Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Insurance & Risk Management

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the final step in the standard Risk Management Model?

a)

Identify hazards

b)

Choose control measures

c)

Implement controls

d)

Monitor and review results

2.

The primary goal of the Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) model is to:

a)

Eliminate all organizational risks.

b)

Transfer all significant risks to insurance companies.

c)

Maximize value for all stakeholders.

d)

Focus solely on legal and compliance risks.

3.

In the context of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM), which step immediately follows "Identify risks"?

a)

Treat risks

b)

Evaluate risks

c)

Communicate results

d)

Monitor and review results

4.

A company customizes its risk management framework to better align with its unique culture and strategic objectives. This is an example of:

a)

Performing risk mapping.

b)

Adapting the risk management model.

c)

Creating a valid risk forecast.

d)

Determining the cost of risk.

5.

How does risk, when managed effectively, primarily create value for an organization?

a)

By avoiding all opportunities that involve uncertainty.

b)

By ensuring compliance with all governmental regulations.

c)

By enabling the organization to take on optimal levels of uncertainty for potential gains.

d)

By reducing the overall insurance premium payments.

6.

Which component is typically the starting point when creating a risk program? (A.5)

a)

Hiring a Chief Risk Officer

b)

Setting the context and defining risk appetite.

c)

Purchasing a comprehensive insurance policy.

d)

Creating an emergency response plan.

7.

A risk professional uses historical loss data and statistical models to estimate the frequency and severity of future claims. This is an example of:

a)

Performing risk profiling.

b)

Creating a valid risk forecast.

c)

Determining the cost of risk.

d)

Applying risk enhancement tactics.

8.

The visual tool used to plot risks based on their likelihood and impact (severity) is known as:

a)

A. A SWOT analysis.

b)

B. A risk map (or heat map).

c)

 A portfolio matrix.

d)

 A financial statement analysis.

9.

Which of the following is NOT typically included in the "Cost of Risk"?

a)

A. Insurance premiums and retained losses.

b)

B. Internal administrative costs for risk management.

c)

C. Sales revenue generated from products.

d)

D. Costs of risk control (e.g., safety equipment).

10.

Installing a sprinkler system in a warehouse is a risk control tactic primarily aimed at:

a)

Risk enablement.

b)

Risk enhancement.

c)

Risk reduction.

d)

Risk retention.

11.

Implementing a rigorous employee training program to minimize human error is an example of a risk control tactic focused on:

a)

Risk prevention.

b)

Risk retention.

c)

Risk transfer.

d)

Risk financing.

12.

A plan detailing how an organization will resume critical business functions after a major disruptive event (like a fire or flood) is called a:

a)

Safety training manual.

b)

Hazard identification report.

c)

Emergency response plan.

d)

Business continuity plan.

13.

The deliberate, planned acceptance of a financial loss by an organization instead of insuring against it is called:

a)

Risk transfer.

b)

Risk enhancement.

c)

Risk retention.

d)

Risk avoidance.

14.

Purchasing a surety bond or commercial insurance policy is an example of which risk financing mechanism?

a)

Risk retention.

b)

Risk reduction.

c)

Risk financing transfer.

d)

Risk avoidance.

15.

A key audience consideration when preparing a risk management report is: (A.12)

a)

Focusing only on historical losses.

b)

Tailoring the content and detail to the needs of the reader (e.g., Board vs. Department Manager).

c)

Only presenting risks that have been completely eliminated.

d)

Using only complex actuarial terms.

16.

Which of the following legal concepts imposes a duty on a party to act in the best interest of another party?

a)

Doctrine of Proximate Cause

b)

Principle of Indemnity

c)

Contract of Adhesion

d)

 A financial statement analysis.

17.

Which type of insurance is generally most recommended for a young adult who rents an apartment?

a)

Commercial General Liability

b)

Whole Life Insurance

c)

Renter's Insurance

d)

Long-Term Care Insurance

18.

A risk management framework that uses the 'treat risks' step to implement controls is:

a)

The standard Risk Management Model.

b)

The Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) model.

c)

The Loss Control Specialist model.

d)

The Claims Management process.

