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Worksheets

Exam 1

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Ferret wrong handling leads to ________.

a)

Spinal fracture.

b)

Ear infection.

c)

Respiratory distress.

d)

Skin allergy.

2.

Prevention of stone formation is achieved by administering ________.

a)

Ammonium chloride.

b)

Calcium carbonate.

c)

Sodium bicarbonate.

d)

Potassium citrate.

3.

Dorsal lung sounds absent during anesthesia indicate ________.

a)

Pneumothorax.

b)

Pulmonary edema.

c)

Bronchitis.

d)

Aspiration pneumonia.

4.

In lateral recumbency, which lung has more ventilation?

a)

Upper lung.

b)

Lower lung.

c)

Both lungs equally.

d)

Neither lung.

5.

Drug for cows to regress corpus luteum is ________.

a)

Prostaglandin F2α.

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Insulin

d)

Adrenaline

6.

Ferrets with hypoglycemia are treated with ________.

a)

Insulinoma.

b)

Glucagon.

c)

Antibiotics.

d)

Steroids.

7.

Ferrets with alopecia and hyperestrogenism are diagnosed with ________.

a)

Hyperadrenocorticism.

b)

Diabetes mellitus.

c)

Hypothyroidism.

d)

Cushing's disease.

8.

In a farm herd, test to measure tuberculosis is ________.

a)

Intradermal test or comparative cervical tuberculin test (CCT).

b)

Widal test.

c)

Mantoux test for leprosy.

d)

ELISA for brucellosis.

9.

In goat lactic acidosis is due to ________.

a)

High grain diet.

b)

Low protein diet.

c)

Vitamin deficiency.

d)

Excessive water intake.

10.

Hemolytic anemia is caused by ________.

a)

Copper toxicity.

b)

Iron deficiency.

c)

Vitamin B12 excess.

d)

Zinc deficiency.

11.

Drug to treat hemolytic anemia is ________.

a)

Acepromazine + Aspirin.

b)

Paracetamol + Ibuprofen.

c)

Metformin + Glibenclamide.

d)

Omeprazole + Ranitidine.

12.

Oral lesions along with genital lesions and pustule on the mouth of a rabbit indicate ________.

a)

Treponematosis.

b)

Myxomatosis.

c)

Pasteurellosis.

d)

Coccidiosis.

13.

Nasal discharge and respiratory signs are symptoms of ________.

a)

Herpesvirus.

b)

Rabies.

c)

Ringworm.

d)

Parvovirus.

14.

Oral ulcer and buccal ulcer are caused by ________.

a)

Calicivirus.

b)

Influenza virus.

c)

Herpes simplex virus.

d)

Adenovirus.

15.

Atropine pharmacological effect is to

a)

Increase heart rate, decrease in salivation and secretion.

b)

Decrease heart rate, increase salivation and secretion.

c)

Cause bronchoconstriction and increase gastric motility.

d)

Induce sedation and lower blood pressure.

16.

Horse with a wound that is 2 hrs. old and fresh, what is the treatment?

a)

First intention suture.

b)

Apply cast.

c)

Leave wound open.

d)

Amputate limb.

17.

Left side 4th heart sound auscultated indicates ________.

a)

Aortic stenosis.

b)

Mitral regurgitation.

c)

Pulmonary embolism.

d)

Tricuspid stenosis.

18.

Dog sleeps on sofa during daytime and wakes up at night, this is a sign of ________.

a)

Cognitive dysfunction syndrome.

b)

Healthy sleep cycle.

c)

Proper training.

d)

Nutritional deficiency.

19.

Mast cell tumor effects lead to ________.

a)

Increased capillary permeability.

b)

Decreased heart rate.

c)

Reduced blood glucose levels.

d)

Inhibition of histamine release.

20.

Suspensory ligament attaches ________ to the body wall.

a)

Ovary.

b)

Uterus.

c)

Fallopian tube.

d)

Cervix.

21.

During surgery, cutting the ligament is to ________.

a)

Exteriorize the ovary.

b)

Ligate the blood vessels.

c)

Remove the uterus.

d)

Expose the bladder.

22.

History of lesions on the lip, mouth and ear of a sheep indicates ________.

a)

Parapox.

b)

Foot and Mouth Disease.

c)

Bluetongue.

d)

Sheep pox.

23.

P wave not present, T wave spike and QRS complex biphasic indicate ________.

a)

Atrial fibrillation.

b)

Ventricular tachycardia.

c)

Sinus bradycardia.

d)

First degree heart block.

24.

Diarrhea, bloody intestines are symptoms of ________.

a)

Clostridium perfringens type C.

b)

Salmonella enterica

c)

Escherichia coli O157:H7

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

25.

Watery diarrhea since 24-48 hrs. ago is caused by ________.

a)

E. coli (colibacillosis).

b)

Salmonella spp.

c)

Rotavirus.

d)

Clostridium perfringens.

