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Respiratory Assessment and Interpretation Quiz

Total questions: 51

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client with congestive heart failure is receiving Furosemide IV, Lisinopril, and Digoxin. Based on the provided lab values (Na+ 130 mEq/L, K+ 3.3 mEq/L, BUN 32 mg/dL, Creatinine 1.6 mg/dL), which complication should the nurse most strategically monitor for?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hyponatremia and renal dysfunction

c)

Hypotension only

d)

Hypernatremia

2.

Which nursing actions are appropriate when caring for a client receiving IV potassium chloride? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Administer prescribed IV potassium chloride slowly via infusion pump

b)

Place client on cardiac monitor

c)

Encourage foods rich in magnesium (leafy greens, nuts)

d)

Hold calcium supplement

3.

A provider prescribes potassium chloride 20 mEq in 100 mL NS over 1 hour. What should the nurse do if IV infiltration occurs?

a)

Stop infusion immediately and notify provider.

b)

Continue infusion and monitor for changes.

c)

Apply a warm compress and continue infusion.

d)

Increase the infusion rate to flush the IV site.

4.

A 22-year-old patient with epilepsy arrives postictal and unresponsive after a tonic-clonic seizure lasting more than 5 minutes. His vital signs are BP 140/88, HR 128, RR 8, and SpO₂ 84% on room air. Which finding is most critical to address immediately, and why?

a)

Low blood pressure due to risk of shock

b)

High heart rate due to risk of arrhythmia

c)

RR 8 and SpO₂ 84% due to airway compromise

d)

Unresponsiveness due to risk of aspiration

5.

A nurse is caring for a patient experiencing an active seizure. Which combination of nursing actions demonstrates strategic planning to maintain patient safety and airway patency? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Maintain airway patency, turn client to side position, loosen restrictive clothing, have suction equipment ready

b)

Insert oral airway during seizure, restrain patient, administer oxygen, keep patient supine

c)

Turn client to prone position, apply restraints, monitor vital signs, administer fluids

d)

Loosen clothing, keep patient supine, administer sedatives, monitor blood pressure

6.

Which problem is the nurse’s highest priority in a patient with elevated BUN, creatinine, and gentamicin trough?

a)

Acute kidney injury due to drug toxicity

b)

Hypertension due to fluid overload

c)

Hyperkalemia due to diet

d)

Dehydration due to vomiting

7.

The provider discontinues gentamicin and orders IV fluids. Which fluid best supports renal perfusion?

a)

0.9% Normal Saline

b)

Dextrose 5% in Water

c)

Lactated Ringer's Solution

d)

0.45% Normal Saline

8.

Which medication regimen should the nurse anticipate for a client diagnosed with tuberculosis?

a)

RIPE therapy: Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol

b)

Penicillin, Amoxicillin, Azithromycin, Ceftriaxone

c)

Metronidazole, Ciprofloxacin, Doxycycline, Clindamycin

d)

Vancomycin, Gentamicin, Linezolid, Meropenem

9.

After chest tube placement, which observation best demonstrates effective chest tube drainage and lung re-expansion?

a)

No air leak, drainage less than 100 mL in 24 hours, lungs re-expanded

b)

Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber, drainage over 200 mL in 24 hours, diminished breath sounds

c)

Intermittent bubbling, drainage less than 50 mL in 24 hours, persistent cough

d)

No drainage, lungs not re-expanded, patient cyanotic

10.

A client’s blood glucose (BG) is 200 mg/dL. According to an insulin sliding scale order of 4 units for glucose 180-220 mg/dL, what is the most appropriate action?

a)

Administer 4 units regular insulin.

b)

Administer 2 units regular insulin.

c)

Administer 6 units regular insulin.

d)

Withhold insulin and monitor BG.

11.

A client weighing 70 kg is prescribed phenytoin IV at 15 mg/kg. What is the correct total dose to administer, and what reasoning supports your calculation?

a)

1,050 mg; because 15 mg/kg × 70 kg = 1,050 mg.

b)

1,000 mg; because 15 mg/kg × 70 kg = 1,000 mg.

c)

950 mg; because 15 mg/kg × 70 kg = 950 mg.

d)

1,200 mg; because 15 mg/kg × 70 kg = 1,200 mg.