19.

If a company decides to stop manufacturing a dangerous product line to eliminate potential liability claims, this is an example of:

a)

Risk retention.

b)

Risk reduction.

c)

Risk enhancement.

d)

Risk avoidance.

20.

A captive insurance company is primarily a mechanism for:

a)

Risk transfer to the commercial market.

b)

Risk retention and self-insurance.

c)

Risk avoidance by small firms.

d)

Risk enhancement for high-growth firms.

21.

A risk manager's report typically includes a section that documents the performance of controls and changes in the risk profile. This aligns with which risk management step?

a)

Assess and prioritize risks.

b)

Choose control measures.

c)

Monitor and review results.

d)

Identify hazards.

22.

When a company's internal risk management model is adjusted from a silo-based approach to an integrated, organization-wide perspective, this is an application of:

a)

Legal component adherence.

b)

Enterprise Risk Management (ERM).

c)

Risk forecasting.

d)

Risk mapping.

23.

A risk profile typically details the key characteristics of a risk, including its potential impact, frequency, and current controls. This is a primary output of which step?

a)

Creating a risk program.

b)

Assessment and prioritization.

c)

Determining the cost of risk.

d)

Implementing controls.

24.

A key legal component in the risk management industry that dictates honest and fair dealings between parties is:

a)

Subrogation.

b)

Adverse Selection

c)

Moral Hazard.

d)

Good Faith.

25.

The cost of retained losses is part of the Cost of Risk and refers to:

a)

The total amount paid in insurance premiums.

b)

The cost of safety training programs.

c)

Losses paid by the organization itself, often through deductibles or self-insurance.

d)

The cost of regulatory fines.

26.

Which risk control tactic focuses on modifying operations to increase the probability or magnitude of a positive risk (opportunity)?

a)

Prevention

b)

Reduction

c)

Enablement

d)

Enhancement

27.

A written set of procedures for employees to follow immediately after a major security breach is part of a(n):

a)

Risk program charter.

b)

Emergency response plan.

c)

Risk retention plan.

d)

Insurance contract.

28.

Which of the following is a key element of the "Communicate results" step in the ERM model?

a)

Only reporting risks that are high severity.

b)

Avoiding discussion of failed control measures.

c)

Providing stakeholders with clear, timely, and reliable information about risks.

d)

Forecasting future insurance premium costs.

29.

A young adult is advised to purchase Uninsured/Underinsured Motorist (UM/UIM) coverage. This insurance is recommended to cover which specific risk?

a)

Damage to the young adult's own car in any accident.

b)

Liability for injuries the young adult causes to others.

c)

Injuries to the young adult caused by a driver with insufficient or no insurance.

d)

Cost of a rental car after an accident.

30.

Which term refers to the process of gathering data to project future risk exposure and potential losses?

a)

Risk mapping

b)

Claims settlement

c)

Risk forecasting

d)

Contract negotiation

31.

In auto insurance, Collision Coverage pays for:

a)

Bodily injury to a third party.

b)

Medical expenses for the insured.

c)

Damage to the insured's vehicle from an accident with another car or object.

d)

Theft or damage from fire.

32.

Which factor typically leads to a reduction in an auto insurance premium?

a)

Driving a sports car.

b)

Being a new, young driver.

c)

Maintaining a clean driving record (no tickets or accidents).

d)

Increasing the liability limits dramatically.

33.

Which type of auto insurance coverage covers damage to the insured's car due to events other than a collision (e.g., theft, hail, vandalism)?

a)

Liability Coverage

b)

Uninsured Motorist Coverage

c)

Comprehensive Coverage

d)

Personal Injury Protection (PIP)

34.

John's auto insurance liability limit is 100,000/100,000/ 300,000/ 50,000.The50,000. The 300,000 represents the maximum amount the insurer will pay for:

a)

Property damage in one accident.

b)

Total bodily injury for all people in one accident.

c)

Bodily injury per person in one accident.

d)

The total amount of the deductible.

35.

