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HESI 2

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which clinical finding is most characteristic of acute inflammation?

a)

Cyanosis

b)

Redness, warmth, swelling, and pain

c)

Low blood pressure

d)

Absent pulses

2.

A CBC shows an increased number of band neutrophils. This is known as:

a)

Hemolysis

b)

Shift to the right

c)

Shift to the left

d)

Pancytopenia

3.

Which WBCs arrive FIRST at the site of inflammation?

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Monocytes

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Eosinophils

4.

A client with chronic inflammation will have prolonged activity of which cells?

a)

Platelets only

b)

Macrophages

c)

Basophils

d)

RBCs

5.

Which age group has reduced inflammatory response?

a)

Adolescents

b)

Newborns and older adults

c)

Middle-aged adults

d)

Pregnant individuals only

6.

Which factor increases a client’s risk for inadequate inflammatory response?

a)

Normal nutrition

b)

Clean living environment

c)

Poor nutrition and low socioeconomic status

d)

High protein intake

7.

Which is part of primary prevention for inflammation?

a)

Using steroids when sick

b)

Complete physical rest

c)

Hand hygiene and safety equipment

d)

Daily antibiotic use

8.

Which intervention is included in RICE therapy for acute inflammation?

a)

Warm compress immediately

b)

Elevation of injured area

c)

High-impact exercise

d)

Full weight-bearing activity

9.

Which assessment finding suggests systemic inflammation?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Fever

d)

Pale skin

10.

Which diagnostic test specifically assesses for inflammatory activity?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

ESR or CRP

c)

Platelet count only

d)

BNP

11.

In peptic ulcer disease, pain occurring 1–2 hours after meals suggests:

a)

Duodenal ulcer

b)

Gastric ulcer

c)

Reflux disease only

d)

Colitis

12.

In peptic ulcer disease, pain 2–5 hours after meals suggests:

a)

Gastric ulcer

b)

Duodenal ulcer

c)

Diverticulitis

d)

Constipation

13.

Which finding is consistent with GI bleeding in peptic ulcer disease?

(a)  

14.

A rigid abdomen and severe sudden upper abdominal pain indicate which complication of PUD?

a)

Perforation

b)

Constipation

c)

Gastric outlet obstruction only

d)

Mild irritation

15.

A client with gastric outlet obstruction may present with:

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Belching and vomiting

c)

Pain relieved by eating

d)

Black stool only

16.

Which medication class reduces stomach acid by blocking proton pumps?

a)

Antacids

b)

PPIs

c)

NSAIDs

d)

Antibiotics

17.

When treating H. pylori, which regimen is appropriate?

a)

Single antacid dose

b)

Triple therapy with antibiotics + PPI

c)

NSAIDs + PPI

d)

Steroids + H2 blocker

18.

Which diet recommendation helps prevent PUD irritation?

a)

Increase spicy foods

b)

Carbonated beverages

c)

Avoid alcohol and spicy foods

d)

Eat high-fat meals

19.

Clinical manifestations of cholecystitis often include:

a)

LUQ pain only

b)

RUQ pain and right shoulder pain

c)

Pain relieved by fatty foods

d)

Complete absence of nausea

20.

A client with cholecystitis may have which complication?

a)

Pancreatitis

b)

Dehydration only

21.

Which hepatitis type is transmitted via the fecal-oral route?

a)

Hepatitis C

b)

Hepatitis D

c)

Hepatitis A

d)

Hepatitis B

22.

Which lab result indicates acute Hepatitis A infection?

a)

Anti-HAV IgG only

b)

Anti-HAV IgM (correct)

23.

Hepatitis B can be transmitted through:

a)

Airborne droplets

b)

Blood and body fluids

c)

Contaminated vegetables only

d)

Simple skin contact

24.

A client tests positive for HBsAg. This indicates:

a)

Immunity from vaccine

b)

Immunity from past infection

c)

Active Hepatitis B infection

d)

Negative Hep B status

25.

Which hepatitis virus has **no vaccine** but **has a cure** with direct-acting antivirals?

a)

Hepatitis E

b)

Hepatitis C

c)

Hepatitis A

d)

Hepatitis B

26.

Hepatitis C is most commonly associated with:

a)

Sharing needles

b)

Airborne transmission

27.

Chronic hepatitis often presents with:

a)

Rapid weight gain

b)

Jaundice, spider angiomas, ascites

c)

Clear urine

d)

Increased appetite

28.

Which symptom is characteristic of acute hepatitis?

a)

Cold intolerance

b)

Clay-colored stool

c)

Red urine

d)

Hypertension

29.

Which liver function tests increase with hepatitis?

a)

AST and ALT

b)

Amylase and lipase

c)

BNP and troponin

d)

TSH only

30.