12.

A client is prescribed 0.12 g Coreg PO. The available tablets are 60 mg each. How many tablets should you administer, and what is your calculation process?

a)

2 tablets; because 0.12 g = 120 mg, and 120 mg ÷ 60 mg/tablet = 2 tablets.

b)

1 tablet; because 0.12 g = 120 mg, and 120 mg ÷ 60 mg/tablet = 1 tablet.

c)

3 tablets; because 0.12 g = 120 mg, and 120 mg ÷ 40 mg/tablet = 3 tablets.

d)

4 tablets; because 0.12 g = 120 mg, and 120 mg ÷ 30 mg/tablet = 4 tablets.

13.

Given a cystic fibrosis patient with a confirmed bacterial infection, which pathogen should be suspected and what is the strategic rationale for targeted therapy?

a)

Streptococcus pneumoniae; treat with broad-spectrum antibiotics

b)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa; confirm infection and use specific antibiotics

c)

Staphylococcus aureus; treat with antiviral agents

d)

Escherichia coli; use antifungal therapy

14.

A patient with fluid volume excess/congestive heart failure (FVE/CHF) presents with crackles, weight gain, jugular venous distention (JVD), and pitting edema. Using strategic reasoning, explain why these findings occur and what underlying physiological process is responsible.

a)

These findings are due to fluid redistribution and sodium/water retention.

b)

These findings are caused by increased oxygenation in the lungs.

c)

These findings result from decreased cardiac output only.

d)

These findings are due to excessive potassium loss.

15.

A patient is prescribed furosemide for heart failure. Before starting therapy, the potassium level is found to be 3.3 mEq/L. Strategically analyze why it is important to correct potassium before administering furosemide and what risk is associated if not corrected.

a)

Furosemide can worsen hypokalemia, increasing arrhythmia risk.

b)

Furosemide can cause hypernatremia, increasing seizure risk.

c)

Furosemide can improve potassium levels, reducing arrhythmia risk.

d)

Furosemide has no effect on potassium or arrhythmia risk.

16.

After diuretic therapy, a patient with heart failure has clearer lungs and less edema. Strategically reason what this indicates about the effectiveness of the treatment.

a)

Successful diuresis and improved gas exchange.

b)

Worsening heart failure and decreased oxygenation.

c)

Increased fluid overload and pulmonary congestion.

d)

No change in patient status.

17.

A patient presents with neuro changes such as confusion. Strategically reason which electrolyte imbalance is most likely and the underlying mechanism.

a)

Hyponatremia, due to cerebral swelling from low sodium.

b)

Hyperkalemia, due to increased neuronal activity.

c)

Hypercalcemia, due to decreased neuronal activity.

d)

Hypomagnesemia, due to increased muscle excitability.

18.

When replacing potassium intravenously in a patient with hypokalemia, what strategic steps must be taken to ensure safety and effectiveness, and what should be avoided?

a)

Use IV KCl via pump, cardiac monitor, Mg-rich foods, hold calcium supplement; avoid worsening hypercalcemia and hypotonic fluids.

b)

Use IV KCl via gravity, increase calcium supplement, avoid cardiac monitoring.

c)

Use oral potassium only, increase hypotonic fluids, avoid magnesium-rich foods.

d)

Use IV KCl via pump, increase calcium supplement, avoid cardiac monitoring.

19.

During post-thoracentesis care, you notice continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of the chest drainage system. What strategic steps should you take, and what does this finding indicate about the location of the air leak?

a)

Investigate for a leak distal to the patient and ensure all connections are secure.

b)

Ignore the bubbling as it is always normal.

c)

Remove the chest tube immediately.

d)

Increase suction pressure without further assessment.

20.

After tonsillectomy, a patient is frequently swallowing and clearing their throat silently. What strategic reasoning should guide your assessment and intervention, and what is the underlying concern?

a)

Suspect silent oropharyngeal hemorrhage and monitor for signs of bleeding.

b)

Ignore the behavior as it is normal post-surgery.

c)

Encourage more swallowing to clear the throat.

d)

Administer pain medication only.