Sarah has a claim of 5,000fordamagetohercar.HerComprehensiveCoveragehasa5,000 for damage to her car. Her Comprehensive Coverage has a 500 deductible. Assuming the claim is covered and no exclusions apply, how much will the insurance company pay?

a)

$5,000

b)

$500

c)

$4,500

d)

$4,500

36.

An increase in the deductible on a Comprehensive auto policy will most likely affect the premium by:

a)

Increasing it.

b)

Having no effect.

c)

Decreasing it.

d)

Requiring additional endorsements.

37.

A primary benefit of Renter's Insurance is:

a)

It covers damage to the physical building structure.

b)

It covers the landlord's liability.

c)

It provides coverage for the tenant's personal property and liability.

d)

It is mandatory in all rental agreements.

38.

Which type of insurance is mandatory for nearly all employers to cover employee injuries sustained in the course of employment?

a)

Short-Term Disability

b)

Group Health Insurance

c)

Worker's Compensation

d)

General Liability

39.

Worker's Compensation benefits typically include:

a)

Payment for pain and suffering.

b)

Medical treatment and compensation for lost wages.

c)

Coverage for injuries sustained while commuting.

d)

Employer-paid retirement contributions.

40.

If a policy has an exclusion, this means:

a)

The policy has a very high deductible.

b)

The insurer will only pay for a portion of the loss.

c)

The policy does not provide coverage for a specific risk, peril, or circumstance.

d)

The policy covers the risk but requires an endorsement.

41.

41. The legal minimum amount of auto insurance coverage required in a state typically refers to the minimum required limits for:

a)

Bodily injury and property damage liability.

b)

Comprehensive and collision coverage.

c)

Uninsured motorist coverage only.

d)

Personal injury protection only.

42.

Which of the following is required by law in most states for drivers to carry?

a)

Comprehensive and Collision.

b)

Personal Injury Protection (PIP) only.

c)

Bodily Injury and Property Damage Liability.

d)

Uninsured Motorist coverage.

43.

Compared to a liability limit of 50,000/50,000/ 100,000, choosing a limit of 250,000/250,000/ 500,000 will generally result in a:

a)

Lower premium, due to the lower exposure.

b)

Higher premium, due to the greater amount of risk transferred to the insurer.

c)

The same premium, as liability is mandatory.

d)

A lower deductible, due to higher limits.

44.

Which of the following is a primary reason a driver's credit score can influence their auto insurance premium in many states?

a)

Credit score directly reflects the car's market value.

b)

Insurers use credit-based insurance scores as a predictor of future claim frequency.

c)

State law mandates a premium discount for high credit scores.

d)

It determines the deductible amount.

45.

Which coverage is crucial for a renter to ensure they have the funds to temporarily live elsewhere if their apartment becomes uninhabitable after a covered loss (e.g., a fire)?

a)

Liability Coverage

b)

Loss of Use (or Additional Living Expense) Coverage

c)

Replacement Cost Coverage

d)

Medical Payments Coverage

46.

The term subrogation in property and liability insurance relates to:

a)

The insurer's right to cancel a policy.

b)

The insured's choice of deductible.

c)

The insurer's right to pursue a third party who caused a loss to recover the amount paid to the insured.

d)

The process of calculating the actual cash value of a loss.

47.

Which financial assistance program is a primary source of government benefits for income loss due to a long-term, qualifying disability?

a)

Medicare Part B

b)

Social Security Disability Insurance (SSDI)

c)

Medicaid

d)

Affordable Care Act (ACA) Subsidies

48.

A person who is the primary wage earner, has a mortgage, and two young children most needs which type of insurance to protect their family's financial security if they were to pass away?

a)

Renter's Insurance

b)

Auto Insurance

c)

Life Insurance

d)

Worker's Compensation

49.

The primary purpose of Long-Term Care (LTC) Insurance is to cover the cost of:

a)

Hospital stays related to chronic illness.

b)

Daily expenses (e.g., food, utilities) during retirement.

c)

Custodial care in a nursing home, assisted living facility, or at home.

d)

Prescription medications for chronic conditions.

