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Imaging II: LONG: Beam Restriction

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which factor listed in the lesson most directly increases the likelihood of Compton scatter during an X-ray exposure?

a)

Lower kVp settings

b)

Higher kVp settings

c)

Smaller field size

d)

Thinner patient anatomy

2.

According to the lesson, which change happens inside the patient when kVp is raised?

a)

Transmission decreases and photoelectric absorption increases

b)

Transmission increases and photoelectric absorption decreases

c)

Compton scatter decreases and transmission decreases

d)

Photoelectric absorption increases with no change in scatter

3.

Which listed factor increases scatter by enlarging the amount of tissue exposed?

a)

Field size (FS)

b)

Image receptor speed

c)

Source-to-image distance

d)

Collimator light brightness

4.

What effect does increasing kVp have on photoelectric absorption, as stated in the lesson?

a)

It increases because photons have less energy to be stopped

b)

It decreases because photons have more energy to avoid full absorption

c)

It remains unchanged regardless of energy

d)

It fluctuates randomly with patient motion

5.

Which patient characteristic listed contributes to more scatter production?

a)

Lower body thickness

b)

Higher body thickness

c)

Hydration status

d)

Age

6.

When kVp is increased, what happens to the number of photons reaching the image receptor without interacting?

a)

Fewer photons reach due to more absorption

b)

More photons reach due to increased transmission

c)

Photon reach remains the same

d)

Photons are all scattered before reaching

7.

In the lesson’s summary of scatter factors, which variable refers to the energy level of the X-ray beam?

a)

Field size (FS)

b)

kVp

c)

Patient thickness

d)

Volume of irradiated material

8.

Why can increased Compton scatter at higher kVp reduce image quality, based on the lesson?

a)

Scatter photons are fully absorbed in bone

b)

Scatter photons often still reach the image receptor

c)

Scatter photons are blocked by the grid entirely

d)

Scatter photons only occur at low energies

9.

Which statement best describes ‘volume of irradiated material’ as a scatter factor?

a)

It is determined solely by kVp

b)

It increases with larger field size and thicker patient anatomy

c)

It decreases when patient thickness increases

d)

It only applies to pediatric imaging

10.

According to the lesson, raising kVp leads to which combination of interaction changes?

a)

Decreased transmission, increased photoelectric absorption, decreased scatter

b)

Increased transmission, decreased photoelectric absorption, increased scatter

c)

Increased transmission, increased photoelectric absorption, decreased scatter

d)

Decreased transmission, decreased photoelectric absorption, increased scatter

11.

Which primary reason for using beam restriction directly supports reducing patient exposure during radiographic imaging?

a)

It narrows the field to limit irradiated tissue, lowering patient dose

b)

It increases kVp so more photons reach the image receptor

c)

It lengthens exposure time to average out motion

d)

It widens the field to capture more anatomy in one shot

12.

Beam restriction most helps image quality by addressing which specific problem?

a)

Reducing scatter radiation that reaches the image receptor

b)

Maximizing photoelectric absorption in all tissues

c)

Eliminating transmission of primary photons

d)

Boosting overall photon production at the tube

13.

When the beam is restricted (collimated), what change occurs to the x‑ray beam that contributes to both image clarity and dose management?

a)

The beam becomes hardened by removing low‑energy photons that would be absorbed

b)

The beam becomes softer with more low‑energy photons for higher contrast

c)

The beam gains more divergent angles to cover a larger area

d)

The beam converts to pure photoelectric interactions only

14.

Which change in exposure settings is most likely to increase the amount of Compton scatter during an X‑ray?

a)

Raising kVp while maintaining field size and patient thickness

b)

Lowering kVp with no other changes

c)

Collimating to a smaller field size at constant kVp

d)

Using a thinner patient at constant kVp

15.

Compton scatter increases as the irradiated material volume increases. Which action best represents an increase in irradiated volume?

a)

Expanding the field size to include more anatomy

b)

Reducing mAs while keeping kVp constant

c)

Switching to a higher grid ratio

d)

Using a smaller receptor size with tight collimation

16.