26.

Hypersensitivity type I is induced by ________.

a)

Induced vaccination.

b)

Autoimmune reactions.

c)

Delayed-type hypersensitivity.

d)

Immune complex formation.

27.

Hypersensitivity type II is caused by ________.

a)

Blood transfusion.

b)

Allergic rhinitis.

c)

Contact dermatitis.

d)

Anaphylaxis.

28.

How to treat hypersensitivity type I?

a)

Diphenhydramine (antihistamine).

b)

Ibuprofen (NSAID).

c)

Metformin (antidiabetic).

d)

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor).

29.

Avulsion fracture of calcaneus of the tubercle, cause?

a)

Extension of the hock and flexion of the digits.

b)

Flexion of the hock and extension of the digits.

c)

Abduction of the foot and inversion of the ankle.

d)

Direct trauma to the plantar surface of the foot.

30.

WNV diagnostic test is ________.

a)

IgM capture ELISA.

b)

Western blot.

c)

PCR for viral RNA.

d)

Rapid antigen test.

31.

Vacuolization hepatitis is ________.

a)

Idiopathic feline hepatic lipidosis.

b)

Canine parvoviral enteritis.

c)

Feline infectious peritonitis.

d)

Equine infectious anemia.

32.

Horse auscultation around which muscles?

a)

Triceps muscles branches.

b)

Biceps femoris muscle.

c)

Gluteal muscles.

d)

Pectoral muscles.

33.

Tachypnea, respiratory distress and pulmonary edema are caused by ________.

a)

Increased pulmonary interstitial pressure.

b)

Decreased alveolar ventilation.

c)

Reduced cardiac output.

d)

Lowered blood oxygen saturation.

34.

Ocular pain in horses is treated by ________.

a)

Flunixin meglumine.

b)

Penicillin G.

c)

Acepromazine.

d)

Amoxicillin.

35.

Flunixin meglumine acts on ________.

a)

COX-1 and COX-2.

b)

Dopamine receptors.

c)

Beta-adrenergic receptors.

d)

Histamine H1 receptors.

36.

Lymphocytic plasmatic enteritis is treated with ________.

a)

Prednisolone.

b)

Amoxicillin.

c)

Metronidazole.

d)

Omeprazole.

37.

Slide not given but RBCs on slide appear central and macrocytic, pale mucous membranes and anemia with no blood in urine of cattle indicate ________.

a)

Anaplasma marginale.

b)

Babesia bovis.

c)

Theileria annulata.

d)

Leptospira interrogans.

38.

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy sample is taken from ________.

a)

Medulla oblongata.

b)

Cerebellum.

c)

Liver.

d)

Heart.

39.

In USA a bovine presents with enamel hypoplasia, the diagnosis is ________.

a)

Bovine viral diarrhea.

b)

Foot and mouth disease.

c)

Brucellosis.

d)

Tuberculosis.

40.

Dirofilaria immitis heart worm present in cats’ heart, treatment?

a)

Prednisolone

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Furosemide

d)

Enrofloxacin

41.

Bloody kidney on the sides only, no history of the dog provided. What is the cause?

a)

Parvovirus

b)

Leptospirosis

c)

Canine distemper

d)

Renal amyloidosis

42.

Tail docking: How many lateral and ventral?

a)

2 lateral and 1 ventral

b)

1 lateral and 2 ventral

c)

2 lateral and 2 ventral

d)

1 lateral and 1 ventral

43.

Exodontia performed most commonly in dogs for which disease?

a)

Periodontal disease

b)

Distemper

c)

Parvovirus

d)

Otitis externa

e)

Dermatitis

44.

Ventricular tachycardia treatment?

a)

Lidocaine

b)

Paracetamol

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Ibuprofen

45.

Female alpaca shows convulsions and is recumbent. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Cerebral nematodiasis

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Listeriosis

d)

Polioencephalomalacia

46.

Spherocytes, reticulocytes present and anisocytosis. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Immune mediated hemolytic anemia

b)

Iron deficiency anemia

c)

Aplastic anemia

d)

Megaloblastic anemia

47.

Dog case of abdominal distention, what’s the problem?

a)

Abdominal displacement and/or ileo-colic problem

b)

Renal failure

c)

Pulmonary edema

d)

Skin infection

48.

Cat having chronic ear problem and brownish discharge and nodules present in cytology. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Nasopharyngeal polyps

b)

Ear mite infestation

c)

Fungal otitis externa

d)

Ceruminous gland adenocarcinoma

49.

Case of myasthenia gravis with a mentioned cranial mediastinal mass, which test to perform?

a)

Acetylcholine antibody test

b)

Thyroid function test

c)

Liver function test

d)

Serum calcium test

50.