50.

Which entity is a common source of health insurance for individuals who are not covered through an employer?

a)

Only the federal government

b)

Only private insurance companies

c)

The Health Insurance Marketplace (e.g., under the ACA).

d)

Only Worker's Compensation programs.

51.

Disability insurance is most needed when an individual's primary financial asset is their:

a)

Home equity.

b)

Stock portfolio.

c)

Ability to earn an income.

d)

Cash savings.

52.

When creating a basic financial plan, what is a common change over time as a person ages and has a growing family?

a)

Their need for life insurance permanently decreases.

b)

The plan often shifts from accumulating assets to preserving and distributing assets.

c)

The focus on emergency savings becomes less important.

d)

The proportion of high-risk investments generally increases.

53.

The benefit period in a disability insurance policy refers to:

a)

The time before benefits start (elimination period).

b)

The maximum length of time for which benefits will be paid.

c)

The frequency of premium payments.

d)

The time the policy is guaranteed is renewable.

54.

Which government program is the main source of health insurance for many Americans aged 65 or older?

a)

Medicaid

b)

Medicare

c)

SSDI

d)

COBRA

55.

The Elimination Period in a disability insurance policy is analogous to which concept in property insurance?

a)

Premium

b)

Subrogation

c)

Deductible

d)

Liability limit

56.

A basic financial plan should start with the creation of a(n):

a)

Aggressive investment portfolio.

b)

Emergency fund and debt management plan.

c)

Irrevocable living trust.

d)

Life insurance application.

57.

The Primary purpose of a Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) is to:

a)

Reimburse members for out-of-network care only.

b)

Control costs by emphasizing preventative care and requiring members to use a network of providers.

c)

Provide unlimited catastrophic health coverage.

d)

Pay benefits directly to the insured, not the provider.

58.

An individual may need disability insurance even if they have substantial savings, because:

a)

Disability benefits are tax-free.

b)

A long-term disability can quickly deplete savings and retirement funds.

c)

Health insurance will not cover medical bills for a disability.

d)

It is a legal requirement in most states.

59.

Which of the following is an example of an income loss program not tied to a permanent disability or age?

a)

SSDI

b)

Medicare

c)

Unemployment Insurance

d)

Social Security Retirement

60.

Life insurance is generally most beneficial when an individual has:

a)

Significant personal assets but no debt.

b)

Dependents who rely on their income.

c)

Only a pension as a source of retirement income.

d)

A short-term need for cash.

61.

COBRA is a federal regulation that allows certain individuals to:

a)

Receive SSDI benefits faster.

b)

Temporarily continue their employer-sponsored health insurance after a qualifying event (e.g., job loss).

c)

Purchase a life insurance policy without underwriting.

d)

Enroll in Medicare before age 65.

62.

Which basic policy feature allows the insurer to examine the insured property at any reasonable time?

a)

Declarations

b)

Insuring Agreement

c)

Conditions

d)

Exclusions

63.

Term life insurance is defined by which key characteristic?

a)

It builds a cash value over time.

b)

It provides coverage for a specific, defined period of time.

c)

The premium payments are flexible.

d)

It guarantees a payout for life.

64.

The primary reason life insurance companies underwrite a policy is to:

a)

Determine the applicant's risk classification and appropriate premium.

b)

Negotiate the final settlement amount.

c)

Ensure the policy is a contract of adhesion.

d)

Define the policy's exclusions.

65.

The legal doctrine that states the policyholder must have a financial stake in the insured item or person for the contract to be valid is the principle of:

a)

Utmost Good Faith

b)

Subrogation

c)

Indemnity

d)

 Insurable Interest

66.

Which of the following best describes the function of claims management? (D.5)

a)

Determining the appropriate premium for a risk.

b)

Fulfilling the company's promise to pay covered losses promptly and fairly.

c)

Negotiating the terms of the insurance contract.

d)

Auditing the company's investment portfolio.

67.

The process of arranging a group of different coverages for a client to address their various risks is known as:

a)

Underwriting a policy.

b)

Creating a portfolio and placing coverage.

c)

Investigating insurance fraud.

d)

Regulatory compliance.

