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Worksheets

Y12 HL GEOG

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the core-periphery model primarily explain?

a)

Population growth trends

b)

The distribution of natural resources

c)

Economic relationships between regions

d)

Cultural differences across countries

2.

Which region is considered a core in the context of the core-periphery model?

a)

Central Asia

b)

Eastern Europe

c)

Sub-Saharan Africa

d)

Western Europe

3.

What term is used for areas that develop around the core?

a)

Sub-core

b)

Periphery

c)

Semi-periphery

d)

Core

4.

Which is the name for a new core forming in another region?

a)

Satellite

b)

Discoball

c)

Radial

d)

Neosphere

5.

What effect suggests that innovations in the core will eventually benefit the periphery?

a)

Trade effect

b)

Backwash effect

c)

Dependency effect

d)

Globalization effect

6.

Which country's core-periphery is very pronounced, along the Heihe-Tengchong line?

a)

India

b)

Brazil

c)

South Africa

d)

China

7.

Who developed the World System Theory that relates to the core-periphery model?

a)

John Smith

b)

Immanuel Wallerstein

c)

David Harvey

d)

Andre Gunder Frank

8.

What does FDI stand for in the context of economic geography?

a)

Free Trade Investment

b)

Fiscal Dependency Initiative

c)

Financial Development Index

d)

Foreign Direct Investment

9.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of core regions?

a)

Higher standards of living

b)

More tax money for infrastructure

c)

Lower population density

d)

Higher profit margins

10.

What does the term 'brain drain' refer to?

a)

Decrease in population growth

b)

Reduction in educational opportunities

c)

Loss of skilled labor to other regions

d)

Migration of unskilled workers

11.

Which of the following countries is considered part of Singapore's semi-periphery?

a)

South Africa

b)

Brazil

c)

Japan

d)

Vietnam

12.

What is the primary criticism of HIC-LIC aid programs according to Wallerstein?

a)

They create dependency

b)

They are ineffective

c)

They promote inequality

d)

They are too expensive

13.

What does NIDL stand for?

a)

National Icy Day Laws

b)

New International Division of Labour

c)

Never Invest Dollars Lawlessly

d)

Nasty Iguanas Don’t Lie

14.

Which countries are referred to as the original NICs or Tiger Economies?

a)

Brazil, Russia, India, China

b)

Singapore and South Korea

c)

Vietnam and Malaysia

d)

Germany and Kenya

15.

The NIDL has resulted in (a)   in HIC cities

(Hint: D)

16.

Which technological advancement is credited with aiding the pace of NIDL shifts?

a)

3D printing

b)

Aeronautics

c)

Internet & mobile communications

d)

Biotechnology advancements

17.

What industry did the Tiger Economies focus on after moving away from manufacturing?

a)

Primary industry

b)

High-tech and tertiary (service) industries

c)

Heavy industry

d)

Agriculture

18.

Which countries are part of the BRIC group?

a)

Brazil, Russia, India, China

b)

Bahrain, Russia, Israel and Canada

c)

Bangladesh, Rwanda, Iceland and Chad

d)

Bhutan, Rwanda, Indonesia and Cambodia

19.

What is a potential consequence of not having primary industry focused countries?

a)

Decrease in food and raw material prices

b)

Increase in food and raw material prices

20.

What event highlighted the risks of depending on a global supply chain?

a)

2008 Financial Crisis

b)

2020 Covid Toilet Paper Crisis

c)

2011 Tsunami in Japan

d)

2015 European Migrant Crisis

21.

What does the acronym HIC stand for?

a)

High Income Countries

b)

Highly Industrialized Cities

c)

Hyper interrelated concepts

d)

High Investment Capitals

22.

Think about links between GDP and development.

Which country has the highest % of tertiary industry:

a)

Germany

b)

China

c)

Kenya

d)

Brazil

23.

