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mitosis overview (part of last materials)

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines cell division in the context of life's continuity?

a)

Process creating new cells by splitting one

b)

Mechanism degrading cells during aging processes

c)

Pathway for cells to fuse into larger structures

d)

Signal cascade turning genes on during stress

2.

In unicellular organisms, what is the direct outcome of one cell dividing?

a)

Formation of a new organism identical to parent

b)

Creation of specialized tissues for movement

c)

Increase in cell size without genetic change

d)

Temporary dormancy to survive harsh conditions

3.

Which role of cell division primarily explains how embryos increase cell number and organize tissues?

a)

Growth and development in multicellular organisms

b)

Gene mutation for adaptive evolution

c)

Energy storage through larger vacuoles

d)

Transport of nutrients across membranes

4.

A cut heals over weeks as new cells replace damaged ones. Which role of cell division is most responsible?

a)

Tissue repair through renewal of cells

b)

Reproduction of entire organisms

c)

Metabolic acceleration after injury

d)

Apoptosis eliminating healthy cells

5.

Compare unicellular and multicellular contexts: which pairing correctly matches cell division with its predominant outcome?

a)

Unicellular—reproduction; multicellular—growth and repair

b)

Unicellular—growth; multicellular—organism reproduction

c)

Unicellular—mutation; multicellular—energy production

d)

Unicellular—fusion; multicellular—tissue degeneration

6.

Which term refers to all the DNA contained within a single cell?

a)

Chromatin of the nucleus

b)

Genome of the cell

c)

Chromosomes set

d)

Genetic codebook

7.

In eukaryotic cells, what are DNA molecules packaged into?

a)

Ribosomal units

b)

Chromosome structures

c)

Membrane vesicles

d)

Cytoskeletal fibers

8.

Somatic cells are best described as having which chromosome complement?

a)

One complete set

b)

Two complete sets

c)

Three partial sets

d)

Half a single set

9.

Gametes such as sperm and eggs differ from somatic cells by having how many chromosomes?

a)

Twice as many

b)

Half as many

c)

The same number

d)

A variable number

10.

Eukaryotic chromosomes consist of chromatin. What is chromatin composed of?

a)

RNA and lipids

b)

DNA and protein

c)

Protein and metabolites

d)

DNA and polysaccharides

11.

A prokaryotic genome commonly consists of what structural arrangement?

a)

Multiple linear molecules

b)

A single DNA molecule

c)

Several circular plasmids

d)

Many protein complexes

12.

During standard cell division producing daughter cells, what is true of the genetic information in the two daughter cells?

a)

Mostly similar DNA

b)

Identical genetic information

c)

Reduced genome content

d)

Random chromosome assortment

13.

Which feature marks the site where sister chromatids are most closely attached on a duplicated chromosome in the diagram?

a)

Telomere region at each end

b)

Centromere as the narrow waist

c)

Chromosome arm lateral segment

d)

Nucleolus-associated domain

14.

During preparation for cell division shown, which sequence best describes the order of events?

a)

Chromatids separate, DNA condenses, chromosomes duplicate

b)

DNA replicates, chromosomes condense, chromosomes duplicate

c)

Chromosomes condense, chromatids separate, DNA replicates

d)

DNA condenses, chromatids form, centromeres disappear

15.

In the diagram, what exactly are sister chromatids?

a)

Two homologous chromosomes paired

b)

Two identical DNA molecules of one chromosome

c)

Two nonidentical arms of different chromosomes

d)

Two centromeres linked by protein

16.

If the centromere fails to split during separation of sister chromatids, which outcome is most likely for the daughter cells?

a)

Both receive complete and equal genomes

b)

One gains extra, the other loses a chromatid

c)

Each gets identical duplicated chromosomes

d)

Neither cell completes cytokinesis properly

17.

Which statement best explains why chromosome condensation is necessary before separation?

a)

It prevents DNA replication from starting

b)

It reduces tangling to enable accurate movement

c)

It increases gene expression during mitosis

d)

It creates new centromeres on each arm

18.

Which statement best distinguishes mitosis from cytokinesis in eukaryotic cells?

a)

Mitosis divides the nucleus, cytokinesis divides cytoplasm

b)

Mitosis duplicates DNA, cytokinesis breaks chromosomes apart

c)

Mitosis forms gametes, cytokinesis creates nuclear envelopes

d)

Mitosis increases cell size, cytokinesis reduces organelles

19.

A single eukaryotic cell splits into two daughter cells. What process regulates the timing and fidelity of this division?

a)

Cell cycle regulation mechanisms

b)

Chromatin condensation events

c)

Microtubule polymerization rates

d)

Ribosome assembly checkpoints

20.