When kilovoltage peak (kVp) is increased, which overall image contrast change is most likely to occur?

a)

Shorter scale of contrast with more black-and-white separation

b)

Longer scale of contrast with more shades of gray

c)

No change in contrast regardless of tissue type

d)

Contrast becomes entirely dependent on mAs

17.

Which statement best explains why higher kVp produces more gray tones in an image?

a)

More photons are absorbed via photoelectric effect, creating bright white areas

b)

Fewer photons are absorbed, and transmission varies with tissue thickness and density

c)

Compton scatter is eliminated, so only transmitted photons reach the detector

d)

Digital post-processing removes all differences among tissues

18.

At higher kVp, what happens to photoelectric absorption within the patient?

a)

It increases, causing more bright white areas

b)

It decreases, reducing the strong white areas

c)

It remains unchanged across tissues

d)

It becomes the dominant interaction over Compton scatter

19.

Which statement about transmitted photons at high kVp is accurate?

a)

All transmitted photons reach the image receptor with the same intensity

b)

Transmitted photons arrive with different strengths, recorded as different gray levels

c)

Only photons that interact via photoelectric effect are transmitted

d)

Intensity differences disappear after digital post-processing

20.

Which tissue allows the fewest photons to reach the image receptor at high kVp, producing the whitest appearance?

a)

Air

b)

Fat

c)

Thick muscle

d)

Bone

21.

Why does high kVp tend to 'wash out the big differences' in radiographic images?

a)

Because Compton scatter is eliminated, leaving uniform exposure

b)

Because photoelectric absorption is reduced, decreasing bright white areas and increasing gray tones

c)

Because all tissues transmit identical amounts of X-rays at high energy

d)

Because detector dynamic range is narrowed at higher photon energy

22.

Which statement best describes how increasing kVp affects patient dose when image brightness is maintained?

a)

Patient dose generally decreases because fewer photons are absorbed and mAs can be reduced.

b)

Patient dose generally increases because photons have less energy and are absorbed more.

c)

Patient dose is unchanged because kVp does not influence absorption.

d)

Patient dose fluctuates randomly and is not linked to kVp or mAs.

23.

When kVp is increased, which interaction in the patient becomes less likely?

a)

Photoelectric absorption

b)

Compton scatter

c)

Coherent scatter

d)

Bremsstrahlung production in tissue

24.

If technologists raise kVp and lower mAs to keep image brightness constant, what is the typical outcome for patient dose?

a)

Dose decreases due to reduced photon absorption and fewer total photons.

b)

Dose increases because the beam is weaker and more photons are stopped.

c)

Dose stays the same because kVp and mAs cancel each other perfectly.

d)

Dose increases only in digital imaging, not with film.

25.

Which relationship between kVp and mAs is commonly used to maintain image brightness while reducing dose?

a)

Increase kVp and proportionally decrease mAs.

b)

Decrease both kVp and mAs.

c)

Increase both kVp and mAs.

d)

Decrease kVp and increase mAs.

26.

Compared to lower kVp, a higher kVp beam will produce which general effect on transmission through the body?

a)

More transmission with fewer absorbed photons

b)

Less transmission with more absorbed photons

c)

No change in transmission

d)

More transmission but with increased photoelectric absorption

27.

How does increasing kVp typically influence image contrast on film-screen systems?

a)

It creates a longer scale of contrast with more shades of gray.

b)

It creates a shorter scale of contrast with pure black and white areas.

c)

It has no effect on contrast.

d)

It increases edge enhancement only in digital systems.

28.

Why is the contrast change with increased kVp less dramatic in digital imaging compared to film?

a)

Post-processing can adjust contrast after acquisition.

b)

Digital detectors inherently block photoelectric absorption.

c)

Digital systems require higher mAs that offsets kVp effects.

d)

Scatter is eliminated by the detector design.

29.

What visual outcome is associated with lower kVp on image contrast, as described in the material?

a)

Shorter scale of contrast with fewer grays and more pure black and white.

b)

Longer scale of contrast with many shades of gray.

c)

No visible change in contrast at all.

d)

Contrast shift toward mid-gray only.

30.

When kilovoltage peak (kVp) is decreased, which photon–matter interaction increases within the patient, contributing to a shorter scale of contrast?

a)

Photoelectric absorption

b)

Coherent scattering

c)

Pair production

d)

Compton scatter

31.