What is a characteristic of semi-periphery countries that attracts TNCs?

a)

High environmental standards

b)

Large labor forces looking for work

c)

High cost of living

d)

Advanced technological infrastructure

24.

What is a reason for the shift of manufacturing to semi-periphery countries?

a)

High demand for luxury goods in the host market

b)

Lower wages and less strict environmental laws

c)

Greater access to advanced technology

d)

Political stability

25.

India is unusual for MICs, as it reached Rostow's take-off stage by focusing on...

a)

Commercial farming

b)

Service industries and offshoring

c)

Hi-tech manufacturing

26.

Which level of development are the 'Cubs' countries considered to be part of?

a)

LDC

b)

LIC

c)

MIC

d)

HIC

27.

What is the main difference between offshoring and outsourcing?

a)

A) Offshoring involves a third party, outsourcing does not.

b)

B) Offshoring is done within the same country, outsourcing is international.

c)

C) Offshoring involves your own brand's services abroad, outsourcing involves a third party.

d)

D) Offshoring is cheaper than outsourcing.

28.

What is one reason companies are reshoring according to the text?

a)

Lower labor costs abroad

b)

Better quality control

c)

Increased outsourcing

d)

Higher taxes in home country

29.

Some companies reshore due to issues with ______ control, which makes consumers lose faith in the company's output.

a)

quality

b)

cost

c)

time

d)

labor

30.

What is a potential downside of offshoring mentioned in the text?

a)

Increased local employment

b)

Loss of control over quality

c)

Higher profits

d)

Easier management

31.

Which of the following is a benefit of offshoring for LIC/NIC host countries (especially those in DTM stage 3)?

a)

Decreased employment

b)

Better skilled workforce

c)

Lower tax rates

d)

Increased environmental standards

32.

The offshoring of jobs in one industry can lead to the loss of jobs in another due to the negative ------- effect.

(a)  

33.

What trend has made reshoring a more attractive option recently?

a)

Decreased oil costs

b)

HIC workers accepting lower wages

c)

Increased global shipping costs

d)

Lower home country taxes

34.

Which company moved its headquarters to Singapore in 2017?

a)

Dyson

b)

Apple

c)

Samsung

d)

Sony

35.

Which model (4 letter acronym) does reshoring appear to run counter to?

(a)  

36.

What is the estimated share of U.S. manufacturing jobs reshored from China between 2010 and 2021?

a)

44%

b)

30%

c)

20%

d)

10%

37.

The invention of which technology reduced global circumnavigation to 3 days?

a)

Steam engines

b)

Sailing ships

c)

Turboprop engines

d)

Internet

38.

Cultural homogenisation leads to all the world's cultures becoming more SIMILAR.

True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

39.

What is a POSITIVE aspect of the shrinking world phenomenon?

a)

Cultural attrition

b)

Greater awareness of other cultures

c)

Climate anxiety as people know more about what is happening globally

d)

Reduced cultural hetereogeniety

40.

The paradox of choice suggests that too much choice leads to what?

a)

Satisfaction

b)

Paralysis and dissatisfaction

c)

Increased happiness

d)

Better decision-making

41.

What is an example of hybrid cuisine?

a)

Sushi

b)

Chicken tikka masala

c)

Beef tacos

d)

Margarita pizza

42.

Which well-known historical event led to the creation of steam engines?

Hint: I R

(a)  

43.

Fill in the blank: The shrinking world phenomenon can lead to cultural ______, where interacting cultures form NEW cultural practices.

a)

imperialism

b)

hybridity

c)

homogenisation

d)

assimilation

44.

The _______ (Hint: P) suggests that the more options we have, the less happy we are.

This is thought to be because it puts pressure on the individual to select an action / product.

a)

Paradigm

b)

Paradox

c)

Parable

d)

Pigeon

45.

The shrinking world phenomenon means you influenced of cultural trends and happenings around the world, which leads to cultural ______, where a NEW culture is created from a mix of others.

a)

diversity

b)

homogenisation

c)

fragmentation

d)

isolation

46.

