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Lower Extremity Positioning: Toes, Sesamoids, and Foot

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

For an AP toes projection, how should the central ray be directed relative to the image receptor?

a)

Perpendicular to the IR

b)

Angled 10 degrees cephalic

c)

Angled 15 degrees caudal

d)

Perpendicular to the third MTP

2.

In an AP axial toes projection, what tube angulation is used?

a)

15 degrees cephalic toward heel

b)

10 degrees cephalic toward toes

c)

20 degrees caudal toward heel

d)

5 degrees caudal toward toes

3.

The centering point for an AP axial toes projection is at which joint?

a)

Third MTP joint

b)

First IP joint

c)

Second PIP joint

d)

Fifth MTP joint

4.

Which structures are best demonstrated on AP axial toes?

a)

Fourteen phalanges and distal metatarsals

b)

Calcaneus and sinus tarsi profile

c)

Talus dome and tibial plafond

d)

Navicular tuberosity and cuneiforms

5.

For a medial oblique toes view, the part rotation should be approximately which range?

a)

30 to 45 degrees

b)

10 to 15 degrees

c)

50 to 60 degrees

d)

5 to 10 degrees

6.

In a lateral toe projection of the great toe, where is the central ray directed?

a)

To the IP joint of the great toe

b)

To the first MTP joint

c)

To the base of third metatarsal

d)

To the calcaneocuboid joint

7.

For lateral projections of toes two through five, the central ray is perpendicular to which joint?

a)

PIP joint of affected toe

b)

DIP joint of affected toe

c)

MTP joint of affected toe

d)

IP joint of great toe

8.

The Lewis and Holly methods are specialized for imaging which bones?

a)

Sesamoids at first MTP

b)

Metatarsal shafts two to five

c)

Talar dome and trochlea

d)

Navicular and cuneiforms

9.

What is the patient position for the Lewis method of sesamoids?

a)

Prone with dorsiflexed toes

b)

Seated with plantar flexion

c)

Supine with knee flexed

d)

Lateral recumbent foot

10.

For the Holly method of sesamoids, the patient is typically positioned how?

a)

Seated with plantar surface on IR

b)

Prone with toes dorsiflexed

c)

Standing on cassette weight-bearing

d)

Supine with knee externally rotated

11.

In sesamoid projections, how is the central ray directed relative to the first MTP joint?

a)

Perpendicular and tangential to the joint

b)

Angled 10 degrees cephalic to joint

c)

Perpendicular to the third metatarsal

d)

Angled 15 degrees caudal to joint

12.

For an AP foot projection, where should the central ray be directed?

a)

Perpendicular to base of third metatarsal

b)

Perpendicular to second cuneiform

c)

10 degrees caudal to first MTP

d)

15 degrees cephalic to navicular

13.

An AP axial foot uses which central ray description?

a)

Angled 10 degrees cephalic entering base of third metatarsal

b)

Perpendicular to the talar dome entering ankle mortise

c)

Angled 15 degrees caudal entering navicular tuberosity

d)

Perpendicular to first MTP entering sesamoids

14.

Which advantage is gained by the AP axial foot over a non-angled AP foot?

a)

Better demonstration of tarsometatarsal joints

b)

Improved view of ankle mortise only

c)

Reduction of medial cuneiform overlap

d)

Isolated profile of the cuboid bone

15.

For an AP axial weight-bearing foot, what is the preferred SID?

a)

48 inches preferred

b)

40 inches standard

c)

72 inches always

d)

36 inches minimum

16.

In a medial oblique foot view, how much rotation is typically required?

a)

30 degrees from IR medially

b)

20 degrees from IR laterally

c)

45 degrees from IR laterally

d)

10 degrees from IR medially

17.

Which structures are best seen on a medial oblique foot projection?

a)

Lateral tarsal joint spaces and cuboid profile

b)

Medial cuneiforms without overlap

c)

Talus fully superimposed on tibia

d)

Sesamoids elongated without distortion

18.

During a lateral foot projection, which foot position helps open the ankle joint?

a)

Dorsiflex the foot

b)

Plantar flex the foot

c)

Invert the forefoot

d)

Evert the hindfoot

19.

For a standard lateral foot projection, the central ray is directed where?

a)

Perpendicular to base of the third metatarsal

b)

Angled 10 degrees cephalic to the ankle

c)

Perpendicular to the first MTP joint

d)

Angled 40 degrees to the calcaneus

20.

What additional information can be assessed on bilateral weight-bearing lateral feet?

a)

Structural status of the longitudinal arch

b)

Integrity of the tibial plafond cartilage

c)

Position of the fibular head in knee

d)

Range of motion of the subtalar joint

21.

For an axial calcaneus projection, which central ray direction is used to best visualize the subtalar joint?

a)

Perpendicular to calcaneus from plantar surface

b)

15 degrees cephalad to ankle mortise

c)

40 degrees cephalad through plantar surface

d)

10 degrees caudad to medial malleolus

22.