68.

The interconnected system of reinsurers, specialty carriers, and regulatory bodies worldwide refers to:

a)

Insurance underwriting.

b)

The claims settlement process.

c)

Global insurance markets.

d)

Insurance product development.

69.

The concept of risk aversion primarily influences insurance markets by:

a)

Reducing the cost of risk for insurers.

b)

Creating a demand for insurance as individuals prefer a certain premium over an uncertain loss.

c)

Forcing all insurance prices to be the same.

d)

Limiting the number of available insurance products.

70.

In a negotiation, a key role of the insurance professional in writing a contract is to ensure:

a)

Clarity on the coverage, exclusions, and conditions.

b)

The client's premiums are the lowest possible.

c)

The policy is approved by the global market.

d)

The claim is paid immediately upon notification.

71.

Regulations designed to ensure that insurers have sufficient capital to pay claims are related to:

a)

Risk aversion.

b)

Pricing models.

c)

Solvency requirements.

d)

Claims fraud.

72.

A contract where one party (the insurer) has control over the wording, and the other party (the insured) must accept the terms as written is called a:

a)

Contract of Indemnity

b)

Contract of Adhesion

c)

Unilateral Contract

d)

Conditional Contract

73.

A primary benefit of purchasing an insurance product is:

a)

Earning a guaranteed investment return.

b)

Financial protection against large, unexpected losses.

c)

Eliminating all risk from one's life.

d)

Tax exemption on all premium payments.

74.

Deliberately staging an accident to collect a payout from an insurer is an example of:

a)

Adverse selection.

b)

Moral hazard.

c)

Hard insurance fraud.

d)

Regulatory non-compliance.

75.

When an insurer conducts surveillance, interviews witnesses, and analyzes documentation to determine the legitimacy of a reported loss, they are primarily engaged in:

a)

Underwriting the policy.

b)

Renewing the contract.

c)

Investigating suspected insurance fraud.

d)

Setting the premium price.

76.

The final stage of the claim process, where the insurer confirms the amount of loss and makes the payment, is called:

a)

First Notice of Loss (FNOL)

b)

Investigation

c)

Reservation of Rights

d)

Settlement

77.

Which federal regulation ensures the privacy and security of health information?

a)

A. OSHA

b)

B. ERISA

c)

C. HIPAA

d)

D. NFPA

78.

In the insurance business cycle, who is primarily responsible for assessing the risk of a potential insured and determining the appropriate premium rate?

a)

Agent/Broker

b)

Underwriter

c)

Claims Adjuster

d)

Actuary

79.

Which statement about Permanent Life Insurance is correct?

a)

It provides coverage for a specified term, typically 10 or 20 years.

b)

The premium must increase annually as the insured ages.

c)

It provides coverage for the insured's entire life and typically includes a cash value component.

d)

It does not require a medical exam during the underwriting process.

80.

The legal concept that requires the insured to disclose all material facts to the insurer is the principle of:

a)

Subrogation.

b)

Utmost Good Faith.

c)

Indemnity.

d)

Warranty.

81.

Adherence to insurance industry regulations is necessary for:

a)

Lowering the overall cost of risk.

b)

Maintaining an insurer's license to operate and ensuring consumer protection.

c)

Eliminating the need for claims investigation.

d)

Automating the underwriting process.

82.

Analyzing global economic trends, political instability, and cultural differences when evaluating risk is an example of recognizing and analyzing problems based on:

a)

Ethical guidelines.

b)

Global environments.

c)

Local regulatory compliance.

d)

Internal organizational data.

83.

Benchmarking in risk management is used to:

a)

Determine the exact cash value of a loss.

b)

Compare an organization's internal risk data and performance against industry best practices or competitors.

c)

Settle claims with clients.

d)

Negotiate a contract's premium.

84.

The ultimate goal of optimizing risk-taking decisions within an organization (ERM) is to ensure that all risks taken:

a)

Have an insurance policy attached to them.

b)

Are fully disclosed to the public.

c)

Align with the organization's strategic objectives and risk appetite.

d)

Are entirely preventable.

