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Integumentary System Quiz

Total questions: 53

Worksheet time: 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a common bacterial skin infection characterized by honey-colored crusts?

a)

Cellulitis

b)

Impetigo

c)

Melanoma

d)

Herpes zoster

2.

What is the primary function of the integumentary system?

a)

Digestion

b)

Protection

c)

Respiration

d)

Circulation

3.

Which skin cancer is most likely to metastasize rapidly?

a)

Basal cell carcinoma

b)

Squamous cell carcinoma

c)

Melanoma

d)

Actinic keratosis

4.

Which procedure involves scraping away abnormal skin tissue for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes?

a)

Biopsy

b)

Curettage

c)

Excision

d)

Cryotherapy

5.

What is the most common cause of pressure injuries?

a)

Allergic reaction

b)

Prolonged immobility

c)

Bacterial infection

d)

Sun exposure

6.

Which viral infection is characterized by a painful, unilateral vesicular rash?

a)

Herpes simplex

b)

Herpes zoster

c)

Impetigo

d)

Cellulitis

7.

Which term describes a skin reaction caused by increased sensitivity to sunlight?

a)

Photosensitivity

b)

Melanoma

c)

Cellulitis

d)

Infestation

8.

What is the process called when a wound heals by bringing its edges together, such as with sutures?

a)

Healing by secondary intention

b)

Healing by tertiary intention

c)

Healing by primary intention

d)

Healing by granulation

9.

Which of the following is a benign dermatologic disorder?

a)

Melanoma

b)

Seborrheic keratosis

c)

Squamous cell carcinoma

d)

Cellulitis

10.

What is the main purpose of a skin biopsy?

a)

To treat infection

b)

To diagnose skin disorders

c)

To remove benign lesions

d)

To prevent cancer

11.

Which health promotion practice can help prevent skin cancer?

a)

Frequent tanning

b)

Use of sunscreen

c)

Ignoring skin changes

d)

Excessive sun exposure

12.

A patient presents with redness, swelling, and warmth in the lower leg. Which concept best explains the etiology of cellulitis?

a)

Viral infection

b)

Bacterial invasion of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue

c)

Allergic reaction

d)

Fungal infection

13.

Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for a patient with a pressure injury?

a)

Encourage frequent repositioning

b)

Apply sunscreen

c)

Use antifungal cream

d)

Perform curettage

14.

A patient with herpes zoster is experiencing severe pain. Which collaborative management strategy is most effective?

a)

Administer antiviral medication

b)

Apply topical antibiotics

c)

Use corticosteroid cream

d)

Recommend sun exposure

15.

Which clinical manifestation is most commonly associated with impetigo?

a)

Deep ulceration

b)

Honey-colored crusts

c)

Black, irregular mole

d)

Vesicular rash

16.

A patient is scheduled for a skin biopsy. What should the nurse do to prepare the patient?

a)

Instruct the patient to fast for 12 hours

b)

Explain the procedure and obtain consent

c)

Administer antibiotics

d)

Apply sunscreen

17.

Which of the following is a sign of photosensitivity?

a)

Skin thickening

b)

Rash after sun exposure

c)

Painless nodule

d)

Honey-colored crusts

18.

A patient with melanoma asks about the prognosis. Which factor is most important in determining the prognosis?

a)

Size of the lesion

b)

Depth of invasion

c)

Location on the body

d)

Patient’s age

19.

Which nursing action is essential after curettage of a skin lesion?

a)

Apply pressure to stop bleeding

b)

Expose the area to sunlight

c)

Use corticosteroid cream

d)

Encourage vigorous exercise

20.

A patient with chronic eczema reports feeling embarrassed in social situations. Which effect is this an example of?

a)

Physiologic effect

b)

Psychologic effect

c)

Allergic effect

d)

Infectious effect

21.

A patient presents with a rapidly growing, irregularly shaped, dark lesion. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

a)

Reassure the patient and monitor

b)

Refer for skin biopsy

c)

Apply topical antibiotics

d)

Recommend sun exposure

22.

A patient with cellulitis is not responding to oral antibiotics. What should the nurse do next?

a)

Continue the current treatment

b)

Notify the healthcare provider for possible IV antibiotics

c)

Apply corticosteroid cream

d)

Recommend home remedies

23.

A patient with a history of lupus presents with a new rash. How should the nurse determine if this is a dermatologic manifestation of a systemic disease?

a)

Assess for other systemic symptoms and review medical history

b)

Apply topical antibiotics

c)

Recommend sun exposure

d)

Perform curettage

24.