Which outcome is most directly associated with lowering kVp in diagnostic radiography?

a)

Decreased transmission of X-ray photons

b)

Increased beam penetration through all tissues

c)

Greater production of Compton scatter

d)

Longer scale of contrast

32.

A radiographer reduces kVp while keeping mAs constant. What is the expected change in patient dose?

a)

Dose increases because more absorption occurs

b)

Dose decreases because more photons are transmitted

c)

Dose is unchanged because kVp only affects contrast

d)

Dose decreases because Compton scatter rises

33.

Lower kVp typically produces what kind of radiographic contrast?

a)

Shorter scale of contrast with more black-and-white differences

b)

Longer scale of contrast with many gray tones

c)

No effect on contrast compared with higher kVp

d)

Contrast determined solely by mAs, not kVp

34.

Which statement best contrasts photoelectric absorption and Compton scatter when kVp is decreased?

a)

Photoelectric absorption increases; Compton scatter decreases

b)

Both photoelectric absorption and Compton scatter increase

c)

Photoelectric absorption decreases; Compton scatter increases

d)

Neither process changes appreciably

35.

According to the concept of volume of irradiated material, which change reduces scatter and patient dose?

a)

Collimating to a smaller field size

b)

Using a larger field size

c)

Increasing kVp without adjusting mAs

d)

Imaging thicker patients with the same technique

36.

Which factor generally requires higher technique (kVp or mAs) and can increase patient dose?

a)

Greater patient thickness

b)

Smaller field size

c)

Lower tissue density

d)

Use of anti-scatter grids

37.

What is the effect of denser tissues on X-ray interactions and exposure requirements?

a)

They absorb more X-rays, often requiring more exposure to produce a clear image

b)

They transmit more X-rays, allowing lower exposure for clarity

c)

They primarily increase Compton scatter at lower kVp, reducing exposure needs

d)

They do not affect exposure requirements

38.

When field size is increased, what happens to scatter and image contrast?

a)

Scatter increases and contrast decreases

b)

Scatter decreases and contrast increases

c)

Scatter and contrast both increase

d)

Scatter and contrast both decrease

39.

Reducing field size has what combined effect on remnant radiation and contrast?

a)

Less remnant radiation reaches the receptor, and contrast becomes a shorter scale

b)

More remnant radiation reaches the receptor, and contrast becomes a longer scale

c)

Remnant radiation is unchanged, and contrast is unaffected

d)

Remnant radiation increases while contrast becomes shorter scale

40.

What adjustment is needed to maintain proper image receptor exposure when field size is decreased without changing other factors?

a)

Increase mAs to compensate for fewer photons

b)

Decrease kVp to boost transmission

c)

Use a larger field size to add scatter

d)

Add filtration to raise remnant radiation

41.

Why does the image receptor exposure go down when the field size is collimated to be smaller?

a)

The limited beam delivers fewer photons to the receptor

b)

Smaller field size increases scatter that blocks the IR

c)

Smaller field size removes photoelectric interactions

d)

Beam hardening increases photon energy reaching the IR

42.

Which statement best explains why thicker body parts produce more scatter in diagnostic X-ray imaging?

a)

Thicker parts reduce beam attenuation, creating fewer photon interactions

b)

Thicker parts require the X-ray beam to travel through a larger volume, increasing chances for photons to scatter

c)

Thicker parts have fewer atoms per unit volume, lowering Compton interaction probability

d)

Thicker parts increase photoelectric absorption only, which eliminates scatter

43.

In terms of tissue characteristics, which factor primarily increases the likelihood of Compton interactions and thus scatter?

a)

Lower atomic packing with fewer electrons

b)

Higher tissue density with more atoms packed together

c)

Greater beam collimation with a smaller field size

d)

Reduced patient thickness with less path length

44.

A technologist narrows the X-ray field size using collimation while imaging a dense, thick body region. What combined effect on scatter should be expected?

a)

Scatter will increase because smaller field size adds more interactions

b)

Scatter will decrease because collimation reduces the volume irradiated despite thickness and density

c)

Scatter will remain unchanged because collimation only affects dose, not scatter

d)

Scatter will decrease only if patient thickness is reduced, not with collimation

45.