85.

An underwriter's decision to deny a policy application based on the applicant's severe history of large losses is an analysis of:

a)

Fiduciary duty of care.

b)

Ethical decision making.

c)

The risk posed by a potential client.

d)

Data security measures.

86.

Demonstrating ethical decision-making through fiduciary duty of care requires an insurance professional to act with:

a)

Strict avoidance of all risk.

b)

Competency, due diligence, and loyalty to the client/principal.

c)

Immediate payment of all claims, regardless of investigation.

d)

Complete transparency of all internal company financial data.

87.

A key purpose of a confidentiality agreement in the insurance industry is to:

a)

Prevent employees from discussing the weather.

b)

Guarantee a policy renewal.

c)

Protect the privacy of sensitive client and business information.

d)

Simplify the claims settlement process.

88.

Which measure is most crucial for implementing data security for confidential electronic records?

a)

Using paper files instead of digital.

b)

Implementing encryption, access controls, and regular security audits.

c)

Placing all data in a public cloud server.

d)

Sharing passwords across departments.

89.

Federal regulations like HIPAA and state laws regarding breach notification primarily address:

a)

Risk mapping.

b)

Underwriting profitability.

c)

Privacy violations and public disclosure of protected information.

d)

The cost of risk.

90.

Which insurance industry job role is primarily responsible for calculating risk and premiums using advanced mathematics and statistics?

a)

Underwriter

b)

Claims Adjuster

c)

Actuary

d)

Loss Control Specialist

91.

An organization that provides ethical standards and professional development for claims professionals, such as the CPCU, is known as a(n):

a)

Government regulatory body.

b)

Captive insurance company.

c)

Industry organization.

d)

Global financial market.

92.

A core essential knowledge skill needed for an insurance sales representative is:

a)

Performing building safety inspections.

b)

Deep knowledge of insurance products and strong interpersonal communication.

c)

Advanced statistical modeling.

d)

Managing the company's investment portfolio.

93.

The professional responsible for visiting client sites to identify potential hazards and recommend safety improvements is the:

a)

Underwriter.

b)

Actuary.

c)

Claims Adjuster.

d)

Loss Control Specialist.

94.

The purpose of an insurance licensing program is to:

a)

Allow anyone to sell insurance.

b)

Ensure professionals meet minimum knowledge and ethical standards before selling or servicing policies.

c)

Exempt professionals from all continuing education.

d)

Certify that the professional is an Actuary.

95.

Which of the following is an example of an insurance industry job?

a)

Financial Auditor

b)

Marketing Manager

c)

Underwriter

d)

Patent Attorney

96.

When making a complex, high-stakes decision, what is the ethical manager's primary consideration?

a)

The fastest decision.

b)

The cheapest outcome.

c)

The decision that maximizes value for stakeholders while upholding legal and ethical obligations.

d)

The decision that completely avoids any potential negative consequences.

97.

A fiduciary duty is most often owed by an insurance agent or broker to:

a)

The State Department of Insurance.

b)

Their client (the insured).

c)

The global insurance market.

d)

The competitor's insurance company.

98.

Which of the following is a major reason why an insurance company needs to implement strong data security measures?

a)

To lower their COBRA compliance costs.

b)

To reduce the time it takes to process claims.

c)

To comply with privacy laws and prevent identity theft of their policyholders.

d)

To enhance their risk enablement strategy.

99.

The Underwriter's role in the insurance business cycle is critical because they:

a)

Negotiate the final claim settlement.

b)

Serve as the gatekeeper, accepting or rejecting risks on behalf of the insurer.

c)

Provide legal counsel to the company.

d)

Market and sell insurance products directly to the public.

100.

Which certification program is widely recognized in the insurance industry as the standard for property and casualty insurance expertise?

a)

CPA (Certified Public Accountant)

b)

CFP (Certified Financial Planner)

c)

CPCU (Chartered Property Casualty Underwriter)

d)

PMP (Project Management Professional)