Procaine penicillin given by which route and what is used with it?

a)

IM and use diphenhydramine

b)

IV and use adrenaline

c)

Oral and use paracetamol

d)

Subcutaneous and use ibuprofen

51.

Non rebreathing system in dogs required flow rate?

a)

600 mL/min

b)

200 mL/min

c)

1000 mL/min

d)

1200 mL/min

52.

Increase in BUN and increase in creatinine, what test to perform?

a)

Urinalysis

b)

ECG

c)

Chest X-ray

d)

Liver function test

53.

Summer in cat pruritus and hair loss, what is the treatment?

a)

Flea combing

b)

Antibiotic therapy

c)

Surgical intervention

d)

Vitamin supplements

54.

Pig during anesthesia has increase in muscle tone and increase in body temperature. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Malignant hyperthermia

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Porcine stress syndrome

d)

Respiratory acidosis

55.

Chronic diarrhea, CBC normal and antibiotics are not responding. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Cryptosporidium

b)

Giardiasis

c)

Amoebiasis

d)

Salmonella infection

56.

Johne’s disease in animal, what to do next?

a)

Maintain in closed pen

b)

Start antibiotic therapy immediately

c)

Release into open pasture

d)

Feed high protein diet

57.

In a cat with perineal urethrostomy and sternal recumbency, what does it cause?

a)

Respiratory depression

b)

Increased appetite

c)

Hyperactivity

d)

Improved renal function

58.

Goat after surgery maintained in which side to prevent bloat?

a)

Sternal recumbency

b)

Left lateral recumbency

c)

Right lateral recumbency

d)

Dorsal recumbency

59.

Piglet after birth shows blindness, ataxia, tremor and head tilt. What is the deficiency?

a)

Vitamin A deficiency

b)

Vitamin D deficiency

c)

Iron deficiency

d)

Zinc deficiency

60.

Which part is difficult to feel in a horse when approached from the left cranial side?

a)

Pelvic flexure

b)

Cecum

c)

Spleen

d)

Left kidney

61.

After hemorrhage, there is an increase in APTT, PTT, blood clotting and decrease in platelets. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

b)

Hemophilia A

c)

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

d)

Vitamin K deficiency

62.

Schiff-Sherrington syndrome: What are the symptoms?

a)

Extended rigid forelimbs, flaccid paralysis and paresis of the hindlimbs

b)

Tremors and ataxia in all four limbs

c)

Loss of vision and hearing

d)

Severe coughing and respiratory distress

63.

Rhodopsin deficiency is due to which vitamin?

a)

Vitamin A deficiency

b)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

c)

Vitamin C deficiency

d)

Vitamin D deficiency

64.

Squamous cell carcinoma in cattle, what to do?

a)

Debulking surgery

b)

Antibiotic therapy

c)

Vitamin supplementation

d)

Deworming

65.

Which samples is mostly used to evaluate herd acidosis?

a)

Milk

b)

Blood

c)

Urine

d)

Saliva

66.

Total Ear Canal Ablation and Bulla Osteotomy (TECA-BO) in cats causes which complications?

a)

Facial nerve paralysis and Horner’s syndrome

b)

Renal failure and blindness

c)

Diabetes mellitus and hyperthyroidism

d)

Laryngeal paralysis and megaesophagus

67.

Which grass has high protein and calcium?

a)

Alfalfa

b)

Bermuda grass

c)

Timothy grass

d)

Fescue

68.

Puppy having bowel diet and stiff gait, feeding protocol?

a)

All meat diet

b)

High carbohydrate diet

c)

Low protein diet

d)

Vegetarian diet

69.

Blastomycosis shows which yeast?

a)

Broad based budding yeast

b)

Narrow based budding yeast

c)

Encapsulated yeast

d)

Germ tube positive yeast

70.

Treatment for hyperthyroidism?

a)

Methimazole

b)

Insulin

c)

Atorvastatin

d)

Omeprazole

71.

What changes are seen?

a)

Increase in TSH and decrease in T4

b)

Decrease in TSH and increase in T4

c)

Increase in TSH and increase in T4

d)

Decrease in TSH and decrease in T4

72.

Adrenal gland is in contact with what structure in the right side of a dog?

a)

Caudal vena cava

b)

Portal vein

c)

Aorta

d)

Gall bladder

73.

Mastectomy for 4, 5 and 6 mammary glands: What is ligated?

a)

Ligate caudal epigastric arteries

b)

Ligate cranial thyroid arteries

c)

Ligate femoral veins

d)

Ligate renal arteries

74.

Epidural anesthesia in dog: Which vertebrae?

a)

L7-S1

b)

L5-L6

c)

T13-L1

d)

S2-S3

75.

Treatment for vaginal prolapse → ________.

a)

Buhner suture.

b)

Castration.

c)

Antibiotic therapy.

d)

Ovariohysterectomy.