Management for Hepatitis A focuses mainly on:

a)

Antiviral injections

b)

Rest and supportive care

31.

Clients with chronic hepatitis should avoid:

a)

Milk and dairy

b)

Alcohol

c)

Fluids

d)

Protein

32.

Which finding indicates worsening hepatitis?

a)

Improving appetite

b)

Decreasing bilirubin

c)

Increasing jaundice

d)

Clear urine and dark stool

33.

Cholecystitis pain often radiates to:

a)

Left shoulder

b)

Right shoulder/scapula

c)

Lower back

d)

Forehead

34.

Which diagnostic test is commonly used to visualize gallbladder inflammation?

a)

CT of the brain

b)

Colonoscopy

35.

Which diagnostic test is most appropriate for cholecystitis?

a)

CT scan

b)

MRI

c)

Ultrasound

d)

Chest x-ray

36.

A client with cholecystitis should avoid which foods?

a)

High-fat meals

b)

Whole grains

c)

Fruits

d)

Water

37.

Which enzyme levels are elevated in pancreatitis?

a)

AST and ALT only

b)

Amylase and lipase

c)

BNP and CK-MB

d)

TSH and T4

38.

A major complication of pancreatitis is:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Pseudocyst

c)

COPD

d)

Bowel perforation only

39.

Which clinical manifestation is MOST associated with pancreatitis?

a)

Pain relieved by food

b)

Midline chest pain

40.

Nursing care for pancreatitis includes:

a)

Encouraging early meals

b)

Maintaining NPO and hydration

c)

Allowing high-fat snacks

d)

Discontinuing all IV fluids

41.

Which client is at highest risk for pancreatitis?

a)

Older adult with arthritis

b)

Client with gallbladder disease

c)

Client with constipation

d)

Client with UTI

42.

Which finding is an expected clinical manifestation of acute inflammation?

a)

Redness and swelling at the affected site

b)

Decreased blood flow to the area

c)

Pallor and coolness of the skin

d)

Absence of pain or discomfort

43.

Which of the following is a classic sign of inflammation?

a)

Cool skin

b)

Pale color

c)

Warmth at the site

d)

Cyanotic tissue

44.

What is the FIRST step in the inflammatory process after tissue injury?

a)

Platelet plug formation

b)

Chemical mediator release

c)

Macrophage arrival

d)

Collagen deposition

45.

During inflammation, which mediator contributes to pain and vasodilation?

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Histamine

c)

Albumin

d)

Dopamine

46.

A patient with acute inflammation develops pus. This is caused by:

a)

Platelets

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Dead neutrophils

d)

Dead RBCs

47.

Which type of inflammation lasts months to years?

a)

Acute

b)

Chronic

c)

Subacute

d)

Allergic

48.

Which type of inflammation is long-lasting?

a)

A) Acute

b)

B) Secondary

c)

C) Chronic

d)

D) Allergic

49.

A newborn has a reduced inflammatory response due to:

a)

High neutrophil count

b)

Low neutrophil and monocyte function

c)

Excessive immune response

d)

Elevated lymphocyte activity

50.

A client presents with fever, malaise, and increased WBC count. These are:

a)

Metabolic symptoms

b)

Systemic inflammatory responses

c)

Renal symptoms

d)

Neurologic changes

51.

What is the priority intervention to prevent inflammation-related injury?

a)

Prolonged immobility

b)

Avoiding hand hygiene

c)

Using appropriate safety equipment

d)

Increasing sun exposure

52.

Which complication can occur when the inflammatory response is excessively severe?

a)

Organ failure

b)

Mild fever

c)

Improved healing

d)

Decreased blood flow

53.

Which of the following is a consequence of inflammation?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Increased tissue damage

c)

Dehydration only

d)

Rapid bone growth

54.

Which population is at higher risk for altered inflammatory response?

a)

Adult athletes

b)

Elderly adults

c)

Young adults

d)

Teenagers

55.

Inflammation assessment includes checking for:

a)

Tachypnea only

b)

Warmth, pain, edema, redness

c)

Hyperreflexia

d)

Cyanosis

56.

ESR and CRP are used to:

a)

Diagnose fractures

b)

Measure inflammatory activity

c)

Assess kidney function

d)

Determine liver enlargement

57.

Immobilization for inflammation management helps by:

a)

Reducing movement and allowing tissues to heal

b)

Increasing blood flow to the area

c)

Promoting muscle growth

d)

Accelerating joint stiffness

58.

Immobilization helps inflammation by:

a)

Increasing tissue workload

b)

Reducing movement and promoting healing

c)

Decreasing circulation permanently

d)

Increasing inflammation

59.

NSAIDs help inflammation by:

a)

Increasing prostaglandin production

b)

Blocking prostaglandins

c)

Increasing clot formation

d)

Reducing platelet activity

60.

