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Part 2 - Quiz 2

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Inflammation of the bladder is called:

a)

vesicocele.

b)

vesicodynia.

c)

cystitis.

d)

cystopathy.

e)

nephritis.

2.

A malignancy arising from the bladder is called

a)

mucoma.

b)

epithelioma.

c)

myxedema.

d)

adenocarcinoma.

e)

nephrosarcoma.

3.

Which classification of drugs treats a vaginal yeast infection?

a)

Spermicides

b)

Prostaglandins

c)

Oxytocics

d)

Antifungals

e)

Estrogens

4.

Which of the following is used as a contraceptive?

a)

Spermicides

b)

Prostaglandins

c)

Oxytocics

d)

Antifungals

e)

Estrogens

5.

Benign uterine tumors are called

a)

carcinomas

b)

sarcomas

c)

fibroids

d)

corpus luteum

e)

polyps

6.

The CF mast/o means

a)

breast

b)

menses

c)

vagina

d)

ovary

e)

uterus

7.

The suffix -arche means

a)

beginning

b)

pain

c)

discharge

d)

formation

e)

condition

8.

The suffix -gravida means

a)

A. pregnant woman.

b)

B. first pregnancy.

c)

C. beginning of pregnancy.

d)

D. second pregnancy.

e)

E. childbirth.

9.

What classification of drugs is a method of birth control?

a)

Oxytocics

b)

Estrogens

c)

Antifungals

d)

Progestins

e)

Spermicides

10.

A Pap smear is used primarily to screen and diagnose

a)

Syphilis

b)

Cervical Cancer

c)

Gonorrhea

d)

Coplitis

e)

Eclampsia

11.

What is the term for menstrual pain and tension?

a)

oligomenorrhea

b)

dystocia

c)

metrorrhagia

d)

dysmenorrhea

e)

dyspareunia

12.

The suffix -para means

a)

A. beginning.

b)

B. abnormal.

c)

C. to bear (offspring).

d)

D. abdomen.

e)

E. pregnancy.

13.

The last stage of labor is the

a)

Expulsion of the baby

b)

Stage of parturition

c)

Gestational Stage

d)

Placental Stage

e)

Cervical Dilation

14.

A surgical fixation of a prolapsed uterus is charted as

a)

metrotposis.

b)

hysteroptosis.

c)

hysteropexy.

d)

hysteroplasty.

e)

hysterorrhexis.

15.

What is the term for a hernia of the fallopian tube?

a)

hysterocele

b)

colpocystocele

c)

salpingocele

d)

hydrocele

e)

metrocele

16.

Internal female reproductive organs include the

a)

uterus

b)

fallopian tubes

c)

ovaries

d)

vagina

17.

Which chromosomal abnormality results in mild to severe mental retardation and other abnormalities?

a)

Hydrocephalus

b)

Hyaline membrane disease

c)

Kernicterus

d)

Pyloric stenosis

e)

Down syndrome

18.

The period of pregnancy is called

a)

maturation

b)

gestation

c)

puerperium

d)

parturition

e)

coitus

19.

Which instrument aids in examination of the vagina and cervix uteri?

a)

Colposcopy

b)

Colposcope

c)

Salpingoscopy

d)

Salpingoscope

e)

Cystoscope

20.

The male gamete is called the

a)

testis.

b)

epididymis.

c)

vas.

d)

sperm.

e)

semen.

21.

Which protective mechanism blocks chemicals from entering brain tissue?

a)

Ganglia

b)

Neuroglia

c)

Blood–brain barrier

d)

Neurilemma

e)

Cell body

22.

Brain lesions associated with Alzheimer disease are called

a)

buboes.

b)

neurostats.

c)

scales.

d)

sheaths.

e)

plaques.

23.

A sudden, uncontrollable urge to sleep at an inappropriate time is called

a)

somnambulism.

b)

somnolence.

c)

narcolepsy.

d)

narcohypnosis.

e)

narcotic.

24.

Which structure supports and connects the cells of the nervous system?

a)

Myelin sheath

b)

Neuron

c)

Neurolemma

d)

Neuroglia

e)

Dendrite

25.

The anterior root of the spinal cord is composed of

a)

mixed nerves.

b)

motor fibers.

c)

sensory fibers.

d)

neuroglia.

e)

microglia.

26.

Which structure joins the two hemispheres of the brain?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Corpus callosum

c)

Brain stem

d)

Diencephalon

e)

Pons

27.

The suffix -kinesia means

a)

feeling.

b)

movement.

c)

strong.

d)

weak.

e)

debility.

28.

Which medical procedure records the electrical activity of the brain?

a)

Electromyography

b)

Electroencephalography

c)

Electrostimulation

d)

Electrodissection

e)

Electroresection

29.