76.

Nerve block to block orbicularis oculi muscle → ________.

a)

Auriculopalpebral nerve block.

b)

Infraorbital nerve block.

c)

Mental nerve block.

d)

Maxillary nerve block.

77.

Formalin fixed tissue test, in which type of test?

a)

Immunohistochemistry.

b)

ELISA.

c)

Western blot.

d)

PCR.

78.

Increase in neutrophils and increase in lymphocytes indicates → ________.

a)

Bacterial infection.

b)

Viral infection.

c)

Allergic reaction.

d)

Parasitic infection.

79.

Cat case of uroperitoneum diagnosed by serum biochemistry showing increased in what?

a)

Creatinine levels.

b)

Glucose levels.

c)

Calcium levels.

d)

Cholesterol levels.

80.

Which disease to check in horses before transport to other states?

a)

Equine infectious anemia.

b)

Rabies.

c)

Tetanus.

d)

Strangles.

81.

Cat transfer to New Mexico, whom to call?

a)

New Mexico veterinary office.

b)

Local pet store.

c)

Animal shelter in Texas.

d)

Dog training center.

82.

Dilated cardiomyopathy in cats is due to → ________.

a)

Taurine deficiency.

b)

Vitamin D deficiency.

c)

Iron overload.

d)

Hyperthyroidism.

83.

Which drug should not be used in animals having uroliths?

a)

Xylazine.

b)

Atropine.

c)

Diazepam.

d)

Ketamine.

84.

Cranial cruciate ligament rupture → Diagnosed by ________.

a)

Tibial thrust test or cranial drawer test.

b)

Patellar reflex test.

c)

Biceps reflex test.

d)

Meniscal compression test.

85.

1st heart sound heard due to → ________.

a)

AV valve closure.

b)

Semilunar valve opening.

c)

Atrial contraction.

d)

Ventricular ejection.

86.

Gurgling sounds in endoscopy indicates arytenoid cartilage damaged → ________.

a)

Dorsal displacement of the soft palate.

b)

Epiglottic entrapment.

c)

Laryngeal hemiplegia.

d)

Tracheal collapse.

87.

Case of leptospirosis → ________.

a)

Farm fever due to rodent

b)

Malaria due to mosquito

c)

Dengue due to virus

d)

Tuberculosis due to bacteria

88.

Ranch abortion seen in yellow bison and elks → ________.

a)

Brucellosis.

b)

Tuberculosis.

c)

Leptospirosis.

d)

Anthrax.

89.

2-days old foal with intermittent colic, what is the treatment?

a)

Euthanize.

b)

Administer painkillers only.

c)

Feed high-energy supplements.

d)

Perform immediate surgery.

90.

Main reasons for glaucoma – Increased in intraocular pressure occurs due to problems in which structure?

a)

Iridocorneal angle.

b)

Retina.

c)

Lens.

d)

Optic nerve.

91.

Patency of nasolacrimal duct → ________.

a)

Fluorescein dye test.

b)

Schirmer's test.

c)

Tonometry.

d)

Retinoscopy.

92.

Lung worm of pigs → ________.

a)

Metastrongylus spp.

b)

Ascaris suum

c)

Trichuris suis

d)

Fasciola hepatica

93.

Lung worm of cats only having history of cough → ________.

a)

Aelurostrongylus abstrusus.

b)

Toxocara cati.

c)

Ancylostoma tubaeforme.

d)

Dirofilaria immitis.

94.

Test of horses for lung worms → ________.

a)

BAL.

b)

FECAL FLOATATION.

c)

SKIN SCRAPING.

d)

URINE ANALYSIS.

95.

Long history along with scaly legs mentioned, what is the etiology?

a)

Knemidokoptes mutans, a species of mite commonly known as the scaly leg mite.

b)

Aspergillus fumigatus, a fungal pathogen.

c)

Pasteurella multocida, a bacterial agent.

d)

Capillaria contorta, a nematode parasite.

96.

Transmission of fever from bird to human → ________.

a)

Chlamydophila psittaci (parrot fever).

b)

Salmonella typhi (typhoid fever).

c)

Plasmodium falciparum (malaria).

d)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (tuberculosis).

97.

Which disease of pigs can cause severe systemic infection in humans?

a)

Streptococcus suis.

b)

Swine influenza.

c)

Porcine circovirus infection.

d)

Foot and mouth disease.

98.

Which protozoa causes black head disease?

a)

Histomonas meleagridis.

b)

Eimeria tenella.

c)

Trypanosoma brucei.

d)

Plasmodium gallinaceum.

99.

Pale mucous membranes, anemia and splenomegaly in cats are signs of → ________.

a)

Haemophilus felis.

b)

Feline calicivirus.

c)

Feline leukemia virus.

d)

Feline panleukopenia virus.