21.

A medication order requires you to infuse 50 mL over 0.5 hours. What is the correct infusion rate in mL/hr, and how do you determine it?

a)

100 mL/hr; Volume divided by time in hours.

b)

25 mL/hr; Volume divided by two.

c)

50 mL/hr; Volume equals rate.

d)

200 mL/hr; Double the volume for safety.

22.

A prescription calls for 0.12 g of a medication, and each tablet contains 60 mg. How many tablets should you administer, and what is the correct conversion process?

a)

2 tablets; Convert grams to mg, then mg to tablets.

b)

1 tablet; Use the closest whole number.

c)

3 tablets; Always round up.

d)

0.5 tablet; Divide the dose for safety.

23.

What is the most important initial intervention for a patient presenting with fluid overload and pitting edema due to congestive heart failure?

a)

Provide potassium supplements to prevent cramps

b)

Encourage bed rest to reduce cardiac workload

c)

Increase oral fluid intake to dilute sodium

d)

Administer IV diuretics to promote fluid removal

24.

When caring for a patient after chest tube placement, which sign indicates a possible complication requiring immediate intervention?

a)

Sudden increase in drainage and persistent air leak

b)

Intermittent bubbling with stable vital signs

c)

Drainage less than 50 mL in 24 hours and no air leak

d)

No drainage and clear breath sounds

25.

Which laboratory value should be closely monitored in a patient receiving loop diuretics for heart failure, and why is this important?

a)

Chloride, because loop diuretics cause hyperchloremia.

b)

Magnesium, because loop diuretics increase magnesium levels.

c)

Calcium, because loop diuretics cause hypercalcemia.

d)

Potassium, because loop diuretics can cause hypokalemia and increase arrhythmia risk.

26.

A patient with congestive heart failure is started on IV furosemide. Which assessment finding would indicate a potential complication from this therapy?

a)

Muscle weakness and irregular heart rhythm due to hypokalemia.

b)

Increased blood pressure due to fluid retention.

c)

Improved urine output and stable electrolytes.

d)

Bradycardia due to hyperkalemia.

27.

When administering intravenous magnesium sulfate for hypomagnesemia, what safety precautions should be taken, and what should be avoided?

a)

Use oral magnesium only, increase hypotonic fluids, avoid monitoring reflexes.

b)

Use IV pump, increase calcium supplement, avoid monitoring vital signs.

c)

Use gravity infusion, increase potassium supplement, avoid cardiac monitoring.

d)

Use IV pump, monitor deep tendon reflexes, cardiac monitor, avoid rapid infusion.

28.

Which clinical sign would most likely indicate worsening fluid overload in a patient with congestive heart failure?

a)

Increasing crackles and shortness of breath

b)

Improved exercise tolerance and clear lung sounds

c)

Decreased urine output and dry mucous membranes

d)

Stable weight and no peripheral edema

29.

What is the primary reason for monitoring serum creatinine in a patient receiving nephrotoxic antibiotics?

a)

To monitor for electrolyte imbalances

b)

To evaluate liver function

c)

To check for anemia

d)

To assess for potential kidney injury

30.

When administering IV potassium chloride, which action is most important to prevent complications?

a)

Infuse slowly using a pump and monitor cardiac rhythm

b)

Administer as a rapid IV push for quick correction

c)

Mix with dextrose and infuse by gravity

d)

Give IM injection for faster absorption

31.

After chest tube placement, which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

a)

Sudden cessation of drainage and increased respiratory distress

b)

Intermittent bubbling in the water-seal chamber

c)

Drainage less than 80 mL in 24 hours

d)

Clear breath sounds and stable vital signs

32.

A patient with heart failure is prescribed IV bumetanide. Which laboratory value should be monitored most closely, and what is the rationale?

a)

Platelets, because bumetanide causes thrombocytopenia.

b)

Glucose, because bumetanide increases blood sugar.

c)

Potassium, because bumetanide can cause hypokalemia and arrhythmias.

d)

Hemoglobin, because bumetanide causes anemia.

33.