A patient with a pressure injury is at risk for infection. Which evidence-based strategy should the nurse implement to reduce this risk?

a)

Use sterile dressings and monitor for signs of infection

b)

Apply sunscreen

c)

Encourage vigorous exercise

d)

Recommend tanning

25.

A patient is scheduled for a cosmetic skin procedure. What should the nurse include in the pre-procedure teaching plan?

a)

Risks, benefits, and post-procedure care

b)

Only the benefits

c)

Only the risks

d)

No teaching is needed

26.

A patient with herpes zoster is immunocompromised. What is the nurse’s priority in collaborative management?

a)

Initiate antiviral therapy and monitor for complications

b)

Apply corticosteroid cream

c)

Recommend sun exposure

d)

Use antifungal cream

27.

A patient with impetigo is concerned about spreading the infection to family members. What should the nurse advise?

a)

Practice good hand hygiene and avoid sharing personal items

b)

Ignore the concern

c)

Recommend sun exposure

d)

Use corticosteroid cream

28.

A patient with a history of photosensitivity is prescribed a new medication. What should the nurse do?

a)

Review the medication for photosensitivity risk and educate the patient.

b)

Ignore the history.

c)

Recommend tanning.

d)

Apply corticosteroid cream.

29.

A patient with a healing wound by secondary intention asks about the process. How should the nurse explain it?

a)

The wound heals from the base up, with granulation tissue filling the gap.

b)

The wound edges are brought together with sutures.

c)

The wound is left open to air.

d)

The wound is treated with corticosteroids.

30.

A patient is scheduled for a skin graft after a burn injury. What is the nurse’s role in postoperative management?

a)

Monitor for graft adherence and signs of infection

b)

Recommend sun exposure

c)

Apply corticosteroid cream

d)

Encourage vigorous exercise

31.

A child in the ED has a deep cut in the thigh after a bicycle accident. After determining the patient is stable, the next priority assessment would be to :

a)

Inspect the wound for bleeding

b)

Inspect the wound for foreign bodies

c)

Assess the size of the wound

d)

Make sure the parent is in the room

32.

The nursing assistant asks the nurse, what is the difference between a wound that heals by primary or secondary intention? The nurse will reply that a wound heals by primary intention when the skin edges:

a)

Are approximated

b)

Migrate across the incision

c)

Appear slightly pink

d)

Slightly overlap each other

33.

A postoperative patient arrives at an ambulatory care center and states, "I am not feeling well." upon assessment, the nurse notes an elevated temperature. An indication that the wound is infected would be.

a)

There is no odor

b)

The wound is approximated

c)

The wound is draining purulent exudate

d)

The are two stitches missing

34.

The nurse is concerned that the patient's midsternal wound is at risk for dehiscence. Which of the following is the best intervention to prevent this complication?

a)

Administer antibiotics to prevent infection

b)

Use appropriate sterile technique when changing the dressing

c)

Keeping sterile towels and extra dressing supplies near the patient's bed

d)

Placing a pillow over the incision site when the patient is deep breathing or coughing

35.

Which type of wound is this?

a)

Laceration

b)

Avulsion

c)

Puncture

d)

Abrasion

36.

What type of wound is shown?

a)

Abrasion

b)

Incision

c)

Avulsion

d)

Puncture

37.

What type of wound is shown?

a)

Abrasion

b)

Incison

c)

Puncture

d)

Laceration

38.

What type of wound is shown?

a)

Avulsion

b)

Laceration

c)

Puncture

d)

Abrasion

39.

What type of wound is shown?

a)

Abrasion

b)

Laceration

c)

Avulsion

d)

Incision

40.

What type of wound is shown?

a)

Puncture

b)

Abrasion

c)

Laceration

d)

Incision

41.

What type of wound is shown?

a)

Abrasion

b)

Laceration

c)

Puncture

d)

Incision

42.

What type of wound is shown?

a)

Abrasion

b)

Laceration

c)

Avulsion

d)

Puncture

43.

What stage am I?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

44.

What stage am I?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

45.

What stage am I?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

46.

What stage am I?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

47.

What stage am I?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

48.

When a wound has bone and muscle exposed what stage is it?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

49.

When a wound has partial thickness loss what stage is it?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

50.

Non blanchable redness is what stage?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

51.

What is the yellow material in the wound bed?

a)

necrotic

b)

granulation

c)

epithelial

d)

slough

52.

When assessing a patient for pressure injury, the most common site is?

a)

Buttocks

b)

Sacrum

c)

Ears

d)

Calfs

53.

During a dressing change you see reddish-pink tissue is the wound. This would indicate?

a)

Shearing force

b)

Necrosis

c)

Excoriation

d)

Granulation tissue

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