Which statement accurately connects patient thickness and tissue density to scatter production?

a)

Both thickness and density increase the number of interactions the X-ray beam undergoes as it passes through the body, and more interactions produce more scatter

b)

Thickness increases interactions but density decreases them, resulting in less scatter overall

c)

Density increases photoelectric absorption exclusively, eliminating scatter despite thickness

d)

Neither thickness nor density affects the number of X-ray interactions, so scatter remains constant

46.

Recall: When field size is increased during radiography, what is the most direct effect on scatter radiation within the patient?

a)

Scatter decreases because fewer photons interact

b)

Scatter increases because a larger volume of tissue is irradiated

c)

Scatter is unchanged because beam energy stays the same

d)

Scatter first decreases then increases as mAs is adjusted

47.

Recall: How does decreasing field size typically affect image contrast, assuming other factors remain constant?

a)

Contrast decreases due to more scatter

b)

Contrast increases because less scatter reaches the detector

c)

Contrast is unaffected by field size

d)

Contrast fluctuates unpredictably

48.

Skill/Concept: You reduce the collimated field size by half to limit scatter. To maintain similar image brightness with a digital receptor, what general adjustment to mAs is appropriate?

a)

Increase mAs to compensate for reduced remnant radiation

b)

Decrease mAs because smaller fields create more remnant radiation

c)

Keep mAs the same; field size changes do not affect remnant radiation

d)

Switch to higher kVp instead of changing mAs

49.

Recall: What is the relationship between scatter and image contrast described in the material?

a)

More scatter lowers contrast

b)

More scatter raises contrast

c)

Scatter and contrast are unrelated

d)

Scatter only affects spatial resolution, not contrast

50.

Skill/Concept: A technologist opens collimation to include a larger area. Which trade-off best describes the change if mAs is not adjusted?

a)

More remnant radiation reaches the receptor, increasing brightness but decreasing contrast

b)

Less remnant radiation reaches the receptor, decreasing brightness and increasing contrast

c)

No change in remnant radiation or contrast

d)

Remnant radiation increases while contrast also increases

51.

Recall: What term describes the portion of the X-ray beam that emerges from the patient and carries image-forming information to the detector?

a)

Primary radiation

b)

Remnant radiation

c)

Backscatter radiation

d)

Leakage radiation

52.

Skill/Concept: When field size is decreased, which combination of outcomes is most accurate?

a)

Decreased scatter, increased contrast, and need to raise mAs to maintain exposure

b)

Increased scatter, decreased contrast, and need to lower mAs

c)

Decreased scatter, decreased contrast, and no mAs change

d)

Increased scatter, increased contrast, and need to raise mAs

53.

Skill/Concept: In planning an exposure, you choose a larger field size to ensure coverage of anatomy. To preserve contrast, which additional action aligns with best practice?

a)

Lower kVp and increase mAs to offset scatter from the larger field

b)

Use appropriate beam-restricting devices and consider anti-scatter grids; adjust mAs to maintain exposure

c)

Increase SID to reduce scatter and keep mAs constant

d)

Remove filtration to allow more low-energy photons

54.

Which statement best describes how increased patient thickness influences scatter radiation during X-ray imaging?

a)

Thicker body parts produce more scatter because more tissue is irradiated.

b)

Thicker body parts produce less scatter because the beam diverges less.

c)

Thicker body parts have no effect on scatter; only kVp matters.

d)

Thicker body parts eliminate scatter by absorbing all photons.

55.

In radiographic imaging, what is the primary reason denser body tissues contribute to scatter?

a)

They contain higher electron density, increasing the probability of interactions.

b)

They transmit more photons due to lower attenuation.

c)

They reduce Compton interactions by lowering electron binding energy.

d)

They force the beam to narrow, reducing field size.

56.

Which interaction is more likely in dense, high–electron-density tissues when diagnostic kVp is used?

a)

Compton scatter predominates due to more available electrons.

b)

Coherent scatter predominates because of low-energy photons.

c)

No interactions occur; photons pass through unchanged.

d)

Pair production predominates at diagnostic energies.

57.