Word which means being more accomodating about others' cultural preferences because you have a deeper understanding of why issues matter to them?

a)

Tolerance

b)

Ignorance

c)

Belligerence

d)

Aberrance

47.

What is the first stage of the Rostow Model?

a)

Pre-Industrial

b)

High Mass Consumption

c)

Economic Take Off

d)

Traditional Society

48.

Which stage of the Rostow Model is associated with Newly Industrialised Countries?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

49.

What does DTM stand for?

a)

Demographic Transition Model

b)

Development Transition Model

c)

Development Theory Model

d)

Demographic Theory Model

50.

What is a key characteristic of Stage 2 in the Rostow Model?

a)

High birth and death rates

b)

Offshoring of industries

c)

Mechanisation of farming

d)

Focus on knowledge economy

51.

Which stage of the DTM corresponds with Rostow's Stage 3?

a)

Stage 2

b)

Stage 1

c)

Stage 4

d)

Stage 3

52.

What is a significant factor in Stage 2 of the Rostow Model?

a)

High disposable income

b)

Globalisation

c)

TNC input

d)

Urbanisation

53.

What happens in Stage 4 of the Rostow Model?

a)

Countries have low education levels

b)

Countries focus on primary industries

c)

Countries gain international power

d)

Countries experience high birth rates

54.

What is the focus of the Rostow Model?

a)

Environmental sustainability

b)

Economic development

c)

Social indicators

d)

Cultural development

55.

Which stage of the Rostow Model is characterized by a knowledge economy?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 5

c)

Stage 4

d)

Stage 2

56.

What issue was faced by Stage 5 countries during the Covid lockdowns?

a)

Overpopulation

b)

Shortages of basic goods

c)

High birth rates

d)

Lack of education

57.

What is a result of the demographic dividend in DTM Stage 3?

a)

Economic Take Off

b)

High birth rates

c)

Increased death rates

d)

Traditional Society

58.

What is a characteristic of Stage 1 in the DTM?

a)

Mechanised agriculture

b)

High birth and death rates

c)

Knowledge economy

d)

Urbanisation

59.

What does FDI stand for in the context of economic development?

a)

Foreign Direct Investment

b)

Financial Direct Investment

c)

Financial Development Initiative

d)

Foreign Development Index

60.

What is the primary purpose of protectionism?

a)

Reduce the carbon footprints through reduced shipping distances

b)

Shield domestic industries from foreign competition

c)

Promote international trade

d)

Reduce risk of international conflict

61.

What might happen if a country imposes high tariffs on imports?

a)

It will lead to increased imports

b)

Other countries may retaliate with their own tariffs

c)

It will decrease domestic production

62.

Which income level tend to have less leverage in international trade deals and get worse terms?

a)

HICs

b)

MICs

c)

LICs

63.

What do Neo-liberals suggest regarding quotas, tariffs, and subsidies?

a)

Increase them to protect local industries

b)

Remove them to let market forces balance things

c)

Maintain them at current levels

d)

Use them for political leverage on other issues

64.

Word which means only allowing a limited amount of a good to be imported:

a)

Q U O T A

b)

T A R I F F

c)

E M B A R G O

65.

What is the desired trade effect of a country deliberately lowering its currency value?

a)

It makes imports more expensive

b)

It makes exports cheaper and more competitive

c)

It increases domestic inflation

d)

It reduces foreign investment

66.

What is trade without tariffs called?

a)

Free trade

b)

Fair trade

c)

Focused trade

d)

Forward trade

67.

What is a potential consequence of oversupply in a market according to Neoliberalism?

a)

Prices of the product will increase

b)

People will stop making the product

c)

Demand will rise sharply

d)

Supply will remain constant

68.

What role does the IMF play in relation to LICs and protectionism?

a)

It encourages LICs to increase tariffs

b)

It encourages HICs to lower or remove tariffs on LICs

c)

It discourages any form of trade

d)

It promotes isolationist policies

69.