After chest tube placement, which assessment finding indicates a possible tension pneumothorax requiring urgent intervention?

a)

Drainage less than 60 mL in 24 hours

b)

Clear breath sounds and stable oxygen saturation

c)

Intermittent bubbling in the water-seal chamber

d)

Tracheal deviation, severe respiratory distress, and absent breath sounds on affected side

34.

A patient’s arterial blood gas (ABG) results are: pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 55 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 26 mEq/L. Which acid-base disturbance is present?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Respiratory acidosis

35.

Which of the following is a common cause of atelectasis in postoperative patients?

a)

Asthma exacerbation

b)

Heart failure

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Bronchial obstruction due to mucus plug

36.

A patient develops sudden shortness of breath and decreased breath sounds in the right lower lung after abdominal surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Atelectasis

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Pleural effusion

d)

Pneumonia

37.

Which intervention is most effective in preventing atelectasis in a patient after surgery?

a)

Keeping the patient in a supine position

b)

Administering sedatives

c)

Restricting fluid intake

d)

Encouraging deep breathing and use of incentive spirometry

38.

Which of the following is a classic clinical feature of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

a)

Sudden onset chest pain and hemoptysis

b)

Intermittent fever and night sweats

c)

Progressive dyspnea and chronic productive cough

d)

Acute abdominal pain and vomiting

39.

What is the primary goal of long-term oxygen therapy in patients with severe COPD?

a)

To treat acute infections

b)

To improve survival and reduce complications of hypoxemia

c)

To prevent pulmonary embolism

d)

To cure the underlying lung disease

40.

Which medication class is most commonly used as a first-line maintenance therapy for stable COPD?

a)

Beta-blockers

b)

Long-acting bronchodilators (e.g., LABA or LAMA)

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Systemic corticosteroids

41.

Which of the following is a primary defect in cystic fibrosis?

a)

Defective chloride transport across epithelial cells

b)

Overproduction of red blood cells

c)

Impaired insulin secretion from the pancreas

d)

Decreased oxygen binding to hemoglobin

42.

A child with cystic fibrosis presents with frequent respiratory infections and thick sputum. What is the most strategic nursing intervention to help clear airway secretions?

a)

Encourage bed rest and limit activity

b)

Administer bronchodilators only

c)

Perform chest physiotherapy and encourage coughing

d)

Restrict fluid intake to prevent aspiration

43.

Which nutritional strategy is most important for children diagnosed with cystic fibrosis?

a)

Low-fat, low-calorie diet

b)

High-protein, high-calorie diet with pancreatic enzyme supplementation

c)

Salt-restricted diet

d)

Strict vegan diet

44.

A patient presents with muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, and flattened T waves on ECG. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely responsible for these findings?

a)

Hypernatremia

b)

Hypomagnesemia

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Hypokalemia

45.

A client with chronic alcoholism is admitted with confusion, tremors, and positive Chvostek's sign. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse suspect?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Hypermagnesemia

d)

Hyperphosphatemia

46.

Which of the following symptoms is most commonly associated with severe hyperkalemia?

a)

Polyuria and polydipsia

b)

Bradycardia and hypothermia

c)

Muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias

d)

Increased deep tendon reflexes and tetany

47.

A patient presents with confusion, dry mucous membranes, and a serum sodium of 155 mEq/L. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?

a)

Administer loop diuretics

b)

Restrict fluid intake

c)

Encourage oral water intake and monitor sodium levels

d)

Rapid infusion of hypotonic saline

48.

Which clinical sign is most indicative of severe hypernatremia?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Peripheral edema

c)

Muscle weakness and seizures

d)

Bradycardia

49.

Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of hypomagnesemia?

a)

Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes and muscle cramps

b)

Bradycardia and hypotension

c)

Polyuria and polydipsia

d)

Facial flushing and warm skin

50.

Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to occur concurrently with hypomagnesemia?

a)

Hypernatremia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Hyperphosphatemia

51.

What is the most appropriate initial nursing intervention for a patient with severe hypomagnesemia and new-onset seizures?

a)

Encourage increased dietary magnesium intake

b)

Restrict fluid intake to prevent dilutional hyponatremia

c)

Start intravenous magnesium sulfate as ordered and place the patient on cardiac monitoring

d)

Administer oral magnesium supplements