How does tissue density affect photoelectric absorption at typical diagnostic X-ray energies?

a)

Photoelectric absorption increases in denser tissues because attenuation probability rises.

b)

Photoelectric absorption decreases in denser tissues due to fewer electrons.

c)

Photoelectric absorption is unaffected by density and depends only on SID.

d)

Photoelectric absorption disappears when kVp is increased.

58.

A radiographer compares imaging a thin wrist to a thick abdomen at the same kVp. Which outcome is most accurate?

a)

The abdomen generates more scatter because its larger thickness exposes more tissue.

b)

The wrist generates more scatter because bone attenuates completely.

c)

Both produce equal scatter if mAs is unchanged.

d)

Scatter is determined only by grid ratio, not patient thickness.

59.

Which best explains why reducing field size lowers scatter in dense tissues?

a)

Fewer tissue volumes are irradiated, reducing the number of potential Compton interactions.

b)

It increases beam energy, lowering attenuation.

c)

It raises patient electron density, improving absorption.

d)

It changes SID, which eliminates secondary radiation.

60.

When imaging a region with higher electron density, what change in image quality is expected if scatter is not controlled?

a)

Reduced image contrast due to increased fog from Compton scatter.

b)

Improved sharpness because more photons reach the detector.

c)

No change in visibility of detail because density is unrelated to scatter.

d)

Shorter exposure time compensates for scatter effects automatically.

61.

Which statement correctly contrasts scatter behavior between thick soft tissue and thin soft tissue of similar composition?

a)

Thick soft tissue produces more scatter because a larger volume is irradiated.

b)

Thin soft tissue produces more scatter due to lower atomic number.

c)

Both produce identical scatter regardless of irradiated volume.

d)

Neither produces scatter; only bone causes scatter.

62.

Which statement best describes the primary purpose of a compression device in radiographic imaging?

a)

To increase patient thickness and scatter radiation

b)

To reduce patient thickness for improved image quality

c)

To amplify X-ray tube output without changing exposure

d)

To replace collimation for field size control

63.

When patient thickness is reduced using compression, what is the most direct effect on patient dose?

a)

Dose increases because more photons reach the detector

b)

Dose decreases due to less tissue needing exposure

c)

Dose remains unchanged because mAs is constant

d)

Dose fluctuates unpredictably

64.

Which benefit of compression contributes most to improved spatial resolution?

a)

Uniform tissue thickness reducing motion and geometric unsharpness

b)

Higher kVp creating shorter wavelength radiation

c)

Wider field size increasing coverage

d)

Increased scatter improving contrast

65.

In applying compression, which scenario illustrates the concept of creating more uniform tissue thickness?

a)

Compressing the breast to spread overlapping structures in mammography

b)

Increasing SID to reduce magnification in chest radiography

c)

Using a grid to absorb scatter in abdominal imaging

d)

Turning off the AEC to manually set exposure

66.

Which clinical application most commonly relies on a dedicated compression device to optimize image quality and lower dose?

a)

Computed tomography of the head

b)

Mammography of the breast

c)

Fluoroscopy of the gastrointestinal tract

d)

MRI of the knee

67.

Which best describes the primary function of beam restrictors in radiographic imaging?

a)

To increase field size and capture more anatomy

b)

To control scatter by reducing the field size, improving image clarity

c)

To raise patient dose to enhance signal strength

d)

To blur edges to create a softer contrast

68.

Reducing the field size with a beam restrictor most directly leads to which outcome for the image?

a)

More scatter reaching the detector

b)

Less scatter and a cleaner image

c)

Longer scale of contrast with more grays

d)

Lower visibility of detail

69.

When beam restrictors reduce scatter, what happens to contrast and detail visibility?

a)

Contrast scale becomes shorter and detail visibility improves

b)

Contrast scale becomes longer and detail visibility decreases

c)

Contrast remains unchanged while detail visibility worsens

d)

Contrast becomes unpredictable and detail visibility is unaffected

70.

The collimator’s bottom shutters help reduce penumbra. In radiographic terms, what is penumbra?

a)

The crisp, well-defined edge of an image

b)

The blurry, fuzzy edge that appears around the outside of an image

c)

Noise produced by detector electronics

d)

Motion artifact caused by patient movement

71.

