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Soal Ujian Rating APS Periode 2 Tahun 2025

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Vertical Limit of Tanjungpinang South CTR is:

a)

GND/WATER – 3000 ft

b)

GND/WATER – 6000 ft

c)

GND/ WATER – 10.000 ft

d)

3.000 ft – 10.000 ft

2.

Altitude point GURES for SID RNAV RWY 04 Tanjungpinang is?

a)

At or Below 10.000 feet

b)

At or Above 10.000 feet

c)

Maintain 10.000 feet

d)

Maintain 6.000 feet

3.

Vertical Limit of Tanjungpinang TMA is:

a)

GND/WATER – 10.000 ft

b)

10.000 ft – FL 245

c)

3.000 ft – 10.000 ft

d)

6.000 ft – 10.000 ft

4.

What is upper and lower limit of Natuna CTR?

a)

10000 – FL 245

b)

GND/WATER – 245

c)

FL 245 – FL 370

d)

GND/ WATER - 10000

5.

Horizontal separation between the dumping fuel aircraft and the aircraft behind it is?

a)

10 minutes or 100 NM

b)

12 minutes or 70 NM

c)

15 minutes or 50 NM

d)

100 NM or more

6.

What phraseology is used when an aircraft experience communication failure on surveillance unit?

a)

If you read me acknowledge by blinking your squawk

b)

If you read me acknowledge by turning heading nine zero degrees to left/right

c)

If you read me acknowledge by rocking your wings

d)

If you read me acknowledge by push and release you radio

7.

The separation used for presidential aircraft arriving or departing is:

a)

10NM Horizontal separation and 2000ft Vertical separation

b)

5NM Horizontal separation and 2000ft Vertical separation

c)

10NM Horizontal separation and 1000ft Vertical separation

d)

5KM Horizontal separation and 2000ft Vertical separation

8.

The separation used for between arrival aircraft in Hang Nadim Airport, which has provision, the preceding aircraft has touched the touchdown of runway is:

a)

7 NM

b)

10 NM

c)

15 NM

d)

20 NM

9.

What is minimum visibility RNP RWY 36 LNAV/VNAV no ALS cat A/B/C/D over Natuna?

a)

2400 M

b)

1900 M

c)

3000 M

d)

2600 M

10.

Location of Fuctional Check Flight for Foreign Aircraft is ?

a)

Between DODSO and ATETI

b)

Between NIXEB and BOBOB

c)

Between TOMAN and OBGET

d)

Between OBGET and NIMIX

11.

Where should the transfer of control (TCP) take place for aircraft flying trough ATS Route L504?

a)

At KIKOR

b)

At KADAR

c)

At SURGA

d)

At The Boundry

12.

Performance Based Navigation specification that requires On-board Performance Monitoring and Alerting (OPMA) is?

a)

RNAV 2

b)

RNP

c)

RNAV 1

d)

RNAV GNSS

13.

Mode A code for special purposes to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to communication failure?

a)

7700

b)

7600

c)

7500

d)

7400

14.

What is the freq of Jakarta Upper Natuna (UNTA) and Jakarta Upper Tanjungpinang (UTPG)?

a)

134.025 MHz & 133.325 MHz

b)

134.25 MHz & 133.325 MHz

c)

134.025 MHz & 133.25 MHz

d)

134.25 MHz & 133.25 MHz

15.

What is the Primary and Secondary radio freq Ranai Tower?

a)

118,7 and 118,1 MHz

b)

130,2 and 122,8 MHz

c)

122,8 and 118,1 MHz

d)

122,8 and 119,35 MHz

16.

What is the minimum altitude of Point UBMAR for RNP RWY 18 Matak?

a)

3000ft

b)

2500ft

c)

2000ft

d)

1500ft

17.

Minimum sector altitude (MSA) Tanjungpinang on route segment R020° – R270°, 25NM from TPG is:

a)

1800ft

b)

3000ft

c)

2500ft

d)

2300ft

18.

What is the Radial and distance of Tanjung Uban from BTM

a)

R132° / 6,1NM

b)

R124° / 6,4NM

c)

R114° / 7,4NM

d)

R132,6° / 6,1NM

19.

What is the Radial and distance of Kasam from BTM

a)

261° / 5.0NM

b)

182° / 5,7NM

c)

132° / 6,1NM

d)

261° / 6,1NM

20.

IAF point for runway 36 at Matak Tarempa Airport, which are used to calculate the EAT of a delay aircraft are:

a)

MK

b)

UBMAR

c)

DM502

d)

DM501

21.

What is priority of Instrument Approach Procedure is used on MATAK RWY 18?

a)

ILS or LOC

b)

RNP

c)

NDB

d)

Visual

22.

At aerodromes equipped with wind shear detection systems, what type of information should wind shear alerts provide?

a)

General weather condition in the area

b)

Observed wind shear involving a headwind/ tail wind change of 7.5 m/s (15 kt) or more

c)

Cloud Base

d)

Observed wind shear involving a headwind/ tailwind change of 7.5 m/s (15 kt) or below

23.

AIRMET message validity period cannot be more than?

a)

2 Hours

b)

1 Hours

c)

4 Hours

d)

30 Minutes

24.

When the AIRMET information shall be cancelled?

a)

AIRMET information more than 5 hours

b)

When the phenomena are no longer occurring or are no longer expected to occur in the area

c)

AIRMET information more than 3 hours

d)

AIRMET information more than 6 hours

25.