During eukaryotic cell division, when are sister chromatids separated, and what follows to complete partitioning?

a)

Separated in mitosis, followed by cytokinesis

b)

Separated in cytokinesis, followed by mitosis

c)

Separated during cell cycle checkpoints, followed by meiosis

d)

Separated during interphase, followed by DNA replication

21.

If the cell cycle fails to control division and cells bypass checkpoints, which outcome is most consistent with this dysregulation?

a)

Uncontrolled proliferation of daughter cells

b)

Enhanced precision of chromosome segregation

c)

Permanent arrest in cytokinesis only

d)

Conversion of mitosis into meiotic division

22.

Which statement best distinguishes Interphase from the Mitotic (M) phase?

a)

Interphase includes G1, S, and G2 subphases

b)

Interphase executes mitosis and cytokinesis

c)

M phase performs DNA replication in S phase

d)

M phase drives cell growth during all subphases

23.

During which subphase are chromosomes duplicated?

a)

G1 phase, the first gap period

b)

S phase, the synthesis period

c)

G2 phase, the second gap period

d)

M phase, the mitosis period

24.

A cell increases in size and produces organelles across Interphase. What additional event must occur before mitosis to ensure genetic continuity?

a)

DNA synthesis during the S phase

b)

Checkpoint activation during G0

c)

Spindle assembly during cytokinesis

d)

Chromosome condensation during G2

25.

Which sequence correctly orders the stages a typical cell passes through from one division to the next?

a)

G1 → S → G2 → M phase

b)

M → G1 → G2 → S phase

c)

S → G2 → G1 → M phase

d)

G2 → G1 → M → S phase

26.

A drug blocks DNA polymerase only during Interphase. Predict the immediate consequence for the next cell division.

a)

Chromosomes fail to duplicate in S phase

b)

Cytokinesis proceeds without mitosis

c)

G1 growth continues but mitosis stops

d)

Spindle forms yet chromosomes overreplicate

27.

Researchers measure that Interphase comprises about 90% of the cell cycle. What is the most direct implication for cellular activity during this time?

a)

Cells primarily grow and copy chromosomes

b)

Cells mainly undergo mitosis and cytokinesis

c)

Cells remain metabolically inactive in G2

d)

Cells condense chromosomes throughout G1

28.

Which event best characterizes prophase during mitosis in animal cells?

a)

Nuclear envelope fully intact and stable

b)

Chromosomes condense and spindle begins forming

c)

Sister chromatids pulled toward centrosomes

d)

Cleavage furrow starts forming at cortex

29.

During prometaphase, what happens to the nuclear envelope and microtubule attachments?

a)

Envelope remains intact without attachments

b)

Envelope fragments and kinetochores form

c)

Envelope dissolves while cohesins cleave

d)

Envelope reforms and tethers chromosomes

30.

What defines metaphase alignment of chromosomes?

a)

Random distribution near spindle poles

b)

Linear array along the metaphase plate

c)

Radial clustering around centrosomes

d)

Paired movement into daughter nuclei

31.

Which statement accurately describes anaphase mechanics?

a)

Cohesins intact and chromatids condense

b)

Cohesins cleaved and chromatids separate

c)

Kinetochores detach and microtubules shorten

d)

Centrosomes fuse and spindle disassembles

32.

What is the principal outcome of telophase in mitotic cells?

a)

One nucleus dissolves completely

b)

Two daughter nuclei re-form

c)

Chromosomes align at equator

d)

Spindle poles migrate inward

33.

Cytokinesis in animal cells is driven primarily by what structure?

a)

Preprophase band of microtubules

b)

Cleavage furrow with contractile ring

c)

Secondary spindle near cortex

d)

Kinetochore filaments cross-linking

34.

A lab image shows chromosomes attached to both kinetochore microtubules and nonkinetochore microtubules binding to each other. Which phase is most consistent with this observation?

a)

Late prophase with intact envelope

b)

Prometaphase after envelope breakdown

c)

Early anaphase with chromatid pulling

d)

Telophase with nuclei re-forming

35.

If spindle microtubules from opposite poles attach to sister chromatids and generate equal tension, what checkpoint outcome is expected?

a)

Anaphase delayed due to low tension

b)

Metaphase alignment is stabilized

c)

Telophase initiated prematurely

d)

Cytokinesis begins before separation

36.

In an experiment, nonkinetochore microtubules are prevented from elongating. Which consequence is most likely during mitosis?

a)

Cell fails to lengthen in anaphase

b)

Kinetochores cannot form in prometaphase

c)

Chromosomes cannot condense in prophase

d)

Nuclear envelopes never re-form in telophase

37.