How do the collimator’s bottom shutters sharpen the edges of structures?

a)

By widening the beam near the patient to include more anatomy

b)

By tightening the beam near the patient, reducing geometric unsharpness

c)

By increasing exposure time to boost signal

d)

By moving the source farther away to magnify the image

72.

Which device provides an adjustable field size to limit the primary X-ray beam and is standard in modern radiography suites?

a)

Aperture diaphragm

b)

Fixed cone

c)

Variable collimator

d)

Cylindrical extension

73.

Aperture diaphragms primarily function to:

a)

Create a fan-shaped beam for computed tomography

b)

Provide a simple, fixed opening that restricts the beam close to the tube

c)

Automatically track the image receptor and set field size

d)

Filter low-energy photons using added metal plates

74.

Cones and cylinders are best selected when the goal is to:

a)

Produce the widest possible field without penumbra

b)

Shape the beam into a more confined, geometric field with reduced scatter

c)

Eliminate off-focus radiation produced outside the focal spot

d)

Replace the need for upper shutters in a collimator

75.

Which statement correctly matches ancillary beam-restricting devices with their typical use?

a)

Lead blockers or masks are used to limit exposure in areas adjacent to the anatomy of interest

b)

Compensating filters act as collimators by closing shutters around the field

c)

Grids are primary devices for shaping the beam before it leaves the tube housing

d)

Aprons adjust field size automatically through electronic feedback

76.

Off-focus (leakage) radiation occurs when X-rays are produced from parts of the tube outside the focal spot. What component of the collimator helps prevent these stray photons from reaching the image receptor?

a)

Lower shutters inside the light field

b)

Upper shutters positioned near the tube window

c)

Electronic automatic exposure control (AEC) sensors

d)

Aluminum inherent filtration

77.

Which component of the collimator is closest to the x-ray tube inside the housing and is not visible to the technologist?

a)

Upper shutters

b)

Bottom shutters

c)

Mirror

d)

Central ray marker

78.

What is the primary purpose of the upper shutters in a collimator?

a)

Reduce off-focus (leakage) radiation

b)

Shape the x-ray field to match the light field

c)

Mark the central ray on the image receptor

d)

Increase the exposure field size

79.

According to the instructional text, which function is performed by the bottom shutters?

a)

Control the size and shape of the exposure field

b)

Reduce leakage radiation from the tube housing

c)

Align the mirror for the light field

d)

Calibrate the source-to-image distance

80.

Which action of rectilinear collimation contributes to a reduction in penumbra?

a)

Controlling the size and shape of the exposure field with adjustable shutters

b)

Increasing off-focus radiation to fill the field edges

c)

Misaligning the mirror to widen the light field

d)

Removing the central ray marker to prevent sharp borders

81.

What is the function of the mirror inside the collimator regarding the light field?

a)

Reflects light to show the X-ray field before exposure

b)

Absorbs high-energy photons to reduce patient dose

c)

Marks the central ray on the detector after exposure

d)

Shapes the x-ray beam by closing the bottom shutters

82.

If the collimator mirror is misaligned, what is the most likely consequence?

a)

The light field will not match the actual X-ray field, causing inaccurate positioning

b)

The x-ray beam will automatically increase filtration, reducing dose

c)

The central ray will be turned off, preventing exposure

d)

The exposure field will become larger but stay correctly aligned

83.

Quality control requires the light field and X-ray beam alignment to match within what tolerance of the SID (source-to-image distance)?

a)

±2% of SID

b)

±5% of SID

c)

±1% of SID

d)

±10% of SID

84.

Besides visualization, what additional effect does the collimator mirror contribute to the imaging chain?

a)

Adds a small amount of inherent filtration to remove low-energy photons

b)

Increases off-focus radiation to improve beam intensity

c)

Expands the exposure field to include peripheral anatomy

d)

Marks the central ray directly on the patient’s skin

85.

Which statement best defines off-focus radiation in X-ray imaging?

a)

Photons produced exactly at the focal spot and directed by the anode angle

b)

Stray photons generated outside the focal spot that can reach the image receptor

c)

Backscatter from the patient that returns to the tube housing

d)

Electrons missing the anode target and striking the tube window

86.

