Fetal distress
67.
Why does amniotic fluid form fern-like crystals?
a)
High ketone content
b)
High concentration of NaCl and proteins
c)
Presence of bilirubin
d)
High urea concentration
68.
More reliable method for differentiating amniotic fluid and maternal urine
a)
Protein
b)
Glucose
c)
Urea (mg/dL)
d)
Creatinine (mg/dL)
69.
Amniotic fluid for cytogenetic studies should be:
a)
Kept at room temperature or at 37 degree Celsius
b)
Placed on ice on delivery, kept refrigerated or frozen
c)
Protected from light
d)
Heated at 100 degree Celsius
70.
Amniotic fluid color that is considered NORMAL
a)
Colorless-pale yellow
b)
Blood-streaked
c)
Yellow
d)
Dark-green
e)
Dark-red brown
71.
Amniotic fluid color that implies traumatic tab, abdominal trauma, or intra-amniotic hemorrhage
a)
Colorless-pale yellow
b)
Blood-streaked
c)
Yellow
d)
Dark-green
e)
Dark-red brown
72.
Amniotic fluid color that implies HDN
a)
Colorless-pale yellow
b)
Blood-streaked
c)
Yellow
d)
Dark-green
e)
Dark-red brown
73.
What is the color of the amniotic fluid with meconium (first fetal bowel movement)?
a)
Colorless-pale yellow
b)
Blood-streaked
c)
Yellow
d)
Dark-green
e)
Dark-red brown
74.
Amniotic fluid color that implies fetal death
a)
Colorless-pale yellow
b)
Blood-streaked
c)
Yellow
d)
Dark-green
e)
Dark-red brown
75.
for alveolar stability
a)
Lecithin
b)
Sphingomyelin
76.
serves as a control (due to constant production)
a)
Lecithin
b)
Sphingomyelin
77.
Ratio of __ = mature fetal lungs
a)
>=1
b)
>=2
c)
>=3
d)
>=4
78.
Immunologic test for phosphatidylglycerol
a)
Lecithin / Spingomyelin ratio
b)
Amniostat-FLM
c)
Foam stability
d)
Microviscosity
e)
Lamellar body
79.
Not affected by blood or meconium; Production of PG is delayed among diabetic mothers
a)
Lecithin / Spingomyelin ratio
b)
Amniostat-FLM
c)
Foam stability
d)
Microviscosity
e)
Lamellar body
80.
Phospholipids decrease microviscosity (friction of particle undergoing diffusion)
a)
Lecithin / Spingomyelin ratio
b)
Amniostat-FLM
c)
Foam stability
d)
Microviscosity
e)
Lamellar body
81.
Measured by fluorescence polarization
a)
Lecithin / Spingomyelin ratio
b)
Amniostat-FLM
c)
Foam stability
d)
Microviscosity
e)
Lamellar body
82.
Type II pneumocytes produce surfactants stored in the form of
a)
Lecithin / Spingomyelin ratio
b)
Amniostat-FLM
c)
Foam stability
d)
Microviscosity
e)
Lamellar body
83.
In the Foam Shake Test, amniotic fluid is mixed with:
a)
70% methanol
b)
95% ethanol
c)
Acetone
d)
Normal saline
84.
The Foam Shake Test procedure requires shaking the tube for:
a)
5 seconds
b)
10 seconds
c)
15 seconds
d)
30 seconds
85.
After shaking, the Foam Shake Test mixture must stand for:
a)
5 minutes
b)
10 minutes
c)
15 minutes
d)
30 minutes
86.
A positive Foam Stability Test indicates:
a)
Absence of surfactant
b)
Immature fetal lungs
c)
Mature fetal lungs
d)
Presence of meconium
87.
Lamellar bodies are produced by:
a)
Type I pneumocytes
b)
Type II pneumocytes
c)
Goblet cells
d)
Clara cells
88.
Lamellar bodies contain:
a)
Bilirubin
b)
Surfactant
c)
Amniotic enzymes
d)
Glucose
89.
Lamellar bodies are similar in size to:
a)
WBCs
b)
RBCs
c)
Platelets
d)
Bacteria
90.
Methods used to count lamellar bodies include:
a)
Reflectance photometry
b)
Impedance and optical scatter
c)
Immunofluorescence only
d)
Enzyme immunoassay
91.
A lamellar body count (LBC) of >32,000/µL indicates:
a)
Immature lungs
b)
Infection
c)
Adequate fetal lung maturity
d)
Contaminated sample
92.
In OD 650 testing, an increase in optical density corresponds to:
a)
Decreased surfactant
b)
Increased bilirubin
c)
Increased lamellar bodies
d)
Presence of meconium
93.
An OD 650 reading of ≥0.150 correlates with which of the following?
a)
L/S ratio <1.5 and presence of phosphatidylglycerol (PG)
b)
L/S ratio of 2.2 and presence of phosphatidylglycerol (PG)
c)
Either
d)
Neither
94.
Reference method for assessing fetal lung maturity
a)
Lecithin / Spingomyelin ratio
b)
Amniostat-FLM
c)
Foam stability
d)
Microviscosity
e)
Lamellar body
95.
1.5 to 2.0 mg/dL amniotic fluid creatinine
a)
prior to 36 weeks' gestation
b)
36 weeks (9 months)
96.
>2.0 mg/dL amniotic fluid creatinine
a)
prior to 36 weeks' gestation
b)
36 weeks (9 months)
97.
the oldest routine lab test on amniotic fluid
a)
OD 650
b)
0D 450
c)
OD 500
d)
OD 250
98.
Absorbance of amniotic fluid: increased at 365nm, decreased at 550nm
a)
Normal
b)
HDN
99.
Absorbance of amniotic fluid: increased at450 nm
a)
Normal
b)
HDN
100.
Liley graph: Non-affected or mildly affected fetus
a)
Zone I
b)
Zone II
c)
Zone III
101.
Liley graph: Severely affected fetus (requires intervention: labor or exchange transfusion
a)
Zone I
b)
Zone II
c)
Zone III
102.
Queenan curve (Modified Liley curve) shows A A450 values from 14-40 weeks of gestation. Which zone shows Rh-negative or unaffected fetus?
a)
Lowest zone
b)
Indeterminate and Rh positive zones
c)
Intrauterine death risk zone
103.
Queenan curve (Modified Liley curve) shows A A450 values from 14-40 weeks of gestation. Which zone shows increasing hemolytic severity?
a)
Lowest zone
b)
Indeterminate and Rh positive zones
c)
Intrauterine death risk zone
104.
Liley graph: Moderately affected fetus (requires careful monitoring)
a)
Zone I
b)
Zone II
c)
Zone III
105.
a birth defect where there is incomplete closing of the backbone & membranes around spinal cord.
a)
Spina bifida
b)
Down syndrome
c)
Anencephaly
d)
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
106.
absence of a major portion of the brain, skull, and scalp that occurs during embryonic development
a)
Spina bifida
b)
Down syndrome
c)
Anencephaly
d)
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
107.
Screening test for neural tube defects
a)
Fetal fibronectin
b)
Alpha fetoprotein
c)
Troponin I
d)
Ceruloplasmin
e)
Acetylcholinesterase
108.
Confirmatory test for neural tube defects
a)
Fetal fibronectin
b)
SKY
c)
Karyotyping
d)
FISH
e)
Acetylcholinesterase
109.
Other tests for chromosomal abnormalities
a)
Fetal fibronectin
b)
SKY
c)
Karyotyping
d)
FISH
e)
Acetylcholinesterase
100 %
