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Special Procedures Review

Total questions: 33

Worksheet time: 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which radiographic exam investigates congenital vaginal malformations?

a)

HSG

b)

Vaginography

c)

Pelvimetry

d)

Fetography

2.

Which part of the uterine tube is widest and most common site of fertilization?

a)

Isthmus

b)

Ampulla

c)

Infundibulum

d)

Cervical canal

3.

Which of the following are evaluation criteria for HSG?

a)

Pelvic region centered 2 in above pubic symphysis

b)

Contrast spill visible

c)

Soft tissues demonstrated

d)

Entire abdomen included

4.

Which imaging modality has largely replaced pelvic pneumography?

a)

CT

b)

Ultrasound

c)

MRI

d)

Nuclear medicine

5.

Absolute contraindication for HSG is:

a)

Confirmed or suspected pregnancy

b)

Dysmenorrhea

c)

Prior C-section

d)

Irregular cycles

6.

Which contrast studies below typically employ nonionic, water-soluble iodinated contrast for patient safety and image quality? (select all that apply)

a)

Myelography

b)

Arthrography

c)

Hysterosalpingography

d)

Barium swallow

e)

T-Tube cholangiography

7.

Potential complications of HSG include which of the following pairs?

a)

Vasovagal reaction

b)

Cramping

c)

Contrast allergy

d)

Infection

8.

Which of the above is considered a normal HSG finding?

a)

Focal filling defect in uterine fundus

b)

No tubal filling

c)

Bilateral tubal filling with free peritoneal spillage

d)

Beaded, dilated tubes without spillage

9.

PTC is most often indicated in patients with:

a)

Gallstones detected by ultrasound

b)

Jaundice with dilated ducts but unclear cause

c)

Pancreatic pseudocyst

d)

Acute appendicitis

10.

Direct-injection biliary procedures include which of the following?

a)

PTC

b)

ERCP

c)

T-tube cholangiography

d)

Intravenous cholangiography

11.

From an imaging standpoint, the liver’s primary function is production of:

a)

Amylase

b)

Bile

c)

Insulin

d)

Pepsin

12.

The right and left hepatic ducts join to form the:

a)

Common bile duct

b)

Cystic duct

c)

Common hepatic duct

d)

Pancreatic duct

13.

The gallbladder’s functions include: Which of the above is a correct function of the gallbladder?

a)

Production of bile and enzymes

b)

Storage and concentration of bile; evacuation via CCK

c)

Production of insulin

d)

Detoxification of bilirubin

14.

A T-tube cholangiogram is performed primarily to evaluate: (select all that apply)

a)

Duct patency and caliber

b)

Sphincter of Oddi function

c)

Residual stones

d)

Pancreatic pseudocyst rupture

15.

Which imaging modalities have largely replaced radiographic contrast arthrography?

a)

CT

b)

MRI

c)

Ultrasound

d)

Nuclear medicine

16.

Arthrography is defined as radiography of:

a)

Bones

b)

Joints

c)

Muscles

d)

Ligaments

17.

Which joint is most frequently examined with arthrography?

a)

Knee

b)

Shoulder

c)

Hip

d)

Wrist

18.

Which pathology is best evaluated with shoulder arthrography?

a)

Rotator cuff tear

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Fracture

d)

Osteoarthritis

19.

Post-procedure instruction after shoulder arthrogram commonly includes:

a)

Immediate heavy lifting allowed

b)

No activity restrictions

c)

No physical activity for 24 hours and ice as needed

d)

Bedrest 24 hours

20.

Typical shoulder arthrogram needle placement is:

a)

2 cm medial to AC joint

b)

1 cm inferior and lateral to coracoid process

c)

1 cm superior to coracoid

d)

Over bicipital groove

21.

Post-myelography recovery instructions include: (Select all that apply)

a)

Elevate head/shoulders 30–45°

b)

Encourage fluids

c)

Immediate driving

d)

Bed rest for several hours

22.

Common lumbar puncture site for myelography include:

a)

L1–L2

b)

L2–L3

c)

L3–L4

d)

L5–S1

23.

Which portion of the brain connects the cerebrum to the pons and cerebellum?

a)

Medulla

b)

Midbrain

c)

Corpus callosum

d)

Vermis

24.

Which traditional radiographic method uses a single IR with tube/table movement for long bone measurement?

a)

Orthoroentgenography

b)

Scanography

c)

Teleoroentgenography

d)

Tomography

25.

Which modality yields the lowest radiation dose for long bone measurement?

a)

Conventional radiography

b)

Microdose digital radiography

c)

CT

d)

Teleroentgenogram

26.

Radiation protection for pediatric long bone measurement includes:

a)

A. Gonadal shielding

b)

B. Immobilization

c)

C. Accurate centering

d)

D. No collimation

27.

Which sequence is correct for upright stitched DR exposures?

a)

Knee → ankle → hip

b)

Hip → knee → ankle

c)

Ankle → hip → knee

d)

Random order

28.

Evaluation criteria for stitched long bone measurement include: (Select all that apply)

a)

Side marker clear of anatomy

b)

Image of special ruler

c)

Hip, knee, ankle anatomy included

d)

Visualizing iliac crest

29.

CT scanogram advantages include: (Select all that apply)

a)

Lower radiation dose

b)

Consistent reproducibility

c)

Comparable cost

d)

No need for cursor placement

30.

List the specialized exams used for long bone measurement:

a)

Scanogram

b)

Teleroetgenogram

c)

Upright stitched DR

d)

Orthoroentgenogram

31.

MRI accuracy for long bone measurement is approximately:

a)

70%

b)

80%

c)

99%

d)

50%

32.

A CT scanogram advantage over conventional radiographs is that it is:

a)

Less reproducible

b)

More operator dependent

c)

More consistently reproduced with less radiation

d)

Not suitable for children

33.

In orthoroentgenography, consistent knee flexion matters because:

a)

It reduces soft-tissue blur only

b)

It standardizes femoral/tibial length projection for accuracy

c)

It lowers dose dramatically

d)

It eliminates the need for a ruler