What is the primary purpose of the upper shutters in the collimator?

a)

To shape the light field for patient positioning only

b)

To absorb off-focus radiation before it reaches the bottom shutters

c)

To set the automatic exposure control (AEC) cells

d)

To determine the final size of the X-ray field at the patient

87.

How do the bottom shutters contribute to image formation?

a)

They block inherent filtration to increase exposure

b)

They define the X-ray field size at the patient, improving contrast by limiting scatter

c)

They prevent backscatter from the table from reaching the tube

d)

They mark the central ray and align the beam with the image receptor

88.

Which effect results when off-focus radiation is not controlled?

a)

Sharper edges and higher spatial resolution

b)

Reduced patient dose due to smaller field size

c)

Fogging of the image that decreases contrast

d)

Elimination of motion blur

89.

Inherent filtration in the tube assembly refers to which of the following?

a)

Filtration provided by materials already within the tube housing that harden the beam

b)

Additional filters placed by the technologist in front of the patient

c)

Removal of all low-energy photons by the bottom shutters

d)

A setting on the console that controls AEC timing

90.

Which collimator component primarily improves image contrast by limiting the area exposed on the patient?

a)

Upper shutters

b)

Bottom shutters

c)

Inherent filtration

d)

Central ray marker

91.

A technologist notices increased edge fog around the image. Which adjustment is most likely to reduce this artifact based on collimator design?

a)

Tighten the bottom shutters to reduce field size

b)

Disable inherent filtration to increase beam penetration

c)

Open the upper shutters wider to allow more light

d)

Increase SID to magnify the beam penumbra

92.

Which statement correctly distinguishes the roles of the upper versus bottom shutters?

a)

Upper shutters set the clinical field size, bottom shutters block light reflections

b)

Upper shutters control off-focus radiation; bottom shutters define the patient field size

c)

Upper shutters mark the central ray; bottom shutters align AEC cells

d)

Upper shutters reduce scatter from the patient; bottom shutters reduce backscatter from the table

93.

Which collimator component reflects the lamp’s light to create the projected light field used for positioning?

a)

Secondary shutters

b)

Mirror inside the collimator

c)

Automatic exposure control (AEC) sensor

d)

Tube housing lining

94.

During quality control testing, proper light field alignment ensures what primary outcome for radiographic exposures?

a)

Accurate correspondence between light field and x-ray field

b)

Reduction of tube current fluctuations

c)

Automatic selection of kVp

d)

Elimination of all scatter radiation

95.

The collimator mirror provides inherent filtration. What is the main effect of this inherent filtration on the x-ray beam?

a)

It increases beam divergence

b)

It absorbs low-energy photons before they exit the tube

c)

It amplifies tube output by reflecting x-rays

d)

It narrows the focal spot size

96.

Central ray marking on the collimator light field serves which purpose during setup?

a)

Shows the boundary of the primary x-ray field

b)

Indicates the beam’s perpendicular center for precise centering

c)

Displays the position of AEC detectors

d)

Marks where the grid should be placed

97.

AEC sensors are typically located within the imaging chain. When using the collimator, what must be ensured regarding AEC and field limits?

a)

AEC sensors must be outside the field to prevent saturation

b)

The collimated field should cover the selected AEC detectors appropriately

c)

AEC sensors determine shutter blade position automatically, so alignment is unnecessary

d)

AEC cannot be used with collimation

98.

Automatic field adjustment features on some collimators are designed to do what?

a)

Lock exposure time at a preset value

b)

Match the light field size to the image receptor dimensions

c)

Change the focal spot based on patient thickness

d)

Switch between manual and AEC modes

99.

Which quality control check verifies that the light field edges correspond to the actual x-ray field within permissible tolerance?

a)

Linearity test

b)

Half-value layer measurement

c)

Light-to-radiation field congruence test

d)

Focal spot resolution test

100.

If the light field is misaligned with the x-ray field due to mirror angulation error, what is the most appropriate corrective action?

a)

Increase mAs to compensate for exposure loss

b)

Recalibrate or adjust the collimator mirror alignment

c)

Replace the grid with a higher ratio

d)

Disable AEC and switch to manual technique