In a lateral calcaneus projection, where should centering be directed?

a)

At the lateral malleolus center point

b)

One inch distal to medial malleolus at subtalar joint

c)

Midway between the malleoli anteriorly

d)

Base of the fifth metatarsal proximally

23.

Which structure is demonstrated in profile on a true lateral calcaneus view?

a)

Anterior talofibular ligament complex

b)

Ankle mortise joint with clear tibial plafond

c)

Ankle joint and calcaneus in lateral profile

d)

Tibial plafond and fibular notch superimposed

24.

For an AP ankle projection, what part position is required to minimize rotation?

a)

Foot plantarflexed slightly downward

b)

Foot pointing straight up, dorsiflexed

c)

Foot everted fifteen degrees laterally

d)

Foot inverted thirty degrees medially

25.

The central ray for an AP ankle should pass:

a)

Perpendicular through ankle joint midway between malleoli

b)

Angled 5 degrees cephalad to tibial plafond

c)

Centered at base of fifth metatarsal head

d)

Perpendicular to medial malleolus apex

26.

Which structures are best shown on a proper AP ankle?

a)

Distal tibia and fibula with proximal talus

b)

Entire calcaneus with subtalar joint space

c)

Metatarsal heads and tarsometatarsal joints

d)

Proximal tibia and fibula including knee

27.

For a medial oblique ankle view, the leg is rotated:

a)

15 degrees medially for mortise

b)

25 degrees laterally for syndesmosis

c)

45 degrees medially from AP position

d)

10 degrees medially with plantarflexion

28.

The ankle mortise joint is profiled when the limb is:

a)

Rotated 15 to 20 degrees medially with dorsiflexion

b)

Rotated 45 degrees medially with eversion

c)

Rotated 20 degrees laterally with plantarflexion

d)

Kept AP with toes pointed downward

29.

For the mortise view, the central ray should be:

a)

Perpendicular to ankle joint entering midway between malleoli

b)

Angled 10 degrees cephalad to tibial plafond level

c)

Centered at lateral malleolus posterior border

d)

Perpendicular to the base of the fifth metatarsal

30.

Which positioning error most commonly closes the lateral mortise in a mortise ankle view?

a)

Insufficient medial rotation of the leg

b)

Excessive dorsiflexion of the foot

c)

Insufficient plantarflexion distally

d)

Centering too distal to malleoli

31.

For a lateral ankle projection, where is the central ray directed?

a)

Perpendicular to medial malleolus entry

b)

Perpendicular midway between malleoli anteriorly

c)

Angled 5 degrees caudad to tibiotalar joint

d)

Perpendicular to base of first metatarsal

32.

Which structures are demonstrated on a lateral ankle image when properly positioned?

a)

Ankle joint, tarsals, lower third tibia and fibula

b)

Calcaneus with sustentaculum tali en face

c)

Entire tibia and fibula with both joints

d)

Mortise joint with equal clear spaces

33.

For an AP tibia/fibula projection, the part should be positioned with:

a)

Femoral condyles parallel with IR, foot dorsiflexed

b)

Femoral condyles perpendicular and knee flexed

c)

Patella rotated medially with foot everted

d)

Knee flexed 30 degrees and ankle plantarflexed

34.

The central ray for an AP tibia/fibula is directed:

a)

Perpendicular to center of leg on IR

b)

Angled 10 degrees cephalad to knee joint

c)

Perpendicular to medial malleolus level

d)

Perpendicular to patellar apex center

35.

A lateral tibia/fibula requires the patella to be:

a)

Parallel to IR with epicondyles parallel

b)

Perpendicular to IR with condyles superimposed

c)

Angled 15 degrees to IR with toe up

d)

Aligned to ASIS with knee extended

36.

On the lateral tibia/fibula, where is the central ray aimed?

a)

Perpendicular to midpoint of leg

b)

Angled to medial malleolus entry

c)

Centered at tibial tuberosity level

d)

Perpendicular to fibular head region

37.

Which SID is commonly used for tibia/fibula to include both joints on one image?

a)

30 inches for magnification control

b)

48 inches to include both joints

c)

72 inches to reduce distortion

d)

40 inches standard extremity SID

38.

During a medial oblique ankle, what anatomy becomes superimposed over the talus?

a)

Distal tibia and fibula with tibiofibular overlap

b)

Bases of metatarsals and cuneiform alignment

c)

Distal tibia and fibula parts superimposed over talus

d)

Fibula free of tibial superimposition laterally

39.

Which patient position best describes a lateral ankle projection?

a)

Supine with leg extended and foot dorsiflexed

b)

Turned on affected side, leg and ankle lateral

c)

Prone with knee flexed and foot everted

d)

Seated with knee flexed and foot inverted

40.

To obtain a true AP ankle, which malleolar relationship should be achieved?

a)

Medial malleolus posterior to lateral malleolus

b)

Malleoli equidistant to IR with no rotation

c)

Lateral malleolus anterior to medial malleolus

d)

Medial mortise open with fibula posterior

41.