What is one argument against protectionism?

a)

It ensures fair trade

b)

It can lead to job losses in other industries

c)

It promotes global economic stability

d)

It reduces domestic competition

70.

Word beginning with T which describes taxes on imports.

a)

T A R I F F

b)

T A R I F

c)

T A R R I F

d)

T A R R I F F

71.

What is the effect of a high tariff on imported products?

a)

It makes the product cheaper

b)

It makes the product more expensive

72.

Government financial support for local industries to increase skilled labour pools, reduce overhead costs or undercut the production cost is called (Hint: S)

(a)  

73.

Which country recently imposed 145% tariffs on China in an attempt to increase domestic production?

a)

USA

b)

France

c)

Japan

d)

India

74.

What is a trade bloc?

a)

A group of countries that block trade with each other

b)

A group of countries that agree on policies to reduce trade barriers

c)

A type of economic sanction

d)

A military alliance

75.

What do Free Trade Areas agree to abolish?

a)

Foreign investments

b)

Labor laws

c)

Import quotas and tariffs

d)

Export taxes

76.

Which type of poverty is this?

Living below the UN poverty line (currently $2.15 a day)

(a)  

77.

Non-government agencies, including UN branches and global grouping such as the FAO and IMF, but also NGO charities, lobby groups and local initiatives.

a)

Civil society

b)

TNCs

c)

Trade blocs

d)

SEZs

78.

The combination of the formal and informal sectors. One individual may operate in both at once, especially in LICs.

The difficulty in measuring the informal profit can make indicators such as GDP per capita inaccurate.

D___ E_______

(a)  

79.

A composite indicator which uses 4 socioeconomic strands: GNI per capita, life expectancy at birth, mean years of schooling of adults and expected years of schooling for children.

(a)  

80.

Number of consumers required to support the provision of a good or service.

a)

Threshold population

b)

Portal population

c)

Borderline population

d)

Requisite population

81.

Growth of city income from high-tech industries, SMEs and service industries after the loss of secondary manufacturing.

Differs from traditional urbanisation as it tends to happen on greenfield sites on city periphery, focuses on tertiarization and is less polluting.

a)

Reindustrialisation

b)

Deindustrialisation

c)

Industrialisation

d)

Counter-industrialisation

82.

Living on less than 50% of the average wage in your country.

a)

Relative poverty

b)

Absolute poverty

83.

Draw to migrate to big cities due to the glamorous or luxurious lifestyle portrayed as being common there by word of mouth, traditional media or social media.

HINT: B L S

(a)  

84.

The loss of the most mobile sections of an urban area's population resulting in a higher dependency ratio and less tax income.

a)

Brain drain

b)

Gloss loss

c)

Rich ditch

d)

Flutter gutter

85.

Name this missing concept:

Spatial integration, place, power, possibilities, processes

(a)  

86.

Which stage is Singapore on the Clark Fisher Model?

87.

What does the Clark-Fisher Model illustrate?

a)

A) Changes in employment sectors as a country industrializes

b)

B) Changes in population growth

c)

C) Changes in climate patterns

d)

D) Changes in political systems.

88.

Who developed the World System Theory that relates to the core-periphery model?

a)

John Smith

b)

Immanuel Wallerstein

c)

David Harvey

d)

Andre Gunder Frank

89.

What does FDI stand for in the context of economic geography?

a)

Free Trade Investment

b)

Fiscal Dependency Initiative

c)

Financial Development Index

d)

Foreign Direct Investment

90.

Which of the following countries is considered part of Singapore's semi-periphery?

a)

South Africa

b)

Brazil

c)

Japan

d)

Vietnam

91.

What does the term 'brain drain' refer to?

a)

Decrease in population growth

b)

Reduction in educational opportunities

c)

Loss of skilled labor to other regions

d)

Migration of unskilled workers

92.