Which sequence correctly orders the five conventional phases of mitosis?

a)

Prophase, Metaphase, Prometaphase, Telophase, Anaphase

b)

Prometaphase, Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase

c)

Prophase, Prometaphase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

d)

Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Prophase, Prometaphase

38.

Which labeled stage shows the nuclear envelope disassembling and microtubules attaching to kinetochores?

a)

Interphase with intact nuclear envelope

b)

Prophase with condensed chromosomes

c)

Prometaphase with kinetochore attachment

d)

Telophase with envelope reformation

39.

In the metaphase diagram and micrograph, what arrangement of chromosomes is characteristic of this stage?

a)

Random distribution across cytoplasm

b)

Paired chromatids at opposite poles

c)

Alignment along the metaphase plate

d)

Single chromatids dispersed in nucleus

40.

Based on the anaphase diagram, which event best distinguishes anaphase from metaphase?

a)

Chromatin decondenses to form nuclei

b)

Sister chromatids separate and move poleward

c)

Nuclear envelope breaks down completely

d)

Spindle microtubules begin to assemble

41.

A cell shows asters, a well-defined metaphase plate, and arrows indicating chromosome movement. Predict the next observable structural change.

a)

Reformation of nuclear envelopes around each pole

b)

Further condensation of chromosomes into thicker rods

c)

Disassembly of kinetochores before separation

d)

Spindle poles fuse into a single microtubule focus

42.

In the boxed cell image, chromosomes begin condensing and the nuclear envelope starts disassembling. Which mitotic stage is shown?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

43.

In the boxed cell image, sister chromatids are separating and moving toward opposite poles. Which mitotic stage is shown?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

44.

In the boxed cell image, two daughter nuclei reform and chromosomes begin decondensing. Which mitotic stage is shown?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

45.

Which structure physically divides animal cells during cytokinesis?

a)

Cleavage furrow with contractile ring

b)

Cell plate from Golgi vesicles

c)

Spindle of microtubules

d)

Primary cell wall deposition

46.

Compare cytokinesis mechanisms: which pairing correctly matches cell type to process?

a)

Animal—cleavage furrow; Plant—cell plate

b)

Animal—cell plate; Plant—cleavage furrow

c)

Animal—binary fission; Plant—mitotic plate

d)

Animal—cell wall budding; Plant—membrane pinching

47.

Which checkpoint primarily assesses whether the cell has adequate nutrients and growth signals to begin DNA replication?

a)

G1 checkpoint readiness for S phase

b)

G2 checkpoint readiness for mitosis

c)

M checkpoint spindle attachment status

d)

G0 checkpoint terminal differentiation

48.

A neuron that no longer divides is best described as being in which state?

a)

G0 phase terminal differentiation

b)

S phase DNA synthesis

c)

M phase chromosome segregation

d)

G2 phase mitosis prep

49.

Which statement best explains why skin cells exhibit a high turnover rate?

a)

They frequently re-enter the cell cycle

b)

They permanently exit into G0

c)

They pause at the G2 checkpoint

d)

They avoid the M checkpoint entirely

50.

At the G2 checkpoint, what must be verified before entry into mitosis?

a)

DNA replication completion and integrity

b)

Availability of external mitogens

c)

Attachment of kinetochores to spindles

d)

Cell size reduction and quiescence

51.

Which feature distinguishes terminally differentiated cells from high turnover cells?

a)

Permanent cell cycle exit

b)

Accelerated S phase rate

c)

Enhanced spindle checkpoint

d)

Shortened G2 dwell time

52.

What is the primary role of the cell cycle control system?

a)

Regulate progression through checkpoints

b)

Direct ATP synthesis in mitochondria

c)

Mediate transcription of all genes

d)

Transport vesicles during cytokinesis

53.

A cell with DNA damage detected after replication should be halted at which control point to prevent mitosis?

a)

G2 checkpoint before M phase

b)

G1 checkpoint before S phase

c)

M checkpoint during anaphase

d)

G0 phase after cytokinesis

54.

Which scenario most likely triggers entry into G0?

a)

Lack of growth signals in G1

b)

Successful spindle attachment

c)

Complete DNA synthesis in S

d)

Activation of mitotic cyclins

55.

How many chromosomes do somatic cells have?

a)

96

b)

46

c)

43

d)

23

56.

How many chromosomes do gametes have?

a)

96

b)

46

c)

43

d)

23

57.

A somatic cell is also described as a (a)   cell.

58.

A gamete is also described as a (a)   cell.