The steps taken by ATC when an aircraft experiencing a radio failure, except?

a)

Controller must ensure that is it total failure or not by asking aircraft to squawk Ident, Change to Communication Failure Squawk Number or ask for making certain movements.

b)

If the aircraft is transmitter failure, all instruction can continue to be given with an acknowledgement of clearence.

c)

Transfer the aircraft to adjecent unit as soon as possible

d)

If the action taken is not succesful,the action must be repeat at another available and possible frequency

26.

The aircraft altitude tolerance value displayed on the information display for the Controller is

a)

+ 300 ft in the RVSM area and + 300 ft outside the RVSM area

b)

+ 200 ft in the RVSM area and + 300 ft outside the RVSM area

c)

+ 200 ft in the RVSM area and + 400 ft outside the RVSM area

d)

+ 200 ft in the RVSM area and + 200 ft outside the RVSM area

27.

When is the MSAW function can be activated:

a)

IFR aircraft that have issued visual clearance

b)

A military aircraft conducting a special VFR flight

c)

Training flight during exercise

d)

Weather CAVOK

28.

What is the Warning System to warn controllers of potential conflicts between aircraft by predicting lateral and vertical movements, speed, and altitude?

a)

STCA (Short Term Conflict Alert)

b)

MSAW (Minimum Safe Altitude Warning)

c)

CLAM (Cleared Level Adherence Monitor)

d)

RAM (Route Adherence Monitor)

29.

Minimum Safe Altitude Warning in ATC system will be shown on Radar screen with track label?

a)

“AW” with yellow blink (Prediction) and red blink (Violation)

b)

“HJ” with red blink and yellow blink (prediction)

c)

“EM” with red blink and yellow blink (violation)

d)

“LB” with yellow blink

30.

In the event of a failure of the Jakarta ACC ATS System (JAATS), what is the minimum interval for releasing departures destination to Jakarta by Tanjungpinang APP?

a)

5 minutes no closing speed

b)

3 minutes no closing speed

c)

2 minutes no closing speed

d)

4 minutes no closing speed

31.

What is the minimum surveillance spacing required between aircraft operating within Tanjungpinang TMA (north and south) and Tanjungpinang CTR (Natuna and Matak)?

a)

5NM

b)

10NM

c)

7NM

d)

15NM

32.

Transfer point aircraft flying from Natuna to Batam between TNJ North TMA and SIN SEC 4 is?

a)

TOMAN

b)

UXEDA

c)

NIXEB

d)

DODSO

33.

What is the Mode A Code for an aircraft is kown unlawful interference to indicate that it is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance?

a)

7700

b)

7500

c)

7600

d)

7002

34.

Communication Failure warning in ATC system will be shown on Radar screen with track label?

a)

“RF” with red blink

b)

“RF” with yellow blink

c)

“EM” with red blink

d)

“RC” with red blink

35.

According to SID RNAV RWY 04 Batam aircraft flight to ATS Route T24 is?

a)

IDBUD one Juliet Dept

b)

IDBUD one Mike Dept

c)

TOMAN one Juliet Dept

d)

KIRDA one Alpha Dept

36.

Select TRUE or FALSE: Classification air space of Natuna CTR is Class c, and vertical limits from 10.000 feet – FL245

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

37.

Select TRUE or FALSE: The vapor zone ( tha area traversed by aircraft dumping fuel) must not crossed by other aircraft, for a minimum of 10 minutes

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

38.

Select TRUE or FALSE: Missed approach procedure of Instrument approach procedure RNP Z RWY 04 Tanjungpinang is climb on course 043 at or above 1500 feet Turn Right direct to TUSPI 6000 feet for holding or as instructed by ATC

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

39.

Select TRUE or FALSE: Missed approach procedure of instrument approach procedure RNP RWY 18 Ranai at MAPt, turn left direct to NN504 to PULET 5500 feet for holding or as instructed by ATC

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

40.

Select TRUE or FALSE: Procedures of PBN at Matak Airport is IAP RNP Z RWY 18, IAP RNP Y RWY 18, SID RNP 36, STAR RNP RWY 18

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

41.

Select TRUE or FALSE: The secondary radio freq Hang Nadim Tower is 118.31 MHz

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

42.

Select TRUE or FALSE: Prohibited Area STCA is as wide as 5 NM on each a visual approach pattern to the RHF and Hang Nadim Airport and a length of 10 NM on each approach, take-off climb out area

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

43.

Select TRUE or FALSE: At Ranai Natuna Airport, the EAT calculation between aircraft is based on the estimated time over IAF, in this case the PULET point for runway 18 and ISPUN for runway 36

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

44.

Select TRUE or FALSE: There has been no contact with an aircraft within 30 minutes after the time which the aircraft should have made communication with the appropriate aeronautical situation, the ATS unit concerned. That emergency condition is Alert Phase

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

45.

Select TRUE or FALSE: In the event of Natuna Control Zone (CTR), Matak Control Zone (CTR), Tanjungpinang North TMA and Tanjungpinang South TMA is experiencing air to ground communication failure. Natuna Tower, Matak Tower, Letung AFIS and Tambelan AFIS handle the traffic

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

46.

Mention the PBN procedures at Hang Nadim Batam Airport

4 lines
47.

What actions should ATS units take when unlawful interference or a bomb threat warning has been received with an aircraft is suspected?

4 lines
48.

What are the two possible causes of aircraft duplication on radar dispalys?

4 lines
49.

Mention the Vertical limit of Natuna CTR

4 lines
50.

What is the procedure for helicopter arrivals at Hang Nadim Batam airport, from the eastern region, North Bintan, and East Bintan:

4 lines