Fill in the blank: The concept that explains why there are fewer big settlements and more small settlements is known as the ______.

a)

Sphere of influence

b)

Prism of influence

c)

Cylinder of influence

d)

Cube of influence

93.

Which of the following IS a megacity?

a)

London

b)

Kuala Lumpur

c)

Seoul

d)

Sydney

94.

Name for flow of money home from migrants, which can help raise individual families out of the cycle of poverty

(a)  

95.

Which industry category includes services like bus drivers and surgeons?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

96.

Which industry is focused on research and design?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

97.

What is a key feature of the best-paying service jobs?

a)

Physical labor

b)

Knowledge-based expertise

c)

Low skill requirement

d)

High environmental impact

98.

What percentage of the world's population is employed in quaternary industries?

a)

Less than 0.5%

b)

10-15%

c)

25-40%

d)

More than 50%

99.

What type of industry might involve vaccine developers?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

100.

Which industry is likely to involve a software developer?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

101.

Higher employment rates means more consumer spending as people have more ... income

(hint D)

(a)  

102.

How do you spell the name of the phenomenon where jobs in one industry generate jobs in another?

a)

Multyplier effect

b)

Multyplier affect

c)

Multiplier effect

d)

Multiplier affect

103.

It is harder to break out of the cycle of poverty if you suffer from multiple...

(a)  

104.

Match the following

a)

Formal economy and informal economy combined

1.

Dual economy

b)

Street hawkers, shoe-shiners, beggars, thieves, prostitutes

2.

Street economy

c)

Small trade, service establishments and craft workshops that are not officially registered

3.

Informal economy

d)

Large and legally registered business engaged in globalisation.

4.

Formal economy

105.

What is the revolutionary idea behind containerization?

a)

Using different sized containers for each type of cargo

b)

Building ships that can carry only one type of container

c)

Using the same size containers for easy transfer between transport modes

d)

Employing more stevedores to handle cargo

106.

In what year did Malcom McLean first have the idea of containerization?

a)

1937

b)

1956

c)

1980

d)

1965

107.

Fill in the blank: Containerization became a global standard size in the year ____.

a)

1937

b)

1956

c)

1980

d)

1965

108.

Which is the real disadvantage of employing stevedores before containerization?

(the rest are made up lies!)

a)

They required long apprenticeships to learn the necessary skills

b)

It was costly and time-consuming

c)

They had high wages

d)

It required large amounts of fossil fuel energy

109.

What job did Malcolm McLean do that led him to his idea?

a)

A ship captain from Dublin

b)

A New Jersey truck driver

c)

A Boston crane operator

d)

A London dock manager

110.

Fill in the blank: The idea of containerization was to allow goods to 'roro' or ____.

a)

A) Roll on, roll off

b)

B) Run over, run out

c)

C) Rotate, revolve

d)

D) Rest on, rest off

111.

What does 'NIDL' stand for in the context of the document?

a)

National Industrial Development League

b)

New International Division of Labour

c)

National Institute of Dock Labour

d)

New Industrial Docking Logistics

112.

The loss of dockland jobs as a result of containerisation is part of the process of...

a)

Deindustrialisation

b)

Suburbanisation

c)

Protectonism

d)

Gentrification

113.

Name for the employees who had previously loaded and unloaded cargo manually (hint: S)

(a)  

114.

Fill in the blank: The idea of containerization took decades to catch on because ____.

a)

Companies did not replace ships and trucks often

b)

It was too expensive

c)

It was not efficient

115.

What is the primary purpose of protectionism?

a)

Reduce the carbon footprints through reduced shipping distances

b)

Shield domestic industries from foreign competition

c)

Promote international trade

d)

Reduce risk of international conflict

116.

The invention of which technology reduced global circumnavigation to 3 days?

a)

Steam engines

b)

Sailing ships

c)

Turboprop engines

d)

Internet