Nerves that conduct impulses toward the brain or spinal cord are called

a)

afferent.

b)

efferent.

c)

motor.

d)

mixed.

e)

cranial.

30.

An incision of the cranium to gain access to the brain during a neurosurgical procedure is called a

a)

craniotomy.

b)

craniectomy.

c)

craniocentesis.

d)

cranioplasty.

e)

craniography.

31.

The term syncope means

a)

seizure.

b)

pain.

c)

depression.

d)

bipolarism.

e)

fainting.

32.

Which classification of drugs includes general, local, and nerve blocks?

a)

Antiseptics

b)

Anesthetics

c)

Psychostimulants

d)

Hypnotics

e)

Keralytics

33.

The removal of a nerve is called

a)

ganglioma

b)

neurectomy

c)

neurolysis

d)

gangliectomy

e)

neurectomy

34.

The CF mening/o means

a)

meninges (membranes covering the brain and spinal cord)

b)

dura mater

c)

pia mater

d)

sheath

e)

arachnoid

35.

Which procedure involves needle puncture of the spinal cavity to extract spinal fluid for diagnostic purposes?

a)

Meningotomy

b)

Meningocentesis

c)

Cervicotomy

d)

Venipuncture

e)

Lumbar puncture

36.

Which test measures the speed at which impulses travel through a nerve?

a)

Neurography

b)

Neurometry

c)

Electromyometry

d)

Nerve conduction velocity

e)

Electroneurography

37.

Which term refers to the production and release of milk from the mammary glands?

a)

puerperium

b)

lactation

c)

gestation

d)

menarche

e)

climacteric

38.

The cervix is superior to the

a)

fundus

b)

ovaries

c)

vagina

d)

fallopian tubes

e)

uterus

39.

Which abbreviation refers to the use of high-frequency sound waves to visualize a fetus?

a)

US

b)

HSG

c)

CVS

d)

LH

e)

VD

40.

Structures of the external female genitalia include the

a)

ovaries.

b)

vestibule.

c)

corpus luteum.

d)

oviducts.

e)

vulva.

41.

Which class of drugs treats recurrent herpes?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Antivirals

c)

Mycotics

d)

Androgens

e)

Estrogens

42.

The malformation in which the urethra opens on the undersurface of the penis is called

a)

hydrocele

b)

epispadias

c)

impotence

d)

hypospadias

e)

varicocele

43.

What is the abbreviation for any disease transmitted through sexual activity?

a)

STI

b)

BNO

c)

HPV

d)

TURP

e)

DRE

44.

Signs and symptoms of testicular cancer may include

a)

dysuria

b)

pyuria

c)

hematuria

d)

nocturia

e)

gynecomastia

45.

Vasectomy reversal is called

a)

vasostomy

b)

anastomosis

c)

vasoplasty

d)

vasovasotomy

e)

vasoneurosis

46.

The movable hood of skin covering the glans penis is called the

a)

sphincter

b)

prepuce

c)

circumcision

d)

glansdermia

e)

meatus.

47.

Which imaging procedure evaluates the testicles, epididymis, and vas deferens?

a)

Scrotal ultrasound

b)

Semen analysis

c)

PSA

d)

Circumcision

e)

Digital rectal examination

48.

The inability to produce offspring is called

a)

anorchia

b)

hypergonadism

c)

sterility

d)

infertility

e)

erectile dysfunction

49.

Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac prior to or at birth is called

a)

sterility.

b)

cryptorchidism.

c)

orchialgia.

d)

testicular torsion.

e)

anorchidism.

50.

The combining forms (CFs) orch/o, orchi/o, orchid/o, and test/o mean

a)

testis (plural, testes).

b)

sperm.

c)

hidden.

d)

scanty.

e)

gonads, sex glands.

51.

Radioactive “seeds” are associated with

a)

teletherapy

b)

brachytherapy

c)

scrotal scans

d)

scrotal ultrasound

e)

hormonal therapy

52.

An elective procedure for sterilization in males is called

a)

bilateral vasectomy.

b)

orchiecostomy.

c)

circumcision.

d)

spermicide.

e)

bilateral vasostomy.

53.

The CFs spermat/o and sperm/o mean

a)

A. seed.

b)

B. gonad.

c)

C. spermatozoa, sperm cells.

d)

D. gamete.

e)

E. offspring.

54.

The structure responsible for sperm production is the

a)

testis

b)

epididymis

c)

vas deferens

d)

prostate gland

55.

The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test is used as a screening test for

a)

urolithiasis.

b)

orchitis.

c)

infertility.

d)

prostate cancer.

e)

azotemia.

56.

Which sexually transmitted infection produces symptoms more commonly in females than in males?

a)

Trichomonas

b)

Gonorrhea

c)

Genital herpes

d)

Chlamydia

e)

Genital warts

57.