Steroids decrease inflammation by:

a)

Suppressing immune response

b)

Increasing lymphocyte activation

c)

Increasing tissue edema

d)

Increasing fever

61.

A client with IBD is prescribed biologic therapy. What is a key risk?

a)

Hyperreflexia

b)

Opportunistic infections

c)

High testosterone

d)

Hypersensitivity to oxygen

62.

A UC client reports blurred vision and joint pain. The nurse recognizes these as:

a)

Symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus

b)

Signs of dehydration

c)

Indications of hypoglycemia

d)

Manifestations of hypertension

63.

Which of the following is a common feature in gastrointestinal diseases?

a)

Unrelated symptoms

b)

Extraintestinal manifestations

c)

Cardiac involvement

d)

Liver failure signs

64.

In Crohn’s disease, the intestinal pattern with normal tissue between diseased areas is called:

a)

Linear lesions

b)

Skip lesions

c)

Patch lesions

d)

Uniform lesions

65.

UC inflammation begins in the:

a)

Cecum

b)

Stomach

c)

Rectum and ascends

d)

Esophagus

66.

Deep, longitudinal ulcerations giving a “cobblestone appearance” occur in:

a)

UC

b)

Crohn’s disease

c)

IBS

d)

Pancreatitis

67.

Which complication is associated with ulcerative colitis during severe flares?

a)

Toxic megacolon

b)

Kidney calculus

c)

Gallstones

d)

Pancreatic cyst

68.

Clients with IBD are at increased risk for which nutritional problem?

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Malabsorption

c)

Excessive protein storage

d)

High potassium levels

69.

Which diagnostic test visualizes the colon after instilling contrast material?

a)

Ultrasound

b)

Barium enema

c)

CT angiography

d)

Chest x-ray

70.

After a barium enema, which complication must be prevented?

a)

Urinary retention

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Constipation and obstruction

d)

Kidney infection

71.

In Crohn’s disease, strictures can cause:

a)

Paralysis

b)

Bowel obstruction

c)

Elevated platelets

d)

Increased stomach acid

72.

Which finding indicates anemia related to rectal bleeding in UC?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Fatigue and dizziness

c)

Insomnia only

d)

Tachycardia only

73.

A client with UC is dehydrated. The nurse expects:

a)

Excess urine output

b)

Poor skin turgor

c)

High albumin

d)

Bradycardia only

74.

Which diet best reduces irritation in acute Crohn’s or UC flare?

a)

High-fiber and spicy foods

b)

Whole grains and raw vegetables

c)

High-calorie, high-protein, low-fiber

d)

High-fat dairy products

75.

A client with hepatitis reports dark urine. This occurs due to:

a)

Low bilirubin

b)

Elevated bilirubin excreted in urine

c)

Infection in the bladder

d)

Decreased urine concentration

76.

Clay-colored stool in hepatitis results from:

a)

Excess bile in stool

b)

Lack of bile reaching stool

c)

High-fat diet

d)

Dehydration

77.

Which hepatitis type is most common in IV drug use?

a)

Hepatitis A

b)

Hepatitis C

c)

Hepatitis E

d)

Hepatitis G

78.

Which finding suggests worsening hepatic function?

a)

Decreased jaundice

b)

Increasing confusion

c)

Rising appetite

d)

Decreased AST and ALT

79.

A hepatitis B carrier must be taught to avoid:

a)

Vitamins

b)

Donating blood

c)

Eating protein

d)

Drinking water

80.

RUQ pain with fever and jaundice is most consistent with:

a)

Appendicitis

b)

Cholecystitis

c)

Crohn’s disease

d)

Ulcerative colitis

81.

Which enzyme levels support the diagnosis of cholecystitis?

a)

Elevated ALT/AST

b)

Elevated BNP

c)

Elevated troponin

d)

Elevated TSH

82.

A client with cholecystitis experiences worsening pain after fatty foods because:

a)

Gallbladder contracts against obstruction

b)

Stomach stops moving

c)

Pancreas shuts down

d)

Liver empties improperly

83.

Which finding is expected in pancreatitis?

a)

Hypotension and tachycardia

b)

Bradycardia only

c)

Elevated RBCs

d)

No abdominal pain

84.

A client with pancreatitis is placed on NPO status. The purpose is to:

a)

Prevent fluid overload

b)

Reduce pancreatic enzyme secretion

c)

Increase gastric acid production

d)

Promote bowel movements

85.

Respiratory complications in pancreatitis occur because:

a)

Pain limits deep breathing

b)

Viral infection develops

c)

The gallbladder enlarges

d)

The diaphragm contracts excessively

86.

Paralytic ileus associated with pancreatitis is treated by:

a)

High-fiber meals

b)

NG tube to suction + IV fluids

c)

Increasing oral intake

d)

Avoiding all mobility