Which tube angulation is commonly used for an AP knee to account for patient habitus when the ASIS-to-tabletop measurement suggests a thin patient?

a)

5 degrees caudal to the knee joint

b)

5 degrees cephalic to the knee joint

c)

10 degrees caudal to the knee joint

d)

0 degrees perpendicular to the knee joint

42.

For a lateral knee projection, which structure should appear superimposed when the knee is correctly positioned?

a)

Tibial plateaus superimposed exactly

b)

Femoral condyles perfectly superimposed

c)

Patellar apex free of superimposition

d)

Fibular head completely superimposed

43.

Which knee projection best evaluates degenerative joint disease under physiologic load?

a)

Non-weight-bearing AP knee

b)

Cross-table lateral knee

c)

Bilateral weight-bearing AP knees

d)

PA axial Holmblad knee

44.

In the PA axial Holmblad method for the intercondylar fossa, the knee is flexed approximately how much from full extension?

a)

30 degrees from full extension

b)

45 degrees from full extension

c)

60 degrees from full extension

d)

70 degrees from full extension

45.

During the Holmblad method, where should the central ray enter to demonstrate the intercondylar fossa?

a)

Midpoint between femoral condyles

b)

Anterior surface of patella

c)

Superior aspect of the popliteal fossa

d)

Inferior margin of the patellar apex

46.

For the PA axial Camp Coventry method, which central ray description is correct?

a)

40 degrees cephalic to the knee joint

b)

Perpendicular to the femoral shaft

c)

Perpendicular to the long axis of the lower leg

d)

Parallel to the tibial plateau surface

47.

What typical tube angle is used for the Camp Coventry method to project the intercondylar fossa?

a)

20 degrees caudal

b)

30 degrees caudal

c)

40 degrees caudal

d)

50 degrees caudal

48.

For the AP axial Beclere method, what is the relationship between the long axis of the femur and the tibia?

a)

Femur 30 degrees to tibia axis

b)

Femur 45 degrees to tibia axis

c)

Femur 60 degrees to tibia axis

d)

Femur 75 degrees to tibia axis

49.

In a true PA patella projection, how should the patella relate to the image receptor?

a)

Parallel with the IR surface

b)

Perpendicular to the IR

c)

At 15 degrees to the IR

d)

Slightly oblique to the IR

50.

Where is the central ray directed for a PA patella?

a)

To the tibial tuberosity

b)

Perpendicular to the midpopliteal area

c)

Perpendicular to the patellar apex

d)

To the mid patellofemoral joint

51.

For a lateral patella, what knee flexion is recommended to open the patellofemoral joint space while maintaining stability?

a)

0 to 2 degrees flexion

b)

5 to 10 degrees flexion

c)

20 to 30 degrees flexion

d)

45 to 60 degrees flexion

52.

Which landmark alignment indicates a true lateral patella position?

a)

Femoral condyles superimposed

b)

Tibial spines symmetric

c)

Patellar apex centered

d)

Fibular head overlapped

53.

Which method is a tangential projection designed to evaluate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral joint surfaces?

a)

Holmblad method

b)

Settegast method

c)

Beclere method

d)

Camp Coventry method

54.

For the Settegast method, which statement about tube angulation is most accurate?

a)

Fixed 10 degrees cephalic is required

b)

No set angle; typically 15–20 degrees if needed

c)

Always 30 degrees caudal to joint

d)

Always perpendicular regardless of knee flexion

55.

In the AP femur distal projection, how is the affected extremity rotated to place femoral epicondyles parallel with the IR?

a)

Externally rotated 15 degrees

b)

Internally rotated 5 degrees

c)

Internally rotated until epicondyles parallel

d)

No rotation with foot neutral

56.

For the AP femur proximal projection, which rotation best profiles the femoral necks?

a)

Externally rotate 5–10 degrees

b)

Internally rotate 15–20 degrees

c)

No rotation with toes up

d)

Flex the hip 30 degrees

57.

Which centering is appropriate for AP femur imaging to include both joints when possible?

a)

Perpendicular to mid femur and IR center

b)

Perpendicular to knee joint line

c)

Angled 5 degrees to greater trochanter

d)

Centered to the femoral neck

58.

For a lateral distal femur, approximately how much should the knee be flexed?

a)

15 degrees flexion

b)

30 degrees flexion

c)

45 degrees flexion

d)

60 degrees flexion

59.

When positioning for the lateral proximal femur, how should the pelvis be adjusted to prevent superimposition of the proximal femur?

a)

Rotate pelvis 5 degrees anteriorly

b)

Rotate pelvis 10–15 degrees posteriorly

c)

Keep pelvis in true lateral

d)

Tilt pelvis 20 degrees toward table

60.

Which structure set should be clearly demonstrated on a correctly performed lateral femur?

a)

Entire femur and both joints

b)

Lateral projection of three-fourths of femur and adjacent joint

c)

Only distal femur and knee joint

d)

Only proximal femur and hip joint