Which sexually transmitted infection is called the “silent disease” because its symptoms are commonly absent or mild?

a)

Chlamydia

b)

Gonorrhea

c)

Syphilis

d)

HIV

58.

A prolonged and commonly painful erection of the penis that occurs without sexual stimulation is called

a)

phimosis.

b)

priapism.

c)

prostatitis.

d)

orchitis.

e)

vesiculitis.

59.

The suffix -spadias means

a)

condition.

b)

scanty.

c)

slit, fissure.

d)

producing.

e)

meatus.

60.

The male gamete is called the

a)

sperm

b)

ovum

c)

zygote

d)

embryo

61.

Which classification of drugs acts upon the brain to produce a complete loss of feeling and consciousness?

a)

Local anesthetics

b)

Nerve blocks

c)

General anesthetics

d)

Hypnotics

e)

Antipsychotics

62.

The suffix -esthesia means

a)

ether

b)

easy, normal

c)

feeling

d)

numb

e)

unfeeling

63.

Another term for stroke is

a)

cerebral palsy

b)

paraplegia

c)

closed head trauma

d)

cerebrovascular accident

e)

parkinsonism

64.

The combining form (CF) blephar/o means

a)

stapes.

b)

labyrinth (inner ear).

c)

conjunctiva.

d)

eyelid.

e)

hearing.

65.

The snail-shaped structure of the inner ear responsible for the sense of hearing is the

a)

semicircular canal.

b)

canthi.

c)

canaliculi.

d)

canal of Schlemm.

e)

cochlea.

66.

Tympanoplasty helps treat

a)

macular degeneration.

b)

night blindness.

c)

perforated eardrum

d)

xerophtalmia

e)

mastoiditis

67.

The CF presby/o means

a)

ear.

b)

eye.

c)

hearing.

d)

labyrinth (inner ear).

e)

old age.

68.

The suffix -opsia means

a)

stapes.

b)

labyrinth (inner ear).

c)

vision.

d)

turning.

e)

hearing.

69.

Which condition involves leakage of blood and other fluids from intraocular vessels that destroys vision cells, leading to permanent vision loss?

a)
Presbyopia
b)

Glaucoma

c)

Macular Degeneration

d)

Cataracts

e)

Achromatopsia

70.

Radiographic imaging of the nasolacrimal glands and ducts is called

a)

fluorescein angiography.

b)

dacryocystography.

c)

Rinne.

d)

Weber.

e)

applanation tonometry.

71.

Failure of light rays to focus sharply on the retina is

a)

photosensitivity.

b)

decussation.

c)

photopigmentation.

d)

ametropia.

e)

refraction.

72.

The CF scler/o means

a)

tympanic membrane (eardrum)

b)

eye

c)

cornea

d)

dull, dim

e)

hardening; sclera (white of eye)

73.

A protrusion of one or both eyeballs from the sockets, commonly associated with hyperthyroidism, is called

a)

ectropion.

b)

entropion.

c)

exotropion.

d)

exophthalmos.

e)

exophthia.

74.

Which layer of the eye contains the rods and cones?

a)

Retina

b)

Cornea

c)

Sclera

d)

Choroid

e)

Conjunctiva

75.

Which eye test determines the smallest letters that can be read on a standardized chart at a distance of 20 feet?

a)

Snellen test

b)

Ishihara test

c)

Amsler grid

d)

Visual acuity test

76.

Which disorder is an infection of the ear canal commonly associated with swimming?

a)

Ménière disease

b)

Otitis media

c)

Labyrinthitis

d)

Otosclerosis

e)

Otitis externa

77.

Night blindness is called

a)

scotoma

b)

achromatopsia

c)

trachoma

d)

nyctalopia

e)

nystagmus

78.

What is the clinical name for a “bionic ear”?

a)

Hearing aid

b)

PE tube

c)

Cochlear Implant

d)

Audiometer

e)

Tonometer

79.

A treatment for unresponsive, recurrent episodes of otitis media is

a)

stapedotomy.

b)

emulsification.

c)

otoplasty.

d)

blepharoplasty.

e)

ventilation tubes.

80.

The inner edge of the eye is called

a)

canaliculus.

b)

conjunctiva.

c)

semicircular canal.

d)

canthus.

e)

optic disc.

81.

Which classification of drugs loosens and helps remove impacted cerumen?

a)

ophthalmic moisturizers

b)

ophthalmic decongestants

c)

wax emulsifiers

d)

otic analgesics

e)

antiemetics

82.

Lazy-eye syndrome is a type of strabismus called

a)

A. amblyopia.

b)

B. hyperopia.

c)

C. nystagmus.

d)

D. esotropia.

e)

E. exotropia.

83.

Surgical correction of a perforated eardrum is called

a)

myringoplasty.

b)

otoplasty.

c)

antrotomy.

d)

mastoidoplasty.